#Is this true?
63 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
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don mastro
It's not even really meaningful.
what do you mean
sorry i forgot a log
on the first product
...I mean, it's just a bunch of random letters. Even if I ignore that k is literally just some random value since you forgot to specify that it's the index value of the product, there's absolutely no relation between f and p, no indication of what the sequence of p even is, and you have p_n^s where s is similarly completely undefined.
A general rule about what?
@keen mantle
why so aggressive you are on discord lol
calm down
You picked literally the only thing that makes some degree of sense.
already pointed out my typo no need to continue further sir!
yes cause the rest is just symbols looking like an attempt at trying to prove Riemann hyp
hm?
so of course im going to disregard it lol
I mean because that part is the antecedent of the conditional.
sooo just because i'm studying at the moment number theory and was playing around with known identites im trying to prove riemann's hypothesis?
It's the "if" of the "if/then".
gotcha
cool, but didnt ask
you should focus on discussing with the person who made the channel, not me 
I'm saying that that part doesn't need to be true. It just needs to logically imply the consequent in the case that it is true.
nah not really, this guy seems a douchebag
prefer not to
well anyway yes, the log of a product is the sum of the logs, the question of does that hold for infinite series is a different question
Hey, guys, is it true that $abc = d + e^f \to g(h(i)) = k$?
Techie Literate
Not a man.
Ok
being's off their rocker
but anyway, since you're clearly getting upset by this channel you should probably just leave
what studying arithmetic functions does to a mf
snap out of it
?
do you know any source online to understand it better?
I'm sure stack exchange has something on it
thanks man
@velvet falcon has given 1 rep to @keen mantle
product convergence is actually defined in terms of the sum of the ln's of the terms
so there is definitely a correspondence even down to definitionally
could you explain better please?
when we say $\prod^\infty f(n)$ converges, what that means is $\sum^\infty \ln(f(n))$ converges
cute rizzly bear (nom nom nom)
oh, thanks
op: "does ln(ab) = ln(a) + ln(b)"
techie: "we don't even know what a and b are here. this is just a bunch of letters. send the problem statement"
i have another question, as saw before ln(prod f(k)) = sum ln(f(k)) but is there a way to “convert” starting from prod f(k) and not ln(prod f(k))?
cute rizzly bear (nom nom nom)
Not what I was saying at all.
+close