Proof that shows any absolutely normal number is disjunctive? | Mathematics | Page 1

solid stirrupBOT Mar 23, 2023, 2:24 AM

#

boreal ermine Mar 23, 2023, 2:26 AM

#

answer probably has something to do with the set of all integers (ie all combinations of digits disregarding decimals) being countably infinite

#

idk tho

boreal ermine Mar 23, 2023, 2:46 AM

#

i feel like its presumptuous to make the jump from "the digits in this number are distributed randomly" to "this number contains every possible set of digits" - i dont see where that leap comes from

onyx junco Mar 23, 2023, 7:19 AM

#

Equally distributed digits also means equally distributed sets of digits.

Or, remember that normality is independent of base. So if a number is missing a sequence, say 385, then in base 1000 your number is just missing one of the digits.

boreal ermine Mar 23, 2023, 5:12 PM

#

Right that makes sense

#

Okay thank you

#

How do i mark as solved

#

!solved

#

Idk

onyx junco Mar 25, 2023, 6:07 AM

#

.solved

weak flame Mar 22, 2024, 8:44 AM

#

.solved

#Proof that shows any absolutely normal number is disjunctive?