#how to prove
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by z' do you mean the conjugate of z
Yes
then $\text{amp }z+\text{amp }\bar{z}=0$
waffle
because
If $z=a+ib$ then $\text{amp }z=\tan^{-1}\qty(\frac ba)$ and\$\text{amp }\bar{z}=\tan^{-1}\qty(-\frac ba)=-\tan^{-1}\qty(\frac ba)$
waffle
Are you sure?
hmm yeah
................................................................................................................................
Topic what i covered:
(1) amp (z) - amp(-z) = + - Pi
(2) amp (z) + amp (z bar) = 2 n pi
(3)
..........................................................................................................................
isn't amplitude defined as the principal argument
waffle
what does amp mean
The angle which a complex number made with x axis
so thats the argument...l
so trying to prove $arg(z)+arg(\bar{z})=2k{\pi}, where k\in(-\pi,\pi]$
;(
let $z=a+bi$
;(
thus $\bar{z}=a-bi$
;(
now $arg(z)=arctan(b/a)$ and $arg(\bar{z})=arctan(-b/a)$
;(
same thing
,w arctan(b/a)+arctan(-b/a)
;(
You also didnt quote the result properly
okay this is interesting...
from the video, it claims it equals $2\pi k$ for $k\in\mathbb{Z}$
Omegabet_
....-2π,0,2π,4π....
yes, that's $2\pi\mathbb{Z}$
Omegabet_
but yeah, it's 0 cause t+(-t)=0
the angle 0 is just coterminal to everything in 2piZ
so looks like they're taking arg not principal, and just taking all the elements from the equivalence class
you were echoing what was already said
okay
$z=re^{i\theta}\to\text{arg}(z)=\theta+2\pi\mathbb{Z}$
Omegabet_
so $\arg(z)+\arg(\overline{z})=(\theta+2\pi\mathbb{Z})+(-\theta+2\pi\mathbb{Z})=2\pi\mathbb{Z}$ as sets
Omegabet_
thats the conclusion ig
I see
its just using coterminal angles is all
I know you love posting pictures without words, but learn to be coherent
i am asking is it true?
...
duh?
prove it yourself first...
here in the picture
we are not answer machines
we are here to help
if you want to check validity just prove it
yourself
clearly not always
$\frac{1}{z}=\frac{1}{a+bi}$
;(
try to prove it by conjugating the fraction
It will be (a-bi)/(a^2+b^2)
I am asking if both identities you giys are saying is true then why I cannot say they are equal to each other
@cinder peak
please.... learn to read
I see
where does this say arg(z*) = -arg(z)+arg(1/z)?
there's no domain to discuss, it's not a function
$\arg(\overline{z})=-\arg(z)$ is trivial to prove
Omegabet_
$z=re^{i\theta}\to\overline{z}=re^{-i\theta}=re^{i(-\theta)}$
Omegabet_
Omegabet_
QED
lol
$\arg(\overline{z})$ is both $-\arg(z)$ and $\arg(\frac{1}{z})$
Omegabet_
you've written nonsense
Huh
$\overline{z}-z$ isnt $a-bi$
Omegabet_
I wrote z'=-z
it's $(a-bi)-(a+bi)=-2bi$
Omegabet_
no you didnt
I meant z' only
then write that
Like please for the love of god stop doing math until you have learned to communicate. You consistently struggle to communicate with us
not true?
Lol
How is it equal? 1/r is not same as r
Or we care only for angle not for amplitude r
Thanks i got it now. I was right yes we care only angle
Right
So in the OP they wrote the angle lies k belongs to (-π,π] and you have wrote 2kπ so it Is clearly 0
.....-4π,-2π,0,2π,4π...
they didnt write k in (-pi,pi]
from the video you yourself watched and posted in the thread
(nowhere do they even have a k so...)
................
do I need to spell out how 2pi*k isnt k, or can you see that for yourself?
but also $2\pi\mathbb{Z}\cap(-\pi,\pi]={0}$, so refer back to the very start where everyone said it was $0$.
Omegabet_
(so they're taking amp to be principal arg, but same difference)
Yes
yes
.....-4π,-2π,0,2π,4π...
oh you're back to babbling, good to know
do you still have questions or just going to be a fool?
No question
+close