#Relation
16 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
Because a set is never a subset of its own Cartesian square.
...wait, I don't get the hint.
it's probably something else in place of "R^2", other than A^2
based on the hint
but yeah, very weird notation
R being a subset of R^2 doesn't make sense
but in the hint it says you just need to prove that given an arbitrary pair (a, b) in R, then there is c in A with (a, c) and (c, b) in R
so just prove that instead
I suppose whoever made the question was thinking about the set
{ P in R^2 ; \exists x, y, z in A with ( (x, y), (y, z) ) = P}
which you can interpret as the set of 2-paths in the graph corresponding to R
so it's not completely arbitrary
"(a, b) in R, then there is c in A with (a, c) and (c, b) in R"
isn't this the definition of transitivity
no, transitivity is in the opposite direction
(a, b), (b, c), then (a,c)?