Any countable set $A$ can have it’s elements be enumerated as $$A={x_1, x_2, x_3, \cdots}$$.
Since, we can write $A$ as
$$ A= \bigcup_i {x_i}$$
Therefore,
$$
\mu (A)= \sum_i \mu({x_i}$$
But Lebesgue measure of a singleton set is zero (because it has zero length in traditional sense), therefore, for every $i$, we have $\mu{x_i}=0$. Hence, $$\mu(A)=0$$
Why everyone else (books and Internet users) are doing it by epsilon definition? Does my proof contains some “big holes”?
reaction for more information.