#I need help on finding the inverse of this
81 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
- Wait patiently for a helper to come along.
- Once someone helps you, say thank you and close the thread with:
+close
- Feel free to nominate the person for helper of the week in #helper-nominations
- Do not ping the mods, unless someone is breaking the rules.
- If you're happy with the help you got here, and the server overall, you can contribute financially as well:
Oh hi again
I think you need to simplify all the terms
Yeah
Hello
But is too much
First of all sum of 1/k^2=pi^2/6
And the second to last term is 0 because if you differentiate with respect to x, X becomes a constant
When is a constant is 0
Yep
Forgot about thst
Let me think
This is not my thing...
Im trash
ðŸ˜
My brain isn't braining
No your not, here it may seem hard because of the sheer amount of terms but most of the terms simplify
It happens sometime I can’t do basic multiplication lol
What part don’t you understand ?
Did you just simplified that monster to 1/k^2=pi^2/6 + 0
Well the sum of 1/k^2 is equal to pi^2/6
This monster
I tought it was harder
Let's recap
We got first term 1/k^2=pi^2/6
Yes
The last term yes
...
Well Σ1/k^2 -pi^2/6=0
So this with the last term gives you only the first term
So F(X)= ∫(sin(pi/2e^-x)+1/2ln(x^2+1))dx
but
X is not a constant
it's f(X)
you get a bunch of dX/dx
i can only assume that the thing inside the d/dx is supposed to be x
lowercase
evaluated at x = 3
Ohhh yes my bad my brain ai t functioning either
Umm u sure it’s X uppercase no ?
i agree lol
If it were from 0 to infinity it would’ve been the Gaussian integral but here it’s not possible without a calculator I think
except the fact that it's f(X) bla bla bla evaluated at X = 3 makes me think all the uppercase X's in that part of the eqn are supposed to be lowercase
you can use erf
so?
Sorry for ping
i guess just go with the 0 theory
so then you would integrate this
Ok
but wait, that's a constant, then
constants don't have inverses
what is this question
badly written question at best
Yeah
Let me find it
(1/2)ln(x^2+1)x - (2/3)x^3 + C2
That should be the integration
I think i got bamboozeled
Yeah that’s what I was thinking
Alr so its possible to answer
i don't think so
Well from what is presented yes
Is this correct?
from what is presented, the answer would be "no inverse exists"
it's definite integral, no constant
Alr well I’m going to sleep gn y’all
@violet oar