#Gradient and Jacobian

9 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

simple fox
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Why is the hessian the jacobian of the gradient, rather than the jacobian of the jacobian? I know that the jacobian is the generalization of the derivative for functions R^n to R^m, but for multivariate functions R^n to R^1 for some reason we use the gradient instead (the transpose of the jacobian). I am confused generally about why this transpose is necessary.

surreal bloomBOT
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true grotto
simple fox
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Yes, that's the definition. So I guess it's just a dimensionality thing?

true grotto
# simple fox Yes, that's the definition. So I guess it's just a dimensionality thing?

https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2053229/the-connection-between-the-jacobian-hessian-and-the-gradient?noredirect=1&lq=1

This seems to say the transpose just arises due to the indexing, but ill let you read it yourself

dense nestBOT
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@simple fox has given 1 rep to @true grotto

true grotto
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you can google stuff too lol