#Real analysis
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like u remove a_n from the sequence
if a_n was the infimum, then the infimum increases (dk how to show this)
if it wasn't the infimum, then the infimum stays the same (also dk how to show this)
i'll call the (``beheaded''-)subsequence $$a_n, a_{n+1}, \dots$$ an \emph{$n$-tail} of $\qty(a_n)_n$.
vin100
that's just "liminf limsup". it's not hard to find pic like
In mathematics, the limit inferior and limit superior of a sequence can be thought of as limiting (that is, eventual and extreme) bounds on the sequence. They can be thought of in a similar fashion for a function (see limit of a function). For a set, they are the infimum and supremum of the set's limit points, respectively. In general, when ther...
the result is quite visually intuitive
yeah i can see why b_n and c_n converge to the limit of a_n
but i dont know how to put it into words
$\qty(a_n)_n$ has ``diminishing tails''.
vin100
using the above graph, the blue dots' fluctuations are "eventually small"
$\qty(b_n)_n$ (n-tails' lower bound) and $\qty(c_n)$ (i.e. n-tails' upper bound) will converge, since the tail is getting "smaller and smaller"
vin100
ℹ️ i'm putting some words in "double quotes" just to give you verbal intuition, since you've asked to put things in words. they are intentionally vauge, and they aren't rigorously defined
by words i meant maths words lol
sorry
i know the intuition, im struggling to formalise it
b_n is monotonically increasing and i feel like its bounded above by the limit of a_n
c_n decreasing and bounded below by the same thing
but to say its bounded is not enough to know its limit ?
just to know it converges
and also, idk how to show b and c are bounded by this limit of a
the question has given what you needed
,,b_m \le c_n
vin100
i'm being a bit lazy not to write the quantifiers and domain associated with m and n
from this you can use MCT
use capture this intuition in rigorous math
a simple math word would be "Cauchy"
but i think you might not need Cauchy here
you're alr given a convergent sequence
so just use the epsilon-N definition then take supremum
after unwrapping the absolute sign
monotone convergence theorem
i still dont get what you mean sorry
you don't know how to use this in your question?
yeah
as in
b is bounded above sure by some c_n
and its monotonically increasing so by mct, it converges
then wdym by take the supremum
how can we do this
so you have $b_n \uparrow b$ and $c_n \downarrow c$
vin100
when you get stuck shifting from one sense to another sense might give you some inspiration
c and b eventually become equal to the limit, i understand
that's the complete idea (with poor cAsE and punctutations)
you're asked to prove a proposition the starts with "for all", and the standard first step is "let/fix ...."
i didn't say "take sup of b"
,tex nor ``take sup of $\qty(b_n)_n$"
vin100
what does take sup mean
take supremum
write out the epsilon-N definition first
then you might know what to take
for all eps, theres an N st for all n > N, |b_n - b| < eps
you're given $\qty(a_n)_n$ convergent, so you can use this
vin100
you haven't even written it down
its just the same as this but replacing the b with a
is it not
yeah then i've said "to unwrap the absolute sign"
using words, the n-tails is eventually contained inside an epsilon-neighbourhood of a
i.e. $(a-\epsilon, a + \epsilon) \subseteq \bR$
vin100
$b_n$ is just the greatest lower bound of this tail, and similarly for $c_n$
vin100
the closed interval $[b_n, c_n]$ is like a tight clothing wrapping the $n$-tail ${a_k \mid k \ge n}$
vin100
i.e. ${a_k \mid k \ge n} \subseteq [b_n, c_n]$
vin100
so we should expect this tight clothing inside the epsilon neighbourhood
the choice of epsilon is arbitrary, so ...
@half prawn if the sequence does converge to some limit L, it's eventually arbitrarily close to it. Now suppose we have, for all m>n
L-e < x_m < L-e
Also if we look at the set, {x_i : i >= m} and it's infimum can we say that,
L-e <= inf{x_i : i >= m} <= x_m?
hmm yeah
if we can can say that why?
why can we say that?
after you figure it out do the same for the supremum
alright thank you
if you'd like the proof fully written out lemme know btw
i suggest you to try it yourself of course
yeah I'll attempt it rn
aight I'll be back in a few mins
L-e is a lower bound for the x_i and the infimum is the greatest lower bound so its by definition greater than L-e?
yes
then can we apply thr sandwich lemma?
bro if you call it sandwich I'll beat you up
oh wait

😂
sandwiches need not be squeezed
we already have L-e < inf(x_i) < L+e
squeeze OUGHT TO BE SWUEEZEF6