My attempt and the solution below. I understand the solution completely. But I dont understand why my approach lead me to have an incorrect answer. My proof writing is atrocious, aand If I were to be presented another simple proof it would probably be convoluted asf like this one. How do I avoid this?
#is there any hope?
30 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
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are you familiar with Bezout's identity ?
(the proof you wrote makes no sense)
(or Gauss Lemma, one of these two will suffice)
Yes, idk how to use it.
ok, bezout's identity states that if a and b are coprime (that is (a,b) = 1), then there exists two integers u and v such that au + bv = 1.
in your case, you know that (a,n)=1, so you may write au + nv = 1 for some integers u and v
Do i use bezouts identity anytime i see gcd in a proof?
no, it is not automatic, but you it should switch some light on
now, you use the information that n divides ab, so you want to make ab appear somewhere in the bezout identity
(or maybe it is better to take Bezout's identity and you look at it mod n @faint crypt )
If 1=gcd(a,b) then doesnt a=1 by definition? We can represent a by its coefficient 1 hence n|(b-c)?
no, 1=gcd(a,b) means that any integer that divides both a and b must also divide 1
for instance, gcd(3,5)=1
indeed, 5×2 - 3×3 = 1, so if d divides both 5 and 3, then d must divide the right hand-side of the equation, hence d divides 1
Can we write another pair of arbitrary variables to + to au+bv and use algebra to cancel (without dividing)? Im sort of lost.
just take the identity au+nv=1 modulo n, what do you observe ?
n|((au+nv)-1)
but n also divides nv, so what do you also conclude ?
This is where im not sure. But ill guess... maybe that n|bv as well? Since its of the form au+bv=1 which is equivalent?
there's no b yet, you simply started with (a,n) = 1, hence you have au + nv = 1 for some u and v
as n divides nv, what can you say about au - 1 ?
That b also divides that?
Sorry i meant n divides it too