#help-43
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do you mean geometric?
okay lets take question number 33 for example
what is it increasing by
like whats the difference between each term
4
4 becomes the d value in the arithmetic sequence formula, since thats the difference between each term
what does the sequence in question 33 start with
oh so 3 + 4(n-1)?
yeah thats the formula for question 33
now for a geometric sequence lets try question 37 an easy one
what is the first term in the sequence
1
-1
okay
now a = 1, and r = -1
the formula for a geometric sequence is tn = ar^(n - 1)
plug in your values
r is the ratio between one term and the term before that btw, in this case -1/1 = -1
so 1(-1)^(n-1)
exactly
these two formulas will apply to all of those questions, but you need to look carefully to see if the differences between terms are equal every time or not
ohhh okay i see
just decide whether its arithmetic or geometric and plug in the values?
like for example question 44 is geometric but question 34 is arithmetic
yeah thats how it is
just feel glad that it didnt specify you to write recursive formulas
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Let P be a point inside the regular hexagon ABCDEF. Prove that
AP^2 + DP^2 = BP^2 + EP^2 = CP^2 + FP^2
I'm really confused on what to do
you can try the pytahgorean thoeream
pythagorean theorem
Yeah but i don't get how to apply it
I'm confused lmao
ok one idea might be
try it for AP^2 + DP^2
treate both as hypotenuses
(double application of the theorem)
My friend told me to use some apollonius theorem or something
ok lemme try
draw a diagram for starters
^
i've draw one and labelled like abcdef and the point p
that's basically what i had
perfect
wait so did you say i treat both AP^2 and DP^2 as hypotenuses
actually is this really true
i think it is yes
but like if i add the line to create a triangle like the missing line then its not a right angle triangle
if i add AD it won't be a right angle triangle
here's what i mean
okay lemme see
ohh alright thannks
π
you can do it in terms of a, b, c, and d in the figure
i'd say leave the third pair off until the end
okok
that should be good
is it like
something about how
each side of the hexagon
is equal
yeah
hmm
i might try to redraw it on the side quickly
btw apollonius works here
(honestly i was pleasantly surprised it worked aswell lol)
i haven't learnt it yet :/
i'm in 9th grade
my friend wanted me to use apollonius though
wait is it equal because the dotted lines are straight
so then
on the other side
its like opposite
for each pair
ok i don't have to redo the whole drawing but yess exactly
i think you get it
we will basically end up getting like a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2 or something for both
wait
but it's not though
because
on the other side
the triangles are smaller
is this comp math?
yeah the contributions swap around
but the final answer should be the same
what is contributions
its like gauss problems
its my homework it's due tomorrow π
have you studied trig?
i did some during tutoring but i wasn't paying attention and didn't get it ig
i think im doing in school soon though
ok sry i changed my letters around. so like in my diagram how AP = a^2 + d^2
PD = b^2 + c^2
okok lemme check
sry i could change my letters to match yours
stewarts theorem maybe?
this does def look cool too
no let me just read it though
but it can def be done just with the pythagorean theorem

what π
huh
i might be cooked
or slowaf
just try AP^2 first
oh i get your idea now
wait so is it equal because
both pairs
are
consist of
this
exactlyy
yeah you finished
is the third pair the same though
because its like
rotated
ok yeah exactly
the symmetry
it'd be exatly the same if we did it for AP^2 + DP^2, and CP^2 + FP^2
it is rotated kinda, it's easier to consider just the two pars again i think
then you can rotate it and flip and it'll look the same
you got it i think
it's the same geometry as before already
oh
yeah, your drawing already looks the same basically
and the position of P will actually be slightly different for this rotated version
but it doesn't matter, that doesn't affect any of the logic/calculations that we did
π
(one slight logic thing, our a, b, c, d in this new diagram might be different. so technically we just show with the new one that FP^2 + CP^2 = AP^2 + DP^2, the same way as before, even though our a, b, c, d, changed this time)
alright
all the sums end up equaling each other anyway
i'll write down my explanation really quickly and can you check it for me?
then i'll close the channel
sure
btw tysm ur the goat bro
npp you got it on your own mostly
(you can argue that the vertical/horizontal side lengths, like a, b, c, d that we labeled twice, are equal by saying they are opposite sides on a rectangle)
wait can you help me rq again
my friend is arguing it wouldn't work if i place point P differently
i put a new diagram on the whiteboar
i think thats right
i think so too
thanks again
btw what is apollonius theorem
i don't know tbh
@keen rose how would i do fp and cp
it's symmetric again for any of the two pairs given
so bd and dc must be equal for the thoerem to work?
could you help me i can't find where to put the dotted lines
like we showed AP^2 + DP^2 = BP^2 + EP^2, it's symmetric if we swap out BP and EP for CP and FP
tldr focus on APD, BPE, CPF. AD=BE=CF, apollonius on the triangles gets what we want since alot of stuff cancels out
oh ok yeah, ig the idea is, to pick another pair. like just do AP^2 + DP^2 = CP^2 + FP^2
just like last time
then it'll look exactly the same as last time again
i was drawing it sort of quick lol sry
i'm just trying to show that it looks exactly the same as before
except the location of P is different, but that's ok
yeah you got it again
np!
yo can i have any tips
on writing the proof
should i just do like
draw the diagram
and then say because of pythag it proves
and add my equations
i think if you drew a single hexagon with the a, b, c, and d parts labeled (each twice)
and then wrote like AP = a^2 + d^2, etc.
that'd def be enough
and yeah in words, just mention the pythagorean theorem
you could label right angles in the diagram too, since the pythagorean theorem is for right triangles
should i write it all in one diagram or split it into two seperate ones like we did
and then also in words, say the CP^2 + FP^2 part is the same because of symmetry
i mean use one diagram
or
so in the diagram, you only need two pairs of lines
split into two
okay so like two diagrams right
i think one is enough to show the idea
i meant just one hexagon with two pairs of lines
i'll do 2 hexagon diagrams each with two pairs so that it covers all three just to be safe
sure π
but there might be a problem writing all of these at once:
a^2 + d^2 = AP^2
b^2 + c^2 = DP^2
a^2 + b^2 = BP^2
c^2 + d^2 = EP^2
c^2 + b^2 = CP^2
a^2 + d^2 = FP^2
since the a, b, c, and d changed when we used the second hexagon
the way i think about it is that we can just do it for two pairs of lines, and then, just use symmetry to say that it works for another pair. and then we get basically X = Y and Y = Z and so X = Y = Z (representing the final equations)
so i kinda like just doing a single hexagon
but anyway it's up to you
@stark crown Has your question been resolved?
i just need to write up my thing
i'll write it seperately cuz i have two diagrams
ok sounds perfect then π
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Guys I needed help with this
What I've done is that I have taken the equality given as a constant 'k'.
And I don't know what to do to move ahead.
(y+z)=k(pb+qc)
same with the other 3
they have the same value
the rhs have a cool trick
have you sum all of them ?
sum?
i cant open the file
Umm I think something is wrong with k
but
why ?/
nahh
but then the denominator would be crazy
the second equation have this cool trick
if a/b = c/d = e/f then (xa+xc+xe)/(xb+xd+xf) is equal to a/b
try summing them
ok thanks
you should be able to prove it
yea done
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why is proving it for N enough? dont we need to show it for all countable sets
every countable set is N
but all countable sets must be a subset of N
well ok my comment was a joke
this is just false
i remember its defined as card X <= card N right
the point is, if X and Y are countable, then there are bijections X->N and Y->N. so then there is a bijection X x Y -> N x N
so if you find a bijection NxN -> N, then you also get a bijection XxY -> N
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Hii.. anyone familiar with derivatives? Can we use em to predict the next point?
For eg f(x) = x^2 and I take 2 points (I wish they were infinitesimally close)
2, 3 = 4, 9
And so we measure their difference then add that to the derivative of the f(x) and add that to the previous point and this gets us the next point?
But what about x^3 or other functions?
Difference + derivative + previous point
(4-9) + 2 + 9
Please elaborate on the second step
"measure their difference then add..."
This would gets 16
Apologies, I do not understand
So the difference/slope is
9-4 = 5 right?
And the derivative of x^2 is 2? I mean second derivative?
What difference? Distance?
Second derivative is 2, yes
I would appreciate if you could write your procedure slightly clearer
thanks
Oh how come if f(x) = x^2 then
We take 2 points 2, 3 the slope of this would be 5 no?
Slope?
9/3 - 4/2 = 5
Slope of tangent?
Difference ig?
This is f(3) - f(2)
There is a misconception
This is unrelated to slope
Yes
That doesnt correlate with the actual derivative
What do you mean by actual derivative? U mean first derivative?
Ok so
difference is 5 (9/3 - 4/2)
Second derivative is 2
And the last point is 9
Right?
If we sum em all up we get the next point 16
And this is true for all!?
2 + 9 + 5 = 16
This kinda ties in with sequences and series
Now take 3 and 4 you'd get the 25
The second difference of the sequence x^2 is 2
And so on
But what about x^3 this procedure is invalid for that!?
But true for x^2
Because theres a third difference there
I think I'm taking the derivative until I end up with a real number?
Which in case of x^3 is 6?
So it's only possible for x^2?
Btw how do you predict where the graph is gonna go next?
Am I just adding the slope of secant line to the slope of tangent line here and last point?
Avg rate+ derivative+ last point
Like the average rate
Should I explain it to you again??
So in a sequence
Actually you are just on your way of discovering Euler's method
Each difference is affected by the next one
So in a cubic sequence
The third difference is how much the second difference goes up for each term
And it would be constant
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yeah..is that answer wrong
oh ok so u want to cross check?
yes
it's not some dark magic devil in the details thing right
no, its allowed to add the equations up and so there is just one solution. Could you close the channel when your done?
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there must be at least one what?
sure, if |G|=870 then there's at least one subgroup of order 29
Slight problem in this step
You are overcounting
You are undercounting here and also in the final inequality but still its enough to give you a contradiction
But this may not happen in other cases
Yes
And in the inequality you can do a +1 for the identity which isnt counted here
Yes
I cant recall off the top of my head but there are orders where you cant afford to undercount
Can you give an example? Also its normal to be momentarily confused when learning, so dont think that
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how 1 on LHS? LHS needs to be a function and rhs will be the 0 function btw since in Z/(2), 1 + 1 = 0
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Lets say we have a vector [x,y]_B in V, V = R^2 that's expressed in terms of basis B={e1,e2}. When we carry out the linear combination of the vector components with basis B, like x*e1 + y*e2 = (x',y'), then does this mean that we turned the coordinate vector [x,b]_B in V into the abstract vector (x', y') in R^2 ? And, thus, this abstract vector is no longer expressed in terms of a basis -- the components x' and y' are simply elements of R^2?
@fallen frost Has your question been resolved?
the tuple x' and y' is a basis dependent representation of the abstract vector
for example, let
(B = \left{ \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -1 \end{pmatrix} \right}) and ([x, y]_B = [2, 3]_B)
[
\vec{v} = 2 \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \end{pmatrix} + 3 \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -1 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 5 \ -1 \end{pmatrix}
narinelepen
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oh π¦
$$ B = \left{ \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -1 \end{pmatrix} \right} $$ and $$ [x, y]_B = [2, 3]_B $$
$$
\vec{v} = 2 \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} + 3 \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 5 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix}
$$
narinelepen
So, this (5, -1) is a member of R^2, and its not a coordinate vector. Instead, it's an abstract vector which is not expressed in respect to a basis. Thus, there is no further linear combination to perform on (5, -1). Is this correct?
Yeah, i mostly agree but iβm not 100% sure what you mean. (5,-1) as an element of the vector space R^2 is expressed here with respect to the basis B as (2,3)_B a coordinate vector. However with respect to basis Bβ = {(1,0),(0,1)} you can also express (5,-1) as the coordinate vector (5,-1)_Bβ because 5(1,0)-1(0,1)=(5,-1)
so i would agree your interpretation is correct
@fallen frost Has your question been resolved?
I think we're in agreement, so I want to make sure we don't start disagreeing because of ambiguous language.
I'm basically looking for a confirmation of what I think it's going on.
There's 2 types of vectors:
- Abstract ones, which are just ordered tuples that are members of a vector space, say R^2. These vectors are not described with respect to a basis, and thus their components are their literal value -- no further calculation needs to happen (such as a linear combination) to those component.
- Coordinate vectors are also ordered tuples, but these vectors are expressed with respect to a basis. Thus, their coordinates (components) are not their final literal value; instead, coordinate vectors represent a linear combination of those coordinates with the basis on which the vector is expressed. If you carry out that linear combination, such as in the example above where the result is (5, -1), then that doesn't result in another coordinate vector. Instead, it results in an abstract vector.
It just so happens to be the case that abstract vectors, such as (5, -1), can be "expressed" in the standard basis, which just happens to have the same coordinates as the abstract version.
I agree
Cool. I'm going to leave the question open for a minute, in case some one else reads it and has dissagreements with it.
imo, you have the right idea, but an abuse of language:
- a vector simply written (1,2) in R^2 is the "standard" vector, representing one step right and 2 steps up on the Cartesian plane. It is a linear combination, but of the standard basis S = {i, j}, so we don't need to convert the coords. these are described in terms of a basis, just the standard one.
- a vector [1,2]B is the "standard" vector (1,2), but represented in terms of a basis B. you would need to "carry out that linear combination," as you said. note that the co-ordinates [1,2] are based on the representation in the standard basis S.
2.5. a vector going from a basis C to a basis B would be written C[1,2]_B, and its coordinates (1,2) are the representation in C. like others said, better to get used to this idea as well as the standard basis.
note that these are all coordinate vectors. an abstract vector will be something like v, which is not guaranteed to have coordinates. this is the representation that doesn't rely on a basis, because there are no "co-ordinates." so when you say "abstract vector," it's understood to be v, and not (1,2) in S. This is because it allows us to describe a generic vector space, or describe a vector space without having to explicitly state what the vectors are.
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@upbeat gorge So, the vector (1,2) in R^2 can exist in R^2 without a reference to a basis, correct? So, then it would just be a tuple of numbers that are members of R^2. That's what I mean when I say abstract vector.
it can exist without a basis, but in that case you can't write a tuple of numbers
those numbers come from some kind of basis - usually the standard
the tldr would be: abstract vector is v, no tuple, and coordinate vector is with tuple
regardless of basis being standard or not
hopefully that helps?
This is the first time I heard of that.
I'm not saying you're wrong, but I just never encountered that info before.
of course I can just write a tuple of numbers
(1,2)
here I just did it
I dont need to know the concept of a basis for this
the name abstract vector is not good tho
with that I agree
What nomenclature would you use?
The problem is that "vector" is then ambiguous.
Coordinate vector -- ok, I get what that is. But, the "other" vector.
vector just means element of a vector space
there is no distinction at all between vector qua list of numbers and vector qua "abstract" point in a vector space
they are not different beasts
There is some distinction between (1,2) in R^2 and that same vector [x,y]_B in R^2.
I understand they "represent" the same vector, but they carry inherent properties that make them somewhat different.
i mean to say, you require a basis of some kind to use the tuple representation. i.e. this tuple relies on the standard basis
if (1,2) is a vector, then (1,2) = 1i + 2j, thus it depends on the basis {i, j}, right?
whether or not it's helpful to think about it that way remains to be seen ig
just because I can write it as a linear combination doesnt mean that it depends on that basis
(1,2) is just a tuple of real numbers
its just an element of RxR
which is just a cartesian product of sets
this discussion should probably not continue here, so i'll just say: abstract vector is a not-so-good name, but your understanding is good
I don't particularly care of any specific nomenclature, but it should be named something. "Coordinate vector" has semantic implications; namely, there's a buncha numbers that have an associated basis. Then, the other kind of vector that doesn't have a basis can also benefit from a name. Whatever that name is, it just needs to communicate the idea that it isn't a coordinate vector. "Abstract vector" is what I've seen, but could be "geometric vector", or whatever. Not having a name is not useful.
But, anyway, my original question was answered, so thanks all.
π
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I don't quite rememebr hoew to use stars and bars
you have 7 cookies, and you want to create 4 groups (group can have 0) so how many bars do you need
is it 3?
yea, 3 bars
This is equivalent to a+b+c+d=7 for 0,1,2,3 .. right?
If each kid had at least one, would it be then equivalent to a+b+c+d=7-4-=3?
yes, that's right
Just conceptually though
What if the kids we are talking about were not distinct
So if we said 4 groups instead
Then certain arrangements would be the same
Would we divide over by 4!?
So if it was arranging 7 cookies into 4 boxes, then it would be the ans from that q all over 4!?
Eg 1,3,2,1 is the same as 1,2,3,1
For the q above, I believe it takes 1321 and 1231 as distinct cases
I dont think that would be it because then in this case it would be 120/4! = 5, whereas there are 11 cases.
you gotta manually count the cases for identical objects in identical boxes
This could just be done with division and distribution 
But are all the cookies different?
identical I believe
Then
Hmm
Yes identical
Thatβs odd
I would assume some underlying symmetry but I guess not
Do you know why?
it is
I canβt think of a reason
Oh right
Cuz each case doesnβt occur an equal no of times I think thatβs why
Just division problem
eg 7000 occurs only 4!/3! times whilst 1331 occurs 4!/2!2!
So itβs not exactly symmetrical
Interesting
Alright ty
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oh index battles. fun
isnt it the same as first inequality?
upper bound on the sums should be m
dont see a mistake rn
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In linear algebra,
I guess it's technically possible for there to exist a basis B={e1,...,eN}, of some vector space R^n, where the components of the basis vectors e1,...,eN are NOT expressed in terms of the standard basis. What is an example of where such a thing would be useful?
diagonalization of a linear transformation
hmm, interesting. I just started on the eigenvector/eigenvalue stuff on the book I'm reading, and it made a passing mention of diagonalization. Though, I haven't studied diagonalization, specifically, yet. So, I'll keep a look out for those kinds of basis vectors, and see if I spot them.
Thank you for the example
π
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question for all my statics engineering students, can somebody explain why Joint A - ABx force is 54.17kN?
@agile moth Has your question been resolved?
well the PoincarΓ© Conjecture states that every simply connected, closed 3-dimensional manifold is homeomorphic to a 3-sphere, so you can deduce that joint A = ABx force is 54.17kN. understand?
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no but ive got a follow up question
ABx is positive 54.17kN
but then when they calculate Fx its -54.17?
shouldnt it be positive
i have a feeling, nobody is gonna know this math since its so niche
ABx is positive 54.17 kN cause thatβs just the size of the force in the x-direction (the magnitude). but when we do the βFx equation, we care about direction. since AB is in compression, it pushes toward the joint, which means itβs pulling left. left is negative in the x-direction. so we plug in β54.17 in the equation. itβs the same force, just used with the correct direction
If it is in equilibrium then it has to be
Lmao
so a positive value means its compression?
I mean no. You can equally use positive for extension and negative for compression
That will be equally valid
But the forces are opposite
if you look at Joint A Fy, its -72.2 but that is also compression
One min
but then AB is +90.28 and that is also compression
so not sure how they are determining whether a force is compression or tension
There they have taken this upward force as negative and the downward force as positive
Just take one force as positive arbritrarily and its opposite counterpart should be negative
this is how we were taught
we assume the force has tension
so that means force is pulling away from the join
t
if the calculation of the force ends up being negative, then we switch from tension to compression
agree?
so force AB is initially assumed to have tension (pulling away)
Let me have a clearer look at the FBD
but the calculation of force AB is +90.28
so shouldnt that mean our initial assumption is correct that force AB has tension?
so then why is AB showing as compression (C), and you can even see it in the free body diagram. they cross out the arrow at AB indiciating tension and then draw the arrow as compression (towards the joint)
Yes. Here they have taken towards the joint as a positive force but the counterpart force which is balanced afterward is shown in the negative direction. Right?
That might be the convention but that is not always true.
I mean if i take compression to be positive and tension to be negative or vica versa the equations are gonna work the same
for force ABx, how did they determine that it is compression
In ABx the force is having a tendency to push through the system
This is compressing the wood plank
ok but our initial assumption that it had tension (pulling away) fromthe joint
so then why did they change force AB to be compression even though the calculation for AB is positive value?
i thought we only change the direction if the value is negative
I think the diagram is a little ambiguous in itself
do you get what im saying though
cause it seems you're still confused as to what im trying to say
You are saying that in the initial big diagram they seemed to have made two arrows and they have crossed one. And you wanna know why that thing is crossed
look at AB
its crossed out when the arrow is pulling away (meaning tension)
and then they point a new arrow towards the join t(compression)
im asking...why are they doing this
force of AB is +54.17, so shouldnt the force remain as tension?
Yeah
The diagram is alittle ambiguous
in what way
and if AB force is actually tension (pulling away) then in Fx calculation, shouldn't it be AC - 100 + 54.17?
And they have written -54.17 right? I think they have crossed that pulling away so it is tension.
And because it is tension the x component of AB will come exactly as pointed in the diagram.
Do you agree?
just to be clear that -54.17 written in Fx is actually the value of ABx
agree?
but ABx is calculated to be +54.17
Yeah but the direction of ABx is opposite to AC right?
thats what im asking though...why is ABx direction going to the left..... ABx = +54.17....shouldnt it be pulling to the right???
Well if they have calculated ABx positive in one line they should have taken 100kN to be negative but thats beyond me.
And if they have taken that to be positive so they have to take the second force acting in opposite sense negative
Yes but in the next line they have flipped signs.
Now positive means compression and negative means tension.
Which is what i initially called ambiguous
Yeah they should have taken that ABx positive
But now that they took that the equations will give the right value
Its just that if equation plops a negative value that will mean tension
Now
I hope ur question is resolved
Yeah
But i hope that original doubt is resolved
which makes sense
Yeah
but in Joint A ABx, ABx = +54.17 but its pulling to the left?
like how are they determining the direction?
BEx = +54 in joint B is going to the right..... ABx = +54 in joint A is going to the left
you see what im trying to get at here?
One minute i will have to look at it again
It is pulling to the right too bro look at the arrow clearly. The force ABx and BEx literally point to the same direction
Also why tf are we discussing truss bridges in a maths server
π
Also ΟΒ²=g
ABx is pointing to the left
what do you mean?
it was originally poitning to the right but then got crossed out for some reason and now points to the left
Yeah this one is a good doubt and i will take some time to write my response.
do you not see that?
and do you see here
all the positive values remain as tension cause that was our initial assumption
only Fx becomes copression because the force is a negative value which means our inital assumption was wrong
you know.....if the force is a negative value, im just going to assume the tension was wrong and it should be compression
fuck it
either im wrong or the question is wrong
thanks
Consider figure on the roght side. I have marked the directions of force and tensions.
Now people have a doubt which is really common that the tension in the ball is acting only in the upward direction.
But in reality we can see that the wall is also applying a force on the upward direction (which is precisely the reason why it is not falling)
It is because tension is a bidirectional force
Just like spring force
bro...i cant even understand your drawing
Lemme draw it properly
its ok....
Ok
im just ready to move on
Ok lmao
Ask ur teacher
They might explain u better
what do you mean its because they are internal forces
Have you been taught internal forces?
Like normal and tension?
vaguely
Ok can you tell me if you can make sense of the fact that tension is bidirectional?
yea goes both ways
Thats why the doubt is arising
Yes thats precisely the reason of that too.
I mean im not sure how i can explain you that without taking a 1 hr lecture on internal forces
Lmao
So imma give up sorry
Namaste
What do u understand?
The tension being internal force?
I mean it being bidirectional?
the whole compression/tension, arrow direction thing
so basically
if you look at joint A, we first solved for Fy because there are two forces (AB and 72.2)
so that means we can solve for the one unknown variable AB
so in the solution for Fy you can see that ABy = -72kn
so now....this is where it all makes sense
because our inital asusmption that ABy was tension (pulling away), our calculation tells us that is it actually COMPRESSION because we have a negative value (-72kN)
so because ABy is compression, that means ABx and AB forces MUST ALSO BE COMPRESSION....why? because that is just how science works
so you can see for calculations for ABx and AC, even though we are getting POSITIVE values, its irrelevant because we already know ABx and AC forces is compression because we already solved that ABy is COMPRESSION
hope that makes sense
Yeah
Sorry i cannot be with u for a longer time
I got a test tmrw
And i need to sleep
Sry
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2^logx = ( e^log2 ) ^ logx = e ^ (log2 * logx) = (e^logx)^log2 = x^log2
where did i go wrong
@wintry condor
Alr bet
This is what you had written earlier, just making it look nice:
$2^{\log(x)} = (e^{\log(2)} )^{\log(x)} = e^{\log(2)\log(x)} = (e^{\log(x)})^{\log(2)} = x^{\log(2)}$
Sri
yes
You are correct that $2^{\log(x)} = x^{\log(2)}$, thats completely fine. But the steps to get there arent correct
Sri
So when you do the $e^{\log}$ idea, try to think of $(2^{\log(x)})$, as one complete term. Meaning that you arent taking it out of the pemdas equation and changing the ordering around
Sri
The difference between $e^{\log((2^{\log(x)}))$ is that you are doing $2\cdot 2\cdot 2\cdots$, log(x) times. However what you had written down was doing $(e^{\log(2)} ) \cdot (e^{\log(2)} ) \cdots$, log(x) times instead.
So I guess with that in mind, does that lead you to a beter understanding?
Sri
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
69-category theorist
Yeah, this is what you should have written instead
Because of these log rules
Yeah exactly!
You can just try to memorize these log rules if youd like, but if you want to understand it intuitively. $\log(x^y)$ is the same as $\log(x\cdot x\cdot x\cdots) = \log(x) + \log(x) + \log(x) + \ldots = y\log(x)$
Sri
Parenthesis do matter
nws
wait why is this wrong
cc this w/o ping
also sorry if i'm not following help channel rules, got here from math discussion
$e^{\log(2)} = 2$, which isnt our intention
Sri
i mean uhhh that was my intention
this is true though
i think i just approached it differently than what ur thinking
Or I guess, better to say we didnt want that bc @rotund wave was trying to show $2^{\log(x)} = x^{\log(2)}$
Sri
Yep
but for positive reals it's true
x > 0 yes
!done
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lemme uhh let this mellow for a while if someone else wants to say smth
nws
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How to solve this real life application
Do you know inverse sine or arcsine
I dont know arcsine
but i know inversine
would you just make it sin^-1 1/3=2pi/5
t
Yea
now what would i do with that tho
Find inverse sine of 1/3 and plug into a calculator to get a decimal value
Then use algebra and solve for t
Depends on the units in the problem
Ο being there suggests radian
I use
ah
alr
uh
lowkey my alg is bad
i tried solving
but idk how
I did this
but i dont think im supposed to multiply 5
nvm i got this
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dumb question, but if i see something like xΒ²+bx+c can i just add a =0 at the end so i can use the quadratic formula
well a=1 not 0 in the case you mentioned
so...
so i cant do that ever?
i think OP meant to just stick an = 0 at the end
which is not valid in this case, because that would be an assumption
if you are told to assume that the expression = 0, though, then go ahead
that only makes sense if you're trying to find the roots
do you have an example question?
no
how do i do this ome
i think its not a or b right
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how to do those questions
do you know how to do volumes of revolution in general?
also is that your work or someone else's scribbled on
@heavy basalt
that is my work but idk if it is correct or no
yeah
im just not sure with something
yknow like
the more specific you are with the things you're unsure about, the better
ok right
19 is correct
20 is incorrect: integrand should be (1 - y^2) not (1-y)^2.
washer method calls for pi * int(outer^2 - inner^2) dx
inner being whichever curve is closer to the rotation axis
ohhhh i forgot that
and you donβt need to square inside again?
what like (1-y^2)^2 ?
yeah
no you dont.
okay
the washer method hinges on the area formula for an annulus
i mixed with the other one ig
which is pi(R^2 - r^2)
i see
didnβt matter if it is a triangle or other shape ?
and for 22 is like (1-x^2)?
Ann
I must declare my profound gratitude for thy unwavering support. Tysm Ms
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How to prove menelau's theorem using Section formula?
@plush portal Has your question been resolved?
sorry what is section formula?
when a line segment A(a,b) and B(c,d) is divided into ratio m:n by a point P, then P is $(\frac{mx_2+nx_1}{m+n},\frac{my_2+ny_1}{m+n})$
Double_mytrouble
when divided externally take sign of n negetive
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I can find a triangle like this
but I don't think there is enough info here to solve?
Well I'm sure there is
but I don't see it
I can find all these triangles
what the focus for this ellipse:
x^2/a^2 + y^2/b^2 = 1
general equation of an ellipse?
UCYT5040
$1+\frac{1}{b^2}=1\\frac{1}{b^2}=0$
UCYT5040
nvm I can't do this
I end up with 1=0
ohh I think I can use coordinates of the foci
$4^2=5^2-b^2\16=25-b^2\-9=-b^2\b=3$
UCYT5040
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im suddenly going back, what does "uniquely defined" exactly mean?
i thought it means like you can just choose it arbitrarily
but that doesent make sense
question is find the amount of positive integer solutions
basically the argument here is that if p=2 mod 3 then x mapto x^3 is surjective on Z/pZ->Z/pZ (call this lemma *). if 2027|b then a=b=2027 is a solution, if its not then you can choose any x, then rhs is uniquely defined and from *, b is uniquely defined. moreso, a^3=bx and from *, a is uniquely defined, thus there exists 2027 solutions to this case
@cerulean steeple Has your question been resolved?
if x->x^3 is surjective, then also bijective
aka you can take cube roots uniquely
something like that probably
you dont have other third roots of unity which can mess with you
yeah i get that
i still dont get this though
"defined" - we know it exists
"uniquely" - ... it's unique
so like its unique to what?
like a is defined independently to other variables?
given any number x, then we always have a unique b so that so x=-b^3
uh wait, b also appears on the left...
uhm...
"ditakrifkan secara unik", assuming it's Malay
Chi's only defined using two integers, a and b
indonesian
let me try to translate the whole thing then
oh then that might make things easier... "didefinisikan secara unik"
im not gonna lie i understand english better than my native tongue...
Rough translation into English:
Find the number of pairs of natural numbers [...] that satisfy
[...]
Solution: We claim that the answer is 2028. We will use the following well-known lemma.
CLAIM: If [...] is prime, then the map [...] is surjective.
To solve the problem, consider that 2027 = 2 (mod 3) and 2027 is prime. We consider two cases: - If 2027 | b, then 2027 | ... and therefore ... . Consequently, a = b = 2027 and this works. - If the opposite is true, then we have
[...]
Choose any .... . Then, the RHS is uniquely defined and from the claim, b is uniquely defined. Moreover, ... and from the claim, a is uniquely defined. Therefore, there are 2027 solutions to this case. We need to be careful about the case where RHS = ... and leads to a contradiction, but this is impossible because it leads to 2027 | ... but ...., a contradiction.
4.Find the total amount of pairs of positive integer $1\geq a,b\geq 2027$ such that
$$2027\mid a^6+b^5+b^2$$
Solution: we claim that the answer is $2028$. we will use the following popular lemma
Claim. If $p\equiv 2 \mod 3$ is a prime, then the mapping $x\mapsto x^3$ is surjective (under $Z/pZ\to Z/pZ$)
to complete the solution, consider that $2027\equiv 2 \mod 3$ and it is prime. Consider two cases: If $2027\mid b$ then $2027\mid b^5+b^2$ which implies $2027|a$, this means $a=b=2027$ and this works. If not, then
$$\left(\frac{a^3}{b}\right)^2+1\equiv -b^3 \mod 2027$$
Choose any random $X=\frac{a^3}{b}\in{1,2,\dots,2027}$. Then, RHS is uniquely defined and from the claim, b is uniquely defined. Also, $a^3=bX$ and from the claim, $a$ is uniquely defined. Because of that, there exists $2027$ solutions for this case. We have to be careful when RHS$=0\mod 2027$ which will lead to a contradiction, but this is not possible since $2027\mid \left(\frac{a^3}{b}\right)^2+1$ but $2027\equiv 3\mod 4$, which is a contradiction
well shet
ihave<skissue>
[I think this confusion stems from the fact that this is a zero-verb sentence - so in English, we use a conjugation of "to be", so "b is uniquely defined" but Bahasa Indonesia (and many other languages) don't use a verb here at all]
[It's not defining that b be uniquely defined; it's concluding that it is therefore uniquely defined]
Do you understand up to that middle congruence relation?
yes
i am lost on the second paragraph
So the idea is, this relation does hold somehow
But we're dealing with integers
So that fraction on the left has to be an integer
does it?
Well if not, then the LHS isn't an integer at all
cant you use modular inverse or that sort, or is that what you meant?
But the RHS is an integer
We're literally dividing by b there, not multiplying by the mod-2027 inverse of b
Essentially
We have to check that that is actually what's going on though, which is what the following paragraph is doing
They've skipped some steps there, but that middle congruence relation is making use of the original divisor-fact we were given
divided by b^2 right?
yes
I missed by like three whole rows there lol
a | b + c implies b + c = 0 (mod a)
So b = -c (mod a)
Hence the minus appearing
ok but thats the problem I had. chi is not defined in terms of a and b. a and b are defined in terms of chi. chi is chosen first, then there is a unique b so that chi^2+1=-b^3. and then there is a unique a so that a^3=b chi
Not quite
Chi is defined in terms of a and b
They're using that as a stand-in to refer to the fraction
you cant define chi in terms of a and b if you dont even know that a and b exist
We're assuming they do
And checking what they are
(this is generally what you do with number theory questions tbh)
Supposing that this fraction is equal to anything mod 2027, then the middle congruence (henceforth MCE) gives us a unique number mod 2027 for b^3
Further, since b is between 1 and 2027, and 2027 is prime, then b is unique
its fucked up logic to talk about a^3/b as if that was fixed if you didnt already know that a and b are unique and exist
Well, okay
its perfectly fine to start with chi and then find a and b with chi=a^3/b and chi^2+1=-b^3
We can claim that this is some integer at least
If we suppose this has some value, then the MCE gives us a unique b, and then there's a unique a to follow - so then this actually does have a valid value
-# whats mce
-# middle congruence equation - but I'm typing this out far too many times 
Another way of going about this is:
Pick a value for b
Then using the MCE we can find a unique a such that the fraction is in fact an integer
Why must the fraction be an integer?
at the very least there is a problem with a and -a
so if the MCE has some unique value, then there will be b that is unique mod p (mod p is diffrent for any other MCE) and using this you also get the ssame result for a?
So like my brother wants to be advanced fifth grader so don't blame me he just want to learn math sooooo idk
So like
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I think we're going around in circles
maybe
Ignoring chi altogether because it's just in the way,
If we pick any b, then the MCE can demonstrate that there is a unique a for this b so that this works
How so?
Because of the even power of a?
yes
ohhhh
Finnicky, but I want to claim that it's because a and b are restricted to being between 1 and 2027
well I mean -a obviously mod 2027
Oh wait
This claim's being used here
that is irrelevant for what I mean
Claim - if p = 2 (mod 3) is a prime, then the map x |-> x^3 is surjective
oh true there's still the 2 there
the strategy of the proof is: a,b are solutions to a^6+b^5+b^2 = 0 mod 2027 iff they are solutions to x^2+1 = -b^3, x=a^3/b mod 2027 for some x in {1, ..., 2027}
and for any fixed x in {1,...,2027} there is a unique pair (a,b) solving that second system of equations
hmm
I'm tempted to ask for a third opinion on this
There's gotta be some congruence relation with squares that applies here somewhere
e.g. how square numbers are either 0 or 1 mod 3
And 0, 1 or 2 mod 5... OH
wait no, shit.
is the solution incorrect then? or is it just terribly written/structured so theres aton of confusion now
Probably the latter
I think they're missing another lemma or something
I was about to say "yh I'm tempted to suggest you may summon the bat signal" at this point
do you guys agree with this iff
which bat π
how to prove 1+1
(the @helpers signal)
does that really do anything
1+1=succ(1)=2. for more details feel free to ask <@&268886789983436800>
its like a calling to the void
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are u guys graduated in pure math?
as in the solution would look like that and it is true, or like what the image i posted is implying?
hi, let's move to #discussion cuz they're solving a problem
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Let's not disturb them
sry
so lets say a,b are solutions to a^6+b^5+b^2 = 0 mod 2027
and a,b nonzero
so then (a^3/b)^2 +1 = -b^3 mod 2027
so far we agree
setting x=a^3/b, then x^2+1 = -b^3 mod 2027
so a,b are solutions to x^2+1=-b^3 , x=a^3/b mod 2027 for some value x
on the other hand, let x be some value and let a,b be solutions to x^2+1=-b^3, x=a^3/b mod 2027
plugging the second equation into the first we get (a^3/b)^2+1=-b^3 mod 2027, so a^6+b^5+b^2 = 0 mod 2027
this proves that (a,b) is a solution to a^6+b^5+b^2 = 0 mod 2027 iff (a,b) is a solution to x^2+1=-b^3, x=a^3/b for some value x
is that ok
personally it makes sense but admittedly i do not fully grasp the concept so take my opinion with a grain of salt
what concept are you not grasping
so far this just normal modulo and equation stuff
-# [lol that sounds antagonistic
]
actually nvm what i was kinda iffy on just clicked

