#help analysis induction question
106 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
If I cannot use induction here, please let me know why, thanks.
I was doing induction on the amount of elements intersected btw
This step doesn't make sense to me
the approach is to just prove that
$I_{m+1} \cap \bigcap_{n=1}^{m} I_n$ is non-empty
Magma (N, ^)#Magma4Manager
For induction
it's finite induction
like from interval m+1 to interval 0
it's in each previous interval by the fact that they're nested, hence it's in the intersection
that's all I'm saying by that
I have found another approach that the book intends me to use but I am just wondering if this proof is also valid
ok this proof feels hand-wavy
how so?
It is pretty much definitional that $a_{m+1}$ is in $I_n$, if that directly implies that $\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} I_n$ was non-empty, this wouldn't be a problem
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Mmm thanks a lot
i still have some concerns about the proof
starting with N and removing the lowest integer one by one leaves it having elements in it but after infinity, it is the empty set
but what do i know
that's not to contest the statement is true, btw
just the general idea
yeah by my understanding of induction this isn't the case
take N_i to be the set of natural numbers with all natural numbers up to "i" being removed
for i=0, 1 is in the set.
for i=m+1, m+1+1 = m+2 is in the set.
It looks weird and seems stupid but I'm pretty sure it's how induction works
but I do see where you're coming from
wdym
You can’t really use induction for this
how come though
you can prove that the intersection up to some finite value is nonempty
Induction works for finite values
There are many examples that have properties that hold for finite values but not infinite ones
Like just because we have a sequence {a}where each a_n is rational does not mean it’s limit is
or this
mm ok
In fact I think this statement is false if we replaced closed sequence with open ones
to see why it doesnt work, consider nested open intervals. then it doesnt work
oop beat me to it
i considered that
but could it actually be empty
ohhhh true
try using bolzano weierstrass
I know anotther method
I just wanted to know if this worked but
I see why it does not now
Thanks
so induction can only be used to prove "forall" values N not "for infinity"
yes
Yeah
but for some arguments in analysis you can indeed 'pass to the limit'
so it does sometimes work
actually
I have a way to do it without induction but
I fee like induction would account for open intervals @velvet stone ?
or you could make it work
uhh ill write it here later
I dont think that induction works for this anymore
but I dont really understand why
or I do but it's really hand-wavy and unsatisfying
your induction argument never used the fact the intervals are closed, so it should technically also work for open
I would like to know exactly why I cant use induction here and in which cases I can
but its not true for open intervals
so the argument cant be right
that was the point i think
my argument relied on the fact that they were closed though since it literally used the end point as the point included in each interval
you couldn't use my argument for the open case as either endpoint could be equal I guess
but if you choose an interior pt and try and use the same argument it fails
u r essentially saying finite intersection nonempty means infinite intersection nonempty right
I wrongly assumed that's how induction worked
like it meant it counted "forall natural numbers" hence it counted for infinity
wait but isn't the only reason the open case fails is because both end points could be equal?
no
oh wait
but any finite intersection is nonempty
ahh okay interesting thanks
ig the reason why is because being in many sets does not mean you are in all of them
eh ok sure thing
just because i can find someone that belongs to group 1, 2, 3... n for any n doesn't mean i can find someone who is in all the groups at once
I see
no
Here is a good example
$\frac{1}{n} > 0$ for all $n > 1$
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$\prod_{n=1}^{k} n$ is finite for all $k$
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However $\prod_{n=1}^{\infty} n$ is not
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