#question about indexing over sets
39 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
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What should that codomain be?
daniel_the_maniel
Obviously we need $S$ to be such that $f(I)\subseteq S$, but then we're referencing $f$ before it's been properly defined
daniel_the_maniel
Oh wait maybe it's ok since $f:I\to S$ is implicitly saying that $f(I)\subseteq S$
daniel_the_maniel
$S={A_i|i\in I}$ no?
Omegabet_
If you're given a collection of sets indexed by I, then a possible codomain is just.. the collection of sets
then $f:i\mapsto A_i$
Omegabet_
But bestie
You're referencing f before it's even been properly defined
Since the codomain is a part of the definition
Of a function
yeah, you have I and the collection of sets already
so just.. define the function
all that's left in defining a function, given a domain and codomain, is the rule between them
How do we get the collection of subsets
you were given it
Omg
{A_i} is a collection of sets
Wtf does A_i even mean tho
You have to imagine you have some function that takes in elements of I
And you use A_i as just another way of writing f(i)
define S as some sufficient power set then 
You said you were given a collection of sets and wanted a function, so just send the index to the set indexed by said index
The set of sets is defined along with the indexing on it
Doubt
rule of thumb
$\bigcup_{i\in I} A_i = \bigcup_{s_j \in I} \left( \bigcup_{i \in s_j} A_i \right)$
instantaneousCoffey