#Measure theory basic question

166 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

viscid citrus
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This is the second time I've posted this but I still haven't got a satisfactory answer. I have to prove the fact that:
if f:X->[0,infinity] measurable function. Then there exists a sequence of simple functions (function that have a finite elements in the range) (s_n) n>=1 , where s_n:X->[0,infinity) such that:
I) s_n(x) <= s_(n+1)(x), for any x in X (that is to say, that the sequence (s_n) is an increasing sequence of functions)
II) limit of (s_n) is f, for any x in X (pointwise convergence)

Another question I have is if the converse is also true? If a function can be approximated pointwise with simple function, implies that it is a measurable function?

mortal lionBOT
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fossil vault
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What is a measurable function?

viscid citrus
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A function that returns measurable sets into measurable sets

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That is

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In this case

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f has the propriety that any measurable set in [0, infinity], its preimage through f is also a measurable set in X

fossil vault
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Yeah

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Although that was not entirely what I wanted to know

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Let me rephrase that: what are the subsets of R+ that you can measure?

viscid citrus
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The Lebesgue measurable sets

fossil vault
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I assume that X is given a suitable sigma-algebra

fossil vault
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Does that correspond to the sigma algebra generated by intervals?

viscid citrus
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No

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The sigma algebra generated by intervals is a subset of the Lebesgue measurable sets

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The Lebegue measurable sets are the sets A with the propriety that m(I) = m(A intersect I) + m(A \ I) for any I subset of R ( i think? This is called the Caratheodory criterion)

fossil vault
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Well, that's good enough then

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if you can measure intervals then I think you can already work with it

viscid citrus
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Ok

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Let's work on the borel sigma algebra then

fossil vault
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You can think of the thing as follows

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you take the graph of a measurable function

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like a signal

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but due to limited precision (not in time, but in values), you are forced to quantize the signal

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so for example, instead of outputting pi, you will output 3

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so everywhere your signal is between, say, [3, 3.25]

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you will underestimate it by using the simple function 3

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So basically, if you have a resolution $r(n)$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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Then in $X_i = f^{-1}([i r(n), (i+1)r(n)])$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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First of all, $X_i$ is measurable in $X$ by assumption

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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And second, you can use the indicator $i r(n) \chi_{X_i}(x)$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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Ok the font absolutely sucks

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but you get the idea? @viscid citrus

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here, I color coded the indicator functions

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each color represents a $\chi_{X_i}$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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and the gap between two horizontal bars is the resolution

viscid citrus
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What do you mean by resolution function?

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r(n)

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and why are you multiplying them with i and i+1?

fossil vault
viscid citrus
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So you mean to subdivide the range of f?

fossil vault
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yeah

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exactly

viscid citrus
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How do you know that the range of f is an interval?

fossil vault
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ah wait

viscid citrus
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where

fossil vault
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infinity is included

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my bad

viscid citrus
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Nah

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That case can be worked similary

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but what if the range of f isn't so nice to work with?

fossil vault
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well even if it is not finite

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it doesn't mean that your subdivision needs to be finite

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just that for convenience we want it to be regular

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it will help us a lot

fossil vault
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I thought that since $f[X] \subset \mathbb{R}+$ it would suffice to work on $\mathbb{R}+$ like any other interval

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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for infinity, I guess you can also take it separately

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Since I assume that ${\infty}$ is also measurable

wraith fableBOT
viscid citrus
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Yes it is measurable so its fine

fossil vault
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So without loss of generality we can assume that f(x) is always finite

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(f doesn't even have to be bounded)

fossil vault
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an easy method is to recycle the subdivision from before

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so we can divide by 2 the resolution

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i.e. take $r(n) = \frac{1}{2^{n}}$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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it is possible to show that by dividing by 2 the resolution, the simple function approximation only gets better

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and cannot decrease at a fixed x

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In particular, for a fixed $x$, if $f(x) \in \left[\frac{i}{2^n}, \frac{i+1}{2^n}\right)$

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Then $f(x) \in \left[\frac{2i}{2^{n+1}}, \frac{2(i+1)}{2^{n+1}}\right)$

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So $f(x)$ is either in $\left[\frac{2i}{2^{n+1}}, \frac{2i+1}{2^{n+1}}\right)$ or $\left[\frac{2i+1}{2^{n+1}}, \frac{2i+2}{2^{n+1}}\right)$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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Case 1: then $s_{n+1}(x) = s_n(x)$ (unchanged underestimation)

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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Case 2: $s_{n+1}(x) = s_n(x) + \frac{1}{2^{n+1}}$ (slightly better underestimation)

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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@viscid citrus

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I think this should also allow you to conclude as for why s_n converges pointwise to f

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But do tell me if it is not clear

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I will do my best to explain again if some parts are not clear

viscid citrus
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Let me read it

fossil vault
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Ah, I just noticed that my "simple function" doesn't have a finite range

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but we can adjust that part

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Denote:
$I_k^{(n)} = \left[ \frac{k}{2^{n}}, \frac{k+1}{2^{n}} \right)$.
Let $X_k^{n} = f^{-1}[I_k^{(n)}]$.
Denote $s_n = \sum_{k=0}^{2^{2n}} \frac{k}{2^{n}} \chi_{X_k^{(n)}}$

wraith fableBOT
viscid citrus
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Btw, aren't we using the density of the ratioanls in your proof?

fossil vault
viscid citrus
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Ye

fossil vault
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Implicitly yes, but we don't need to know that

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You can prove that $s_n(x) \leq f(x)$ at any $x$

wraith fableBOT
fossil vault
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and that the difference is bounded by something that converges to 0

viscid citrus
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What if we were working with functions that had output in a space without a density propriety, does your proof still work there?

fossil vault
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since here it is exactly that fragile boundary between countability and continuum

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(I'm simplifying measurability to continuum for illustration purposes)

viscid citrus
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ye

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By the way, about the second question I had

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If a function has this propriety of being able to be approximated with simple function implies that it is a measurable function?

fossil vault
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That's a tough one

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I do not think that the implication holds

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But I am struggling to come up with a counter example

fossil vault
viscid citrus
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How so?

fossil vault
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For instance, if you take a measurable function for the lebesgue measurable sets

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you can make a simple function approximation of it

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but it may not be measurable in another algebra

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I'm not too sure if we still need to ensure that the simple functions are also measurable in the new algebra

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No, sorry, I acknowledge the mistake in my ways

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This should clear it

viscid citrus
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@fossil vault

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Sorry for taking your time again

fossil vault
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Yo

viscid citrus
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I think I understand your proof

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So we partition the range into intervals and pick the infimum of each partition and with this we create a simple function?

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or was this someone else's idea

viscid citrus
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with intervals of of the form [i/2^n, (i+1)/2^n)

fossil vault
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I only picked said resolution because it recycles the previous

viscid citrus
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Yeah I think everyone had the same idea when they are presented this question

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but I am confused what do we do in the case of unbounded functions

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Because the range of an unbounded function is ... well unbounded

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so when we partition that range again with the idea

fossil vault
viscid citrus
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we have an infinite sized partition of that range

fossil vault
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For a given n, you only partition a finite range, which scales with n

viscid citrus
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Well that is the problem

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Wait

fossil vault
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So for instance

viscid citrus
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aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa

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that's smart

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I get it now

fossil vault
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Cool

viscid citrus
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So you scale the amount of paritions too

fossil vault
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I didn't even have to explain

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Yep

viscid citrus
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that's a smart way to get around it

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That's all I wanted to know

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Thank you for the third time helping me with this question

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👍

fossil vault
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No worries man

viscid citrus
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Also

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You finally start to sound more human

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compared ot the other times when we first talked and you used to speak like an AI

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xd

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Weird compliment

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anyway

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+close