#Convergence
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mtr123
my intuition is that the claim is wrong, though trying to come up with a counter example wasn't easy for me, tried (-1)^n/n but that doesn't work
if alternating one term doesn't work, ||how about try alternating two terms?||
yeah ill give it a shot
Ok i think i got it
choose:
$a_n = \frac{(-1)^n}{ln(n)}$ we have $\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1/ln(n) \geq \sum_{n=1}^\infty 1/n$ diverge and also by leibniz theorem we have $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ converge
now we check for $a_n+a_{n+1}$
$= | (-1)^n \frac{1}{ln(n) - \frac{1}{ln(n+1)}} | 😐 \frac{ln(n+1)-ln(n)}{ln(n)ln(n+1)}|$
now i want to compare this with $\frac{1}{ln(n)^2}$ and claim that they diverge or converge together and i know this series diverge since its bigger than 1/(sqrt n)^2 which diverge and thats it?
mtr123
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Unfortunately you'll find that the series converges
the denominator is equivalent to ln(n)²
but try finding an equivalent of the numerator
which part are you relating too?
ain't sum a_n+a_n+1 diverge?
dont i get ln(n+1 / n) and as goes to infty it goes to 0 cuz we have ln(1)?
so they diverge/ converge together?
what's an equivalent of that?
yes but it doesn't diverge
1/ln(n)^2 converge?
but that's not an equivalent of your general term
dont we have ln(n) < sqrt n?
so 1/ln(n)^2 > 1 / n?
your general term is smaller
also I think it doesn't
ln(n) << sqrt(n)
1/ln(n)² >> 1/n
yes but that isn't enough to conclude that |a_n + a_{n+1}| has a divergent series
because |a_n + a_[n+1]| in practice is much smaller than 1/ln(n)²
can't we use this one?
with c_n at the numerator = |a_n+a_{n+1}|
and b_n = 1/ln(n)^2?
this is what im suggesting but maybe im missing omething
yes but you'll find out that their ratio isn't convergent to a nonzero finite limit
in other words they're not equivalent
$\frac{\ln(1 + \frac{1}{n})}{\ln(n)\ln(n+1)}$
Rion
and we divide that by 1/ln(n)^2
so we are left with $\frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)}\cdot ln(1+\frac{1}{n})$
mtr123
yeah see, now that clearly doesn't converge to a finite nonzero limit
that's not nonzero
in fact $\lvert a_n - a_{n+1} \rvert$ is equivalent to $\frac{1}{n \ln n}$
Rion
so this example doesn't even work?
yes
try following MartinFTW's suggestion
take $a_{2n} = a_{2n+1} = \frac{(-1)^n}{n}$
Rion
you wrote is as 2n and 2n+1 for even / odd?
yeah
take a_0 and a_1 some arbitrary value
(it doesn't matter)
a_2 = a_3
a_4 = a_5
...
- why is that the term of a conditionally convergent series?
- verify the other property
ain't it actually:
$a_2n = 2\cdot \frac{(-1)^n}{n}?$
so it will diverge easily if we take absolute value and converge again using Leibniz.
need to check the last property
mtr123
what?
I don't get what the 2 factor is doing there
summing the original series, ain't it like looking at the even spots and multiply by 2? cuz odd=even?
a_2=a_3
a_4=a_5
so we can just sum the even spots and multiply by 2, cant we?
basically, I took a_2 = 1/2, a_3 = 1/2, a_4 = -1/3, a_5 = -1/3, ...
What you mean is $\sum a_n = 2 \sum \frac{(-1)^n}{n}$
Rion
this much is true, but needs to be proven (fall back to partial sums)
ok i see, let me think about it a little bit and i'll just write here later on
ok so for the first part, can't i still you Leibniz theorem to show this series indeed converge?
in order to show it doens't absolutely converge we can look at
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_{2n} = \frac{1}{n}$ which still diverge cuz its just the harmonic series and it is less than the original absolute value of the series.
mtr123
and for the last part we have
$a_{2n}+a_{2n+1} = \frac{2}{n}$ so since all our sequence values are positive (taking absolute value), and this part diverge, the series is going to diverge?
mtr123
@silver basalt
Formally, to show convergence, consider $S_{N} = \sum_{n=0}^{N} a_n = \sum_{ 2 \leq n \leq N \mathrm{ even}} a_n + \sum_{ 2 \leq n \leq N \mathrm{ odd}} a_n$
Rion
now notice that while both these sums might not be equal, they both converge
and this is where you start to think of Leibniz's theorem to show it
oh so since both converge i can claim the whole series converge so i could use it?
Why do both converge?
dont we just get the lebiniz series for each?
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^n/n$
mtr123
In case you don't get why I'm asking so many questions: the task is quite reasoning intensive and I need you to be quite rigorous in the reasoning, which includes using the right terms too
You can indeed apply Leibniz's rule to each series to prove they converge
hence, the partial sum S_N will also converge as N tends to infinity
yeah no problem, i like that you keep asking questions cuz it helps
cool thank you!
Now that you've shown that the series of a_n converges (because the partial sum converges)
can you disprove absolute convergence?
again, here, use partial sums to formally disprove absolute convergence
actually not sure how to use partial sums here.
looking at the even n's we get $\sum_{n=1}^\infty = \frac{1}{n}$ and the same for the odd part. meaning both are the harmonic sequence which sum diverge to infinity so can't we just claim it diverge?
mtr123
because we have just even is smaller than even + odd (all are positive values)
Yes that's the idea
you can find a divergent subsequence of (A_N), where A_N is the partial sum of |a_n| up to the N-th term
take (A_2N), it is easy to see that it diverges
therefore S_N does not converge
Don't worry, all that's left is to conclude
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