#I need help on calculus. proves, limits and find sum
54 messages ยท Page 1 of 1 (latest)
Firstly, notice that \begin{equation} \sum_{n=1}^{N}f(n)-f(n+k)=\sum_{n=1}^{k}f(n)-f(n+N) \end{equation}
otiopiscis
Since [\frac{-4}{n^2+5n+4}=\frac{-4}{3}\left(\frac{1}{n+1}-\frac{1}{n+4}\right) ],
Emm... maybe it is not a very serious problem, definitely i can write the whole solution done
otiopiscis
Why did you add - before the 4
there is a small "-" in your picture
Sure, $n^2+5n+4=(n+1)(n+4)$
otiopiscis
So that $$\frac{4}{(n+1)(n+4)}$$ is $$\frac{4}{3}\left(\frac{1}{n+1}-\frac{1}{n+4}\right) $$
otiopiscis
Ok
Well, then we can apply formula $(1)$ to the sum of it,
otiopiscis
Yeah
Yeah ur correct. After checking, simply using the relation $\ln\frac{n+1}{n}=\ln{(n+1)}-\ln{n}$ and using $(1)$ again ๐
otiopiscis
๐ค I think that one of the most efficient way to show the convergence (in this problem) is to find the result of the finite sum at first, and then find the limit of it
Ooh the infinity sum in B doesn't convergent, the result is infinity
Yeah
@covert vector i have another question not on this problem. Lets say i have proven that my problem is convergents. Does it mean the limit of the general statement is 0?
yeah, a general result it that "the n-th term of the series converges to 0" is just a necessary-but-not-sufficient condition of the statement "the series is convergent"; if u have known that some series (infinity sum) is convergent then u can imply that the n-th term of the series converges to 0, but vise versa is not.
I mean like that
Yeah Your statement is correct )
U r welcome ๐
I need help on calculus. proves, limits and find sum
same here right?
Well, aalsoo right here. We can use some specific approaches to find the result of some limits with this form, but it may needs a lot minutes for me to find the correct method ๐ค ...
One possible method is to compare the limit with some easy guys. We can prove that $n!>{\left(\frac{n}{e}\right)}^n$ at first, then the next steps would be trivial
otiopiscis
To prove it, let $$x_n={\left(\frac{n}{e}\right)}^n,$$ then we can find that $$x_n=x_1\frac{x_2}{x_1}\frac{x_3}{x_2}\ldots\frac{x_n}{x_{n-1}}<n!$$ since $$\frac{x_n}{x_{n-1}}=\frac{n{\left(1+\frac{1}{n-1}\right)}^{n-1}}{e}<n$$
otiopiscis
.close