#Improper integral
7 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
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Is the answer by any chance 0? I was able to do it with Feynman's trick
$I(t) = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\ln x}{1 + tx^2} \dd{x}$
NEONPerseus
Nvm it's flawed :/
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