#[Taylor Series] How can f(x) possibly be equal to T_n(x) + R_n(x)?
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context?
@fluid ingot can you send what formula of the taylor series are you seeing
Oh, it's in another language
the math will be the same innit? 💀
yes
domini
Look closely as the n+1-st derivative of the R term
I don't understand
Oh
T_n has a and R_n has theta
Is that the difference you're referring to
Oh I see
It has a little f in there
But what does that mean
By explicit definition, $R_n(x):=f(x)-T_n(x)$
You then prove the equivalent forms of $R_n$
Omegabet_
The proof in essence proves the integral form of $R_n$ first, then you can determine $\xi$ so that the remaining integral is equivalent to $f^{(n+1)}(\xi)$
Omegabet_
Oh, it's a freaking theorem
no
And was extremely confused
it is extremely not intuitive that R_n should be writable just as those
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