#Calculate the lim x→0 f(x)#calculas
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Hmm well my idea Is to use Feynman’s technique
Never mind not a good idea
I’m overthinking it this is just (u’v-uv’)/v^2
Here u=sin(y) and v=y
You can use integration by parts to verify it
(u/v)’
Knowing that you can evaluate the integral from x to pi/2 and then take the limit to 0
For the limit to 0 think of l’hôpital !
L'Hopital's rule only works if both the functions in the numerator and denominator return 0 upon directly substituting the limit ryt?
In my country we don’t study l’hôpital in college or in high school ( at least for now ) so I don’t know
But another way of looking at it is the rate of change
For example lim x->0 (ln(x+1))/x=1=1/1+0
Because ln(1+x)’=1/(1+x) so evaluating it in 0 is 1
In this case we can use this argument as well
And in this case they both do
If I’m not mistaken
Not cos but sin
Its (u/v)’ with u=siny and v=y
Integrate you get sin(y)/y
Well do you know the formula (u/v)’=(u’v-uv’)/v^2
?
Yes
wait
x is in the definite integral
so, sin(pi/2)/pi/2 - lim(x->0)siny/y
2/pi - 1
Yep
yay
Sure
Just note that (y cos(y) - sin(y))/y^2 = (sin(y)/y)'. From that you can evaluate the integral using the fundamental theorem of calculus, then calculate the limit.
Thanks buddy
Thanks sir
@wind gust has given 1 rep to @knotty python
You're welcome!
Hope this is clear enough
You don’t need the last part I just wanted to test different proofs
Thanks a lot sir
I had tried it that way already. Also you cannot directly subst for x as 0