#orthogonality in a complex vector space

8 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

wary forge
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the book I am using says that in order for two complex vectors to be orthogonal $\real{\langle u,v \rangle} = 0$

rain ibexBOT
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martin(ping-me-when-reply)

wary forge
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must it be the real part of the inner product?

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if so, why?

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or is this just more generalized than saying $\langle u,v \rangle = 0$ because if $\real{\langle u,v \rangle = 0} \rightarrow \langle u,v \rangle = 0$

rain ibexBOT
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martin(ping-me-when-reply)

wary forge
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wait but that's not true

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wait