#proof of inequality calculus
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My problem lies on wether I'm allowed to use the derivative on the given inequality. I'm kinda confused about when I can actually use the derivative in an equality. For example if I have the given inequality:
f(x)>0 then u can't say f'(x)>0
But in other cases where i have something like
f(x)+g(x)>h(x) u can use the derivative, can't you? What's the difference and how do i distinguish when i can/can't use it?
Can you rewrite separately what the statement to prove is?
For every x>0, and with f' strictly decreasing, prove that:
2f(x)-f(2x)>4
The exercise gives us f(x)=-x⁴+2ax³-24x²+2x+4 so this can be solved using the mean value theorem
Cause f(0)=4 and then you use that in the inequality etc.
But my problem is this.
Not how to actually prove the statement
Here you definitely cannot reaso with <=>
you can however reason with simple implications
So if I reformulate your reasoning, the following holds
For any x, x < 2x
Therefore, since f' is decreasing, f'(x) > f'(2x)
Hence, 2 f'(x) - 2f'(2x) > 0 for ANY x
Yeah but why am i even allowed to use the derivative here?
We just considered f' like a function like any other
that is decreasing
Ok so then when we get to the last part what do i do?
You use integration
Oh im allowed to?
since that is true for any x, it also holds for the following quantity
Hold on
Ah wait
Hmm
We need a point of evaluation first
like, a constant
There will be a constant introduced no?
Yeah
But also
Why can i use integration in this inequality
And not in an inequality like f'(x)>0<=>f(x)>0+c? Or can i?
No
Basically, the idea is that if you take any nonnegative function g
the integral of g on any interval is also nonnegative
Take g(x) = 2 f'(x) - 2f'(2x)
Yeah
So you can integrate it in an interval [a, t]
where a is fixed (we wil choose it) and t is a variable
and this function of t will be nonnegative
I don't see why tbh
but we need to pick our a carefully
well, if you integrate a nonnegative function, you compute a positive area
Oh we pick an a such that g will be nonnegative?
Ohh
Yeah
Is that true for indefinite integration too?
No
That is why we will take an interval [a, t]
So $\int_{a}^{t} (2f'(x) - 2f'(2x))dx > 0$
Returning to my original question, ig if i have an inequality f(x)>g(x) I cannot use the derivative?
Rion
So now we just try to figure out what this is
It's nothing but
$2f(t) - 2f(a) - f(2t) + f(2a) > 0$
Rion
Yeah we have f(0)=4
Or in other words, $2f(t) - f(2t) > 2f(a) - f(2a)$
Rion
So we just gotta pick $a$ that suits our needs
Rion
(with a < t of course)
since here we care about positive t, I guess a = 0 can work
So, to conclude, by using a = 0 and knowing that f(0) = 4
it holds:
$2f(t) - f(2t) > f(0) = 4$
Rion
And this holds for ANY t > 0
Oh wait
I said x>0 hiw did we use f(0)?
As said before, we integrated on an interval [a, t]
and decide what a and t are later
as long as a < t is fulfilled, it's fair game
So we apply that to a = 0, so the thing holds for any t > 0
At the bottom what is next to the infinity sign i cannot tell lol
It's just (0,+∞) lol
Hmm
Im such an idiot
Lmao
thought that was a four lmfao
Lol
Do you understand the reasoning?
Yeah but I don't understand why mine is necessarily wrong
Am i not allowed to use the derivative on inequalities?
Because here you can definitely not go back the other way around
just because the integral of a function on an interval is positive
it does not mean that said function is positive on the interval
So in another case i could use it?
Basically, g > 0 implies that the integral of g on an interval [a, b] is positive
which we used here
Yeah
but the other way around is not true
so we can't get equivalence
you can only proceed using =>
I can?
or rather, <=, if we follow the order of your thing
the inequality "2f(x) - f(2x) > 4" holds true for x > 0 so it is an inequality and f is strictly decreasing
For mathematical reasoning, I generally do not recommend using => or <= symbools
It is better to write it as plain text, as I did before
from here
Nor <=>?
yeah, don't use that either
I literally only use this all the time without even thinking if it matters
it will cost you very dearly on the long run
I mean in school we've never talked about this tbh
I know, this is my advice as a senior
I'll try to get unused to it but i don't think i can lol
back in high school my friends used <=> all the time
I'm actually writing exams to get to uni in a month so I'm wondering if using this could olay a part?
Could i lose points if i use it wrongly?
yes, it will cost you the entire question in a question like this
What
I will give you zero marks if you write that in an exam
for a question
It's not to be mean, I will explain to you why
Yeah ok i would too because it's incorrect tbf
This problem is a lot more complex than it looks
And here, you can see that reasoning multi-step is required to solve this problem
and not in any order
So your ability to do so will determine how many points you will get
and clearly, using equivalence does NOT work in our case, it doesn't mean anything
therefore I cannot give you any point
This is why, while I still can, I emphasize the importance of this
For uni entrance exams?
Hmm let me think
3 hours with 4 exercises getting progressively harder (first is theory knowledge, like proofs definitions, true or false etc.)
The other three are exercises that involve stuff like this ig
I remember that back in high school, our math speciality professor really underlined those tips for logical reasoning
as in, don't use arrows everywhere
Well same here
But other than that, I would think of being as rigorous as you can
Make sure you verify the hypotheses to apply a theorem/result
make sure you name the theorem, if not trivial
Pythagorean
Yeah
2f(x) - f(2x) > 4
f'(x) > f'(2x)
2f(x) - f(2x) > 0
f(x) > 4
f(x) > C > 4
2f(x) - f(2x) > 4
its an inequality
This is a non trivial result
Non trivial?
Yes, the Pythagorean identity is not trivial, so you cannot pull it out of your ass
Or, if you do, name the theorem
I didn't think of this method i thought of mean value theorem tbh
Oh
Like what more do i have to do?
As I said, if you use a theorem to derive a result, be sure to name it
in high school, for instance, the squeeze theorem can occur a lot
so be sure to name it if you use it, instead of just dropping the result
Not sure ik that one
Yeah i see what you're saying
also known as the sandwich theorem
Lemme check if i know it
No idea what that means
I see the top line and the bottom line are the same
so I don't see what exactly is being proven here
Ohh yeah ik it
Didn't he do the same thing?
I don't know, the reasoning makes no sense
there's no order or logic whatsoever between the steps
Oh wait yeah isn't the integration wrong?
the integration is correct but there is no justification as for why the integral is > 0
Wait wtf
also it's missing the constants of integration
so yeah that's an example of what not to do

Yeah, that's true
I guess you're also short on time
To be fair I cannot help much on that aspect
I am a very slow writer so I usually never finish my tests and exams
but that's my problem because my writing does not keep up with my thinking
Idk what my problem is
I guess figuring that out could help you improve
I waste too much time in questions i can't necessarily solve i think
if you need to be more familiar with your lessons, it's something that can still be helped with practice
but if you have a problem like me where your handwriting is too slow, idk how to help that
Hmm yeah that can be a problem
Thx for helping
I would recommend, in general, do what you can
think about what you can't do after
There's no after😭
When i don't do something
then it's fine, at least you'll be able to tell yourself, "I did what I could"
I never manage to see it again cause my time is up
Yeah but like
When i can't do something
Like my entire psychology falls apart
I can't bear knowing there was something i couldn't solve
Idk if it's an egoism thing
Or that I'm scared I'll do shit in the exam
Just do your best and see what happens
It's not useful to think about what you can't do
If I were to compare mysef to Einstein at every of my setbacks I would not get anywhere
Lol tru tbf
you have the inequality 2f(x) - f(2x) > 0 which means the difference between 2f(x) and f(2x) is more than zero, f(x) > 4 f(x), this means f(x) must be more than 4 for the first inequality to be correct, f(x) > C > 4, this adds a constant C where f(x) is more than C and C is more than 4, 2f(x) - f(2x) > 4, which proves that the difference between 2f(x) and f(2x) is obv more than 4, this proves its an inequality
- How did you get the initial inequality