#Inequality proof
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You want to show
[\qty( a + \frac{1}{a + 1} ) + \qty( b + \frac{1}{b + 1} ) \geq 2]
invariance.
because the (a) and (b) parts are independent of each other, this is the same thing as showing
[\qty(x + \frac{1}{x + 1}) \geq 1]
when (x \geq 0).
invariance.
Would this be the right way to prove it?
looks good to me
note that you cam multiply by x + 1 without changing the sign because x + 1 ≥ 0
Oh, so that's why photomath and wolframalpha say that the solution is x > -1?
yep! your proof works as long as x + 1 is positive, which is when x > -1
,w plot x + 1/(x + 1)
So if there was no x >= 0 I should've reviewed x^2 + x + 1 >= 1 and x + 1 >= 1 as well as x^2+x+1 <= 1 and x+1 <= 1?