#Proof of equivalence (Big O-Notation)
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They are not equivalent
Take f(1) = 2, f(n) = 1/n for n > 1
And g(n) = 1/n for any n > 0
In the first definition, f is not O(g)
But in the second one, it is
So if anything you are most likely doomed to failure trying to prove that the two sets are equal