#is there any hope?

30 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

faint crypt
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My attempt and the solution below. I understand the solution completely. But I dont understand why my approach lead me to have an incorrect answer. My proof writing is atrocious, aand If I were to be presented another simple proof it would probably be convoluted asf like this one. How do I avoid this?

fringe condorBOT
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candid hedge
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(the proof you wrote makes no sense)

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(or Gauss Lemma, one of these two will suffice)

faint crypt
candid hedge
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ok, bezout's identity states that if a and b are coprime (that is (a,b) = 1), then there exists two integers u and v such that au + bv = 1.

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in your case, you know that (a,n)=1, so you may write au + nv = 1 for some integers u and v

faint crypt
candid hedge
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no, it is not automatic, but you it should switch some light on

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now, you use the information that n divides ab, so you want to make ab appear somewhere in the bezout identity

candid hedge
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(or maybe it is better to take Bezout's identity and you look at it mod n @faint crypt )

faint crypt
candid hedge
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no, 1=gcd(a,b) means that any integer that divides both a and b must also divide 1

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for instance, gcd(3,5)=1

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indeed, 5×2 - 3×3 = 1, so if d divides both 5 and 3, then d must divide the right hand-side of the equation, hence d divides 1

faint crypt
candid hedge
faint crypt
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n|((au+nv)-1)

candid hedge
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but n also divides nv, so what do you also conclude ?

faint crypt
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This is where im not sure. But ill guess... maybe that n|bv as well? Since its of the form au+bv=1 which is equivalent?

candid hedge
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there's no b yet, you simply started with (a,n) = 1, hence you have au + nv = 1 for some u and v

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as n divides nv, what can you say about au - 1 ?

faint crypt
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That b also divides that?

candid hedge
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there's no b

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I am just asking you to determine au-1 mod n

faint crypt
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Sorry i meant n divides it too

candid hedge
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ok, so au = 1 mod n.

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now you go back to the equation ab = ac mod n