#orthogonality in a complex vector space
8 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
martin(ping-me-when-reply)
must it be the real part of the inner product?
if so, why?
or is this just more generalized than saying $\langle u,v \rangle = 0$ because if $\real{\langle u,v \rangle = 0} \rightarrow \langle u,v \rangle = 0$
martin(ping-me-when-reply)