#Divergence theorem
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Note that the normal vector to a surface f(x, y, z) = C is ∇f. So, in our case:
f = x^2 + y^2 = 4
∇f = 2{x, y}
So, now you can find the unit normal vector.
I think OP is right actually
I mean we all agree on the direction of this normal vector, but the amplitude bothers me
Oh, I see what you mean.
because it's not... well, normalized
and second of all, even if you leave it like that, the computation of the integral is definitely wrong
F . n = 8 cos(u) * 3 cos(u) - 12 sin(u) * 3 sin(u)
= 24 cos²(u) - 36sin²(u)
integrating wrt v will yield a factor 2
but as a chemist/physicist you're aware that the mean value of a cos² or sin² on one period is 1/2, so the integral wrt u is pi
so integrating that will yield 24 pi - 36 pi = -12 pi
multiplied by 2, you still don't get the result
Well, that yields 3 times the result they showed, it seems.
Which corresponds to the factor of 3 they forgot to remove.
no, even accounting for the factor 3 you're still not good
i used the factor 3 and got -12 pi
so without it's -4 pi
not -54pi, or -18pi
Nah, getting confused on the lateral surface. Haven't done this in a while.
it's just the outer surface of a cylinder
the round one
so the normal vector is obviously radial
if (x, y, z) is on it, one radial vector is just (x, y, 0)
but you've gotta normalize it as well
(it coincides with the gradient thing you've said earlier)
I think the answer of Σ2 part is wrong
That's obvious. My trouble, however, is with dS.
it's du dv
du = small variation in angle
dv = dz
well I can check
It isn't a flat surface.
I might be wrong after all
You're right, I am in fact incorrect
because the radius, although constant, is 2
but it does not suffice to show that the factor of proportionality is not 1
In the first place, you can't really compute the elementary surface using cartesian coordinates
otherwise you'd struggle with something along the lines:
x = 2 cos(u)
dx = -2sin(u) du
y = 2 sin(u)
dy = 2 cos(u) du
(du)² = (1/2²)(dx)² + (1/2²)(dy)²
Hmm...
I think that dS = 2 du dv actually
Or in general, an elementary arc length will be given by root(dx² + dy²)
But this shows that du is 1/2 times the elementary length
so 2 du is the elementary arc length
Well, you can parametrize a surface. However, I don't remember the full approach.
For the same reason why you substitute dxdy = r dr dtheta usually
or I guess, dr * (r dtheta)
variation in radius * variation in arc length
Here we're pretty much doing the same thing, but with a constant radius
and instead of dr, we take dz
that's the physicist approach
now to express that mathematically, I have to admit that I'm struggling
yea but i dont think that changes anything 0<= r <= 2, 0<= theta <= 2pi and still results in -8pi
i think this is what it should look like
$$ \int_0^{2 \pi } \int_0^2 \int_0^2 -r dr dz d\theta$$
L
No it's clearly not
We are not computing a volume but a surface
Your infinitesimal element is homogeneous to a volume
yes but if we use divergece theorem surface integral changes to volume of div F
But that is hardly the point of the question
The question is about the correctness of the lateral surface area in the key
all im saying is that changing to polar coordinates still leads to -8pi and not -54pi i think that was part of the quesiton 😁
Which confirms my point that the computation in the key is probably wrong
As said by the original poster
yes
Sorry if I sound a bit cranky because I am beyond pissed right now (not your fault), but I guess we both align by this opinion
That the key is incorrect I mean
no no its okay