#Finding the mistake in my proof
6 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
goatez
I'm still looking over your proof, but this is not an implication.
Okay, you have tons of => signs all over the place and most of them don't make sense
You don't mention that y=f(x)
To prove equality of sets A and B, you take an arbitrary element from A and show that it is in B. Then you take an arbitrary element of B and show that it is in A.