#Integral Convergence

28 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

halcyon schooner
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I have this task of testing if the integral converges.

I'm not sure why its ' > ' , shouldn't it be '<'.
Their conclusion is that it diverges since 1/x diverges.

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cursive vine
split impBOT
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Omegabet_

cursive vine
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taking reciprocal will then switch the inequality

halcyon schooner
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my idea was if (1+x^3) > x^3
then the reciprocal is just '<'

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and thats completely different from theirs

cursive vine
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making denominators smaller increases the overall value

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oh you mean the last inequality

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yeah the last one is wrong

halcyon schooner
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0 <= cos(x)^2 <= 1 right

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so it doesnt matter if it's in the abs

cursive vine
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yes but you're not talking about that

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you're talking about the 2nd inequality

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apparently, you never actually said which for some reason

halcyon schooner
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the whole inequalitiy where its '>' didn't make sense to me

cursive vine
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they're both >

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as I said

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the last one is wrong

halcyon schooner
cursive vine
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yes, like I said already....

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the last one is wrong.......

cursive vine
halcyon schooner
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got it

cursive vine
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the 1st one is correct from graphing them.

halcyon schooner
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could this be done if we use the second criterion of convergence of the non-property integral, and find the limit of f(x) / 1/x which would prove that this integral is divergent since integral 1/x is divergent on this range 1 to infinity

halcyon schooner
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+close