#linear algebra
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a basis is a linearly independent spanning set for the subspace, the kernel is the subspace of vectors that map to 0, and generators form bases (ie a basis is a set of generators for the subspace)
to calculate a base you simply prove that the vectors that generate that base are linear independent so that : c1v1+c2v2 = 0 ===> c1,c2== 0
here's an example of how you calculate the ker , just find the condition for the transformation to be 0 , in this case (a,2a,a5)
not sure why you pinged me
Whats a spanning set ?
Given a subspace U, a spanning set of U is a set that spans to U
The kernel isn't just the number of the pivots of a matrix in scale?
ie any set of vectors $S$ such that $\text{span}(S)=U$
Omegabet_
it is not
given a linear map $T\colon U\to V$, $\ker(T):={u\in U|T(u)=0_V}$
Omegabet_
So kernel is the given 0 vector
The solution?
Like given a system a kernel is the amount solution to set the system equal to 0
Or to have one only univoke solution
the nullspace/kernel is the solutions to the homogenous system Ax=0
As if the kernel is inferior to the number of coordinates/incognites we would have infinite^n-r solution
Ok then
That's understandable then
no clue what that's suppose to mean
"infinite^(n-r)" is complete and utter nonsense
the kernel is everything that maps to 0
nothing more, nothing less.
Ye I misunderstood the meaning of it
yes you did
We have infinite solution in the power of n-r in which n is the number of Xs to be found and r is the range
Can you explain me the other ones
that's abundantly clear
it doesnt
you said r is the range, which is a set
n-r therefore doesnt make sense
rank
Type what you mean then.
but anyway, "infinite^(n-r)" is still complete and utter nonsense
n also isnt defined
"infinite solution in the power of n-r" is also nonsense
We have infinite^(n-r) solution to a system in dépendance of how many X are free coordinates
Like under determined systems
stop typing
infinite^(n-r)
it is
meaningless
assuming an infinite field like R or C is the scalar field, any solution set of Ax=b is either empty, or infinite
sure
That just says the dimension of the affine subspace is n-rk(A)
and characterizes a condition on Ax=b having solutions
Ye... I was mentioning that one when I quoted infinite^(n-r)
ok
and infinite^(n-r) is still nothing relevant to anything
since it quite literally
isnt a thing
Ye it's not a number but a clarification of how many free coordinates we have
I'm confused...
stop using it/trying to justify it actually means something
P
Rouche-Capelli just says Ax=b has a solution iff rk(A)=rk([A|b]), and if there are solutions, the affine subspace of solutions has dimension n-rk(A)
where n is the number of variables
That's literally from my professors notes
note how I never wrote inf^(n-r)
yeah, your prof is braindead if a professional mathematician is writing inf^(n-r)
since Rouche-Capelli doesnt even assume an infinite scalar field
so taking a finite scalar field gives a finite number of solutions trivially
Assuming $\tilde{x}$ is a solution to $Ax=b$, then ${x|Ax=b}=\tilde{x}+\ker(A):={\tilde{x}+z|z\in\ker(A)}$
Omegabet_
That's why he used the infinite, even if he also claimed it not to be completely appropriate
hence why the affine subspace is dimension n-rk(A), it's size nullity(A)