#How does the limit of ln(x)/x as a approaches infinity equal to e^0?

6 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

forest kayakBOT
clever owl
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Probably skipping a bunch of steps

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if you substitute x=e^y, then you get y/e^y, apply L'Hopital's, then you have e^(-y) so it should be 0.

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Yeah, this screenshot is just nonsense.

twin tulip
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So is this wrong?

clever owl
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Yes