#Help with showing one real solution
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No, of course this is not okay
(To be clear, I understand that the problem is challenging, but please do NOT do that in a test)
okay got it
which part of it is wrong? is it the way I presented it or are you not able to factor out x
you are not able to factor x out
cos(x) is not something you just toy around with like that
it's a legitimate function of x like any other
okay yeah I had doubts because cos itself doesnt have a value right
so it wouldnt make sense to factor it
Indeed
But this problem is a bit technical
So I will give you some hints for you to solve it
And then I will go dry some clothes, come back and then I will answer your questions
So an initial idea would be to plot those two functions
and see that their graph only has one intersection
Let me get desmos real quick
I saw in desmos that
its just a vertical line
but if im doing it on paper to show it
by two functions, I mean y = 2x and y = -cos(x)
since 2x + cos(x) = 0 <=> 2x = -cos(x)
So that's pretty good
we at least know the solution is not located in the positives
and it's easy to show too
So for now, let's assume that we successfully proved that there is no solution in R+ (you will have to prove it, but it's not the hardest part)
So I want you to answer the two following questions
- why is there AT LEAST one solution in R-?
- why is there ONLY one solution in R-?
You must use some theorems you've seen in analysis to answer
like rolles or mean value?
also don't forget that g(x) = 2x + cos(x) is differentiable
yeah
this is not a problem that can be solved with brute force like you suggested
but using some theorems to get some hacks is good
did you determine that the solution isn't located in the positives because of where the two separate functions intercept? im a bit lost on this part
Case 1: x > 1/2, then clearly -cos(x) < 1 < 2x, so no solution found there
Case 2: 0 <= x <= 1/2, but since 1/2 is less than pi/2 then -cos(x) is negative, hence cos(x) < 2x
this is pretty straightforward
In fact, with the same reasoning, it is clear that a solution is also not in (-infinity, -1/2]
so by determining where its not
I can determine an interval
to use for one of the theorems?
Well you could, yes
but it's pretty important that there is no positive solution, that's the main gist
so you can just focus on R-
or I guess (-1/2, 0)
so could i use -1/2 and 0 as a and b and use the mean value theorem
Does g have a zero in (-1/2, 0)? If yes, what theorem and what conditions ensure it
hold on let me check my notes
sure no problem
would it be the intermediate value theorem
with what value of a and b?
-1/2 and 0 right because we determined that range
and the solution has to lie in between those values
I mean you've gotta check right
g(0) = 2 * 0 + cos(0) = 1
but g(-1/2) = 2 * (-1/2) + cos(-1/2) = -1 + cos(1/2) by parity of cos
actually no you're right, that's pretty cool given that cos(1/2) < 1 hence cos(1/2) - 1 < 0
Ok, that's good
And for the record, a solution has to lie between -1/2 and 0
We have yet to show that there is only one
but you did the first step already, so good job
Do you have any clue as for how to prove that there is only one solution?
it would change directions
and decrease
to cross the axis again
could i use the derivative like when calculating for critical points
yeah you could
i mean, there's a theorem that even tells you about those hypothetical "critical points"
given two roots
rolles theorem right
yeah, you're correct
wdym "for them"?
be more precise
(I'm asking a lot of detail I know, but a lot of reasoning is expected from you in this exercise, so this is important)
both the selected x values in the interval
included or excluded ?
included i think