#Uncountable set
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My doubt comes cause ]0,1[ has also irrational numbers
Consider the function $\tan(\pi\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right))$. It's a bijection between which two sets?
mPear Category Theorem
Alternatively, suppose that $\mathbb{R}$ were countable. Then we would have some bijection $\phi:\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{R}$. But, $]0,1[\subseteq\mathbb{R}$; so there is some subset $S\subseteq\mathbb{N}$ such that $\phi(S)=]0,1[$.
mPear Category Theorem
Well, so does ℝ.
Ye that’s it, I’m completely brain rot
Was thinking of R as Q
Oh, I see 😅
Yeah, that wouldn't be possible in that case, of course.
$$|(0,1)| \leqslant |\mathbb R| \leqslant |(0,1)| $$
aL
cantor bernstein schroeder shenanigans
What?
in other words, it's enough to find an injective function R -> (0,1)
R<=0,1 ??
When they are both uncountable sets we can say this?
the first inequality is obvious
Yes
$$ \mathbb R \to (-\pi/2, \pi/2) \to (0,1) $$
aL
these injections can also be found
I can see the injections on the inverse order not in bigger sets going to smaller sets
arctan x is injective (bijective even)
and then (-pi/2,pi/2) -> (0,1) injection is easy enough
I mean, I just agree with mPear's proposition - just take a bijective function with the given sets as the domain and range. Pretty easy in this case.
That I can see
so you have injections (0,1)->R and R->(0,1)
assuming you have proved R is uncountable, you're done
Ok thanks so in general if A,B are uncountable A<= B<=A is always possible?
Can you give a simple example?
R and P(R)
both are uncountable
but one is strictly bigger in cardinality than the other
What is P(R)?
$$ \mathcal P(A) = {X \subseteq A} $$
aL
I understand now thanks
Because (0, 1) is a strict subset of R, therefore R must be at least as large as (0, 1).
Just like how the prime numbers are a strict subset of the integers, therefore a proof of infinitely many primes is a proof of infinitely many integers.
@real pendant
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