#Limits
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a good example is the following:
$$\lim_{x\to 0} (\frac{1}{x})^{\tan(\frac{x}{2\pi})}$$
When taking both sides the natural logarithm I get the following:
$$\lim_{x\to 0} \ln(\frac{1}{x})^{\tan(\frac{x}{2\pi})} = \ln(L)$$
Reyess
$$\lim_{x\to 0} \tan(\frac{x}{2\pi}) *\ln(x) *(-1)$$
Reyess
However now I would think I could only take the right hand limit since
we have ln(x) now
Note what you have; an inf^0 indeterminate form.
This transforms it into a 0 * inf indeterminate form.
I know yes
However do I need to now say that you only have a right hand limit?
Since we have ln(x) where x approaching 0
Oh, I understand the question now.
I mean, you always only had the right handed limit.
I think?
Because tangent tends to be irrational, and a negative number to an irrational power is always complex.
Well they both exist
I looked at the solution and it says that it is equal to a number so both left hand and right hand limit exist
...can you prove that?
, w lim x —> 0 (1/x)^tan(x/(2pi))
That’s why I am confused
I mean you can just plug it in, no?
What?
The problem is here, where we have ln(x) and x is approaching 0
Which means you only have a right hand limit
However it is not the case
Hm?
of the first one I mean
because you're taking a negative number to the power of an irrational number
so you have to take the right hand limit if you're working in the reals
The answers doesn’t say so, both limit exists
well it definetly exists but not in the reals
...no, it doesn't. It's an indeterminate form.
in the starting function?
Yes. It's inf^0.
You just get (1/0)^0
...which is an indeterminate form.
0^0 is also an indeterminate form.
by this convention yes
...you don't know what an indeterminate form is, do you?
well I think I know but I thought 0^0 = 1 by convention
We're not talking about 0^0, which is undefined. We're talking about a limit.
fair enough
1^inf and inf^0 are also indeterminate forms.
And this is an inf^0 indeterminate form.
What do you mean you "think" you know what an indeterminate form is? What do you think it is?
something that depends on the case
...what?
like depends on the circumstances
like infty - infty isn't a set value, it depends on "what" does infinities are
Right, and the same holds for 0^0, inf^0 and 1^inf.
yeah fair
Because we're not talking about literal 0s and 1s, we're talking about limits that approach 0 or 1.
yes I got that
( so I have done everything until that part, however I just an answer from the prof and he said the following which I am not really sure about if I totally understand it)
Briefly stated, it is fine because there is nothing to the left of 0 in the domain. Note that 0 is indeed a limit point of the domain and that we are allowed to apply the definition of the limit.
Since there is nothing to the left of 0 in the domain, the above definition is actually equivalent to the definition of the right-hand limit.
This is different from, for example, the function
1/x. There you do need to split into left-hand and right-hand limits because there is indeed something to the left in the domain.
You need some algebraic manipulations in order to get the left limit
For example, when x < 0, then (-x) > 0
So we will try to find ways to make -x appear when it is important
Example: tan(x/2pi) = -tan(-x/2pi)
And (1/x) = - 1/(-x)
The next consideration is whether or not (1/x)^(tan x/2pi) is even defined
You can notice that x |-> tan(x/2pi) is continuous
Which means, as Techie mentioned, that this thing is not defined for all x, even for x nonzero
If 1/x is negative, and tan(x/2pi) is equal to -1/(2^n) for a certain integer n (you can find such x thanks to continuity and IVT), then (1/x)^(tan(x/2pi)) is not defined
So to be clear, in the first place you cannot have a left side limit
but we do say whenever x is not in the domain however we do have a right limit
so if its not in the domain, then we can still have a "total" limit as in left hand limit = right hand limit
It is undefined for all x<0 such that tan(x/2pi) is irrational, or in the form p/q where p is odd
That is already a lot
hmm don't really understand it to be honest
Basically (1/x)^(tan(x/2pi)) is hardly even defined anywhere
For x < 0
It makes no sense to talk about a left limit
how would I know that just looking at that function
For which y is (-1)^y defined?
oh my bad yeah
for even roots
it is not defined
so the form y= 1/n with n being even
yeah
Well that's why imho you aren't expected to consider a left limit
I see thanks!
Also
$$\lim_{x\to 1} \frac{\sqrt{x^2-1}-\sqrt{x-1}}{\sqrt{\ln(x)}}$$
Reyess
Doing l’hopital and stuff makes it even worse
So I don’t really see how you should approach this problem
First of all you can only evaluate the right limit, if there is one
And second, I would advise trying to further simplify the numerator
after doing l'hopital?
before, of course
l'H is a powerful theorem but overall pretty impractical to use
because the computations can become very long
yeah exactly
so of course you'd want to avoid long computations as much as you can
by simplifying for example
or evaluating simpler limits and inferring stuff from there
for example, you can simplify sqrt(x²-1)
I thought maybe since there is both sqrt in numerator and denominator we can turn it into( (x^2-1)/(lnx))^1/2 ( we can do that since both of them are positive)
well, first of all how can you simplify x² - 1?
(x-1)(x+1)
yeah good
ah and then take out the sqrt(x-1)
now sqrt((x-1)(x+1))
yeah
so that already gives you somethiing a bit more compact
yeah true
$\frac{\sqrt{x-1} \left(\sqrt{x+1}-1\right)}{\sqrt{\ln x}}$
Rion
now the pair of parentheses has a known limit
that's pretty easy to figure out
what is that limit?
$\sqrt{x+1} - 1 \xrightarrow[x \to 1_+]{} ?$
sqrt(2)-1
Rion
yeah
it would be a factor, but won't influence whether or not the limit exists or not
so we proceed with the remaining factors
$\sqrt{\frac{x-1}{\ln x}}$
Rion
here, notice that you also don't care all that much about the square root
if its inside has a limit, then by continuity of the square root function, you can work it out afterwards
same if the limit doesn't exist
alright I see yeah, it just has to be continuous
so we basically minimized our limit computation
and sqrt is indeed continuous
to $\frac{x-1}{\ln x}$
and yu get 1 for that part
Rion
that's all you need to evaluate the limit for
1*(sqrt(2)-1)
to know the limit for the whole thing
damn
Anyway, the take home message is: don't jump to l'H rule immediately, it's a terrible habit to have
yeah, it really is
I should simplify things more
but I sometimes am not sure if we can take the limit like we did for the parentheses part
if we can evaluate it separately
just take a look and see if it's not already something you can ignore
in our case yes
well yes, you simply have that the limit of the overall doesn't exist
if f(x) has a nonzero limit at a, but g(x) doesn't have a limit at a
then f(x)g(x) doesn't have a limit at a
hmm yeah, I should read about those theorems to see when I can do certain things
if it had a limit, say L
then f(x)g(x)/f(x) would also have a limit at a
which would be equal to the limit of L/f(x)
contradiction
(typically it is more useful and elegant to use sequences to disprove the existence of limits)
hmm alrighty
I'll look a bit into it, because otherwise I'll be asking a lot of questions
thanks for the help
hey rion could you help me out with derivatives I keep getting something wrong
you made the assumption the limit exists
how do you know limit exists?
this is cursed
what you can do is this
$$ -\lim _{x\to 0} \tan \left( \frac{x}{2\pi} \right)\ln x$$
aL
if this limit exists, then you can use continuity to deduce the limit of the initial expression
||this limit is 0||
you are arguing in circles
what you are doing is:
If the limit exists, then the limit is 1, therefore the limit exists and the limit is 1
this is cursed
you can't argue like that
@supple plover
Well what I thought is that if a limit exists then it means that the left hand limit should be equal to the right hand limit
but since there is this epsilon delta definition that says if the domain doesn’t exists for x< 0, we can still say that the limit exists but we just don’t care about the left hand limit
you are expected to deduce from context that the domain is x>0
a^x is not defined for a < 0
it's what @vivid copper keeps saying over and over, A implies B being true does not imply that B is true
for example let's say you have to calculate
$$ \lim _{x\to 0+} x^{1/x} $$
aL
and you do what you did
$$ \lim _{x\to 0+} x^{1/x} = L \Rightarrow -\infty= \lim _{x\to 0+} \frac{\ln x}{x} = \ln L $$
aL
and from this you infer that L = 0
it is true that L = 0, but you will have assumed the limit L exists to conclude L = 0
but WHY does the limit exist at all?
we don't know this
arguing in this fashion is cursed
Yeah I know now
A correct argument can be given as follows.
- The limit as x ->0+ of ln x / x is -inf
- The function e^x is continuous
- Limits commute with continuous functions
- Initial limit is 0
also do you mind helping me with a question
I guess I'll need to create a post
+close
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@supple plover
Hello reyess77, this is a friendly reminder that your help request has been inactive for more than 24 hours. If you no longer need assistance, please consider closing the thread using the +close command. This thread will be automatically closed in 3 days if it remains inactive.
Hey, could you help me with one things about limits?
Or someone else?
@ornate basin @vivid copper @indigo oracle The user still needs help with this help request.
You've already issued the close request, why not ask in a new channeL?
Well since it was about limits, I thought maybe just ask it in here
So the prof just says that it goes to 1, the yellow marked bit. However you can only do that if both limit exists, so how does he know that they will both exist?
I can't read that.
...why don't you just tell me what it says?
Reyess
So he just said that the denominator goes to 1
And then solved the numerator
However you can only do that if both top limit and denominator exist
How does he know that the numerator will exist?
...if the limit of the numerator doesn't exist, does the limit exist?
No
So then if the limit exists, then it equals the limit of the numerator over the limit of the denominator, right?
...by checking whether the limit of the numerator exists.
No.
That’s essentially what we’re doing
No it's not.
Tell me why it isn’t the case
...what is it that you think we're gambling on?
Okay so we factor out 1/tanhx it goes to 1, and ofc you can only do this when both limit exists
But you don’t know that the other exists
Because you still have an indeterminate form
but ofc after manipulation it seems like it exists
...how would we find out if the limit of the numerator exists?
by solving it?
So then whether the whole limit exists or not, we need to solve the limit of the numerator.
Okay, then we still are “gambling” since we’re not sure we could do that
No.
To say that it's a "gamble" is to say that something is at risk. What is the risk here?
So you assume to factor out the denominator, and then check if it exists the numerator after doing factoring outv
that it doesn’t exist?
No, you don't assume anything.
You observe that the limit of the denominator converges to something other than 0.
Therefore, if the limit exists, the limit of the numerator must also converge.
If the limit exists yeah, but thats not the limit
It’s part of the limit the 1/tanhx
Okay, stop.
From the top.
We have this limit.
We don't know what it is.
We don't even know if it converges.
We want to evaluate it.
So we look at it.
We see that the limit of the denominator is 1.
Therefore, the existence of the limit is dependent entirely on the existence of the limit of the numerator.
Don’t really get it sorry
Okay, what do we stand to lose in this "gamble"?
“Gamble” so one of the limit properties is that you can break it down to the limit of numerator and denominator if both limit exists
What do you mean?
It's only a "gamble" if we can lose.
yeah
But what would we lose?
...then we lose what?
...no, we did our work to prove that the limit diverges.
And what if both limit diverged? You could not conclude anything?
...then we'd have more work to do.
Okay, look, the whole point is to evaluate this limit.
Yes
If we've done that, then we've done the job.
If the limit diverges, then we win if we prove the limit diverges.
If the limit converges, then we win if we prove the limit converges and to what.
In either case, we can tell already that the denominator converges.
So the limit diverges if and only if the numerator diverges.
So if we prove the numerator diverges, then we prove the limit diverges, and we're done.
If we prove the numerator converges, then we prove the limit converges, and we're done.
It's not a gamble, because in either case it's what we need to do.
Do you mean the total limit here, or just a part of the limit in this case the numerator or denominator?
...yes, the total limit.
Okay how would you know that if the numerator converges the limit converges
...because the denominator converges.
Like, that's just exactly what you were talking about, how the limit of the ratio is the ratio of the limits if both limits converge and the denominator isn't 0.
The denominator converges to something nonzero, therefore if the limit of the numerator converges, then the limit converges.
yeah if the numerator converges and the denominator converges, I agree that the whole limit converges
So basically you have 2 options
or it diverges or converges
so it’s not a gamble
It diverges or it converges, and in either case, the outcome is dependent on the numerator.
Therefore, in either case, we must examine the limit of the numerator.
What are you even talking about?
Don’t worry, Ill just figure it out myself
Thanks for the help
...then close the channel, I guess.
...yes
Channel's still open.
+close
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