main tapir
I feel like this should be some well-known thing in calculus, but doesn't seem easy to prove. I tried going through the fundamental theorem of calculus, but that led nowhere on the integrals of squared functions. All constants and functions are real-valued. I_1 and I_2 are both functions of t and not trivially equivalent. t_1 and t_2 are constant and generally not the same, but can be sometimes. I'm curious if the second statement is generally true, generally false, or if there are some simple rules for when it is and isn't true.
hardy zephyr