#help-39
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is the answer I put in correct?
Looks good to me
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Let $m,n,x$ be positive integers, prove that [\sum_{i=1}^n \min (\lfloor \frac{x}{i} \rfloor , m) = \sum_{i=1}^m \min (\lfloor \frac{x}{i} \rfloor , n) ]
Copter
i think the way to do this is by counting? but im not sure how
could you elaborate what you mean by "counting"?
@north talon Has your question been resolved?
It’s clear if you use induction
On n
Prove that P(n,m) is true then P(n+1, m) is true. Since P(m,m) is true for any m you obtain all are true
$\sum_{i=1}^{m}(\text{min}([\frac{x}{i}], n+1)-\text{min}([\frac{x}{i}], n))=\text{min}([\frac{x}{n+1}], m)$ can be shown by direct calculation (discuss x/i value compared to n, n+1)
Cogwheels of the mind
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,, \frac{4}{x-1} \ge \frac{1}{2x-1}
Madhup
in this why cant we just multiply both sides by 2x-1
rather than transposing 1/2x-1 to LHS
because multiplying by a negative flips the sign
2x-1 isn't a negative?
2x - 1 < 0 for x < 1/2
sure it can be
Because you don't know if 2x-1 is positive or negative
Oh wait
Oh shit
it isn't valid for all values of x
if you multiply buy 2x - 1 then your solution is only valid for x > 1/2
oh
and you miss the full solution
you can consider these cases separately
yes
or
thanks
That's genius too
rather than doing case work
I also had one other doubt
ask away sir
While solving inequalities, why do we first plot the roots
<@&268886789983436800>
because they are the points at which the factors change sign
Tq :)
And my teacher also taught me that the signsof alternative intervals are opposite
But why does that not work when degree of a factor is more than 1
not sure what you mean by alternative intervals
like -infinity, 0 and 0,infinity
factors with even degree don't change sign
you're welcome sir
^
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how to do this
the critical points are going to be -2, 8, 2, 0, and 15 right?
yeah
prove this?
after that what do i have to do?
no find the solution set
yes
$(x + 2)^6$ and $x^{100}$ is already $\geq 0$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yes
so probably ignore that
but it'll still be a part of the critical points though right?
we will only care about the signs of $(x - 8)^5$, $(x - 2)^3$ and $(x - 15)^7$
aight
uh yeah
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
0 and 15 are unfortunately not the critical point
because then the denominator = 0
Yes
mhm
try to consider the sign of $(x - 2)^3$ first
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
if $x < 2$ then of course $(x - 2)^3$ is negative right?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
but what happens to other terms when $x < 2$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
specifically $(x - 8)^5$ and $(x - 15)^7$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
x-8 is also negative
yes
and x-15 too
cool
mhm
now since $(x - 8)^5$ is negative, $(x - 2)^3$ is negative, so the numerator is positive
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
and the denominator is negative
agreed
leading to the whole fraction $< 0$
so the function is negative?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
alr
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
mhm
of couse i don't talk about x = 2
now $x > 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
mhm
then we consider the signs of $(x - 8)^5$ now, what happens if $x < 8$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
its negative
and what happens to $(x - 2)^3$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
it can be positive
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so $(x - 2)^3$ is positive
yea
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so the numerator is negative
what happens to $(x - 15)^7$ btw?
denominator is also negative
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
cool
so it becomes positive?
so function > 0
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yes
wait what
now it's your turn to consider the signs of $(x - 15)^7$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
for now
so what happens if $8 < x < 15$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
here is when we consider the case of $x > 8$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
always positive
cool
so $8 < x < 15$ not in solution set
so function is -ve
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yes
now $x = 15$ is not satisfying the function
yeah
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so $x > 15$?
cause it would lead to indefinite form
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
function is +ve
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yeah
so to sum up, what's the solution set?
wait let me write the solution set
(- infinity, 0) group (0,8] group (15, infinity)
this?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
lemme check the answer in my book
it says that {-2} is also a solution
singleton set
oh yeah we forgot $(x + 2)^6$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
my bad
how is -2 lso a solution?
what's $(x + 2)^6$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
.
$(x + 2)^6 = 0$ when $x = -2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yes
and $(x + 2)^6$ is in the numerator
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yea
thanks man
so ${-2} \cap [2, 8] \cap (15, +\infty)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
wrong set symbol bro
also i accepted your friend request
but yeah
thanks
im not used to this ranges thing
i had to ask something related to how inequalities work
lol
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yeah im here
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I do not get part iii
like I cannot get an answer
@elfin geyser Has your question been resolved?
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3(c)
Forward direction first
I was thinking $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left( \sum_{k=0}^{n} a_kb_{n-k} \right) x^n=1$
wai
now the cofficients of all terms but the constant term should be 0
so $\sum_{n=0}^{0} \sum_{k=0}^{n} a_k b_{n-k} x^n=1$?
wai
wai
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when we divide by 0 the answer is infinite 0
I don't know why people say smt else like
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it isn't
bruv
Infinite 0?
You can explain why using field axioms ( the reals form a field)
maybe that's overkill , but it works
It is bruh if you understand division it is
division is just multiplying by an elements' multipliactive inverse
it can be shown 0 has NO multiplicative inverse in R
It is not
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For number 5 am I right to say every thing cancels out? And if so what would be the product
They do cancel out, sure
and do you have an idea of what the product would become? (if I gave you a fraction such as a/a, do you know what that becomes?)
1?
Kk ty!
How do I close the channel I forgot the command
(sorry I had to deal with the spambot
)
You just type .close 
But yep, it becomes 1 
Welp I got another question just went to check if this one is correct since I am not confident. And I don’t want to do the rest of the problems the wrong way and have to redo them alll
,rccw
hint: find the hypotenuse first
then use the ratio definition of each function
you don't need to know what theta is
(What they're asking you to do for that part of the question is to find all of these, you don't need to (and shouldn't) find the angle theta itself)
Sniped 

Wait I thought we where finding the angles
I’m confused 😭
I just don’t understand the wording of the text book
you want the values of the six functions
not theta
you were never asked to find theta
Wdym by the values
,rccw
Wdym by missing the theta?
remember, never give a pedantic examiner the chance to dock your marks
What’s that?
wdym what's that
basically, assume that your examiners are going to find every fault with you
(Someone who's a pain in the ass, who gets what you mean, but will still say "nah" because they can)
I don’t know what it is or at least don’t know the word for it
oh wait
I reread the message nvm
I am also confused on what I should be even doing here
,rccw
same concept as q5
draw your triangles, then use the ratio definitions of the trig functions to map the numerator and denom to two of the three sides of the triangle
then do your thing
once you get skilled enough, you can skip the drawing and just note that sin = opp/hyp, for instance, and then assign the lengths as such
So like this ?
,rccw
allie please rotate your images hahah
my neck is about to become a right triangle at this rate
yes that's the idea
thank you for your contribution mr oppenheimer
(a tiny comment, some of your handwriting here is a little bit hard to read, so it may be worth being a bit careful to make sure it's clear to everyone, lest you get that one mean person grading you
)
Pretty
QAIT
TPO
TYPO
sorry
handwritng on this server...
My phones on its last legs and it lagging a ton 😭
if that was a typo I'm kinda curious what you meant to type lol
Sorry
I think maybe it is because of the r and t being next to eachother
The keyboard has also been messed up since the new iOS 26
Is there anyway to break down the square root of 130? For example of you have the square root of fifty you can do the square root of 25 • 2 ( this could be wrong )
Try writing the prime factors of 130 @fading nexus
I don’t know the prime factors by heart 😭
are prime numbers the ones that can be divided by the same number?
Or multiplied
Like 3•3 = 9
No, they’re numbers who can only be divided by 1 and themselves
so the prime factors of 9 are 3 x 3, for 10, it would 2 x 5, and so on
Prime Numbers are those which can only be evenly divided by themselves and one.
Composite Numbers are those which are formed by the multiplication of prime numbers (which we usually call the prime factorization)
Ohhh ok
For this one I think I did the process correct but I do not know if I was allowed to use the given angle. Or if I should of found the other one that is touching both the hyp and opp side
nothing wrong here, except what is that symbol in the first line used in the argument of sine
a badly written theta 💀 I just wrote that for me to remeber what sin looks like
@fading nexus Has your question been resolved?
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In the attached image you will see the problem and attempts to solve. I am lost how to continue. Really do not get the bare concept of ‚variation of constants‘. My main question is how to use it and what it does. I have basic problems in understanding.
What's the problem here though?
Because, I mean, you've already answered the question in the image on the first line:
You might have forgotten to attach the question-part (b)
@rustic ice Has your question been resolved?
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Can someone help me figure out what formula I need to solve this problem?
I want to find the "opportunity cost" of 3 variables
Each variable can take a step, when they do, they increase
A increases by 10
B by 5
C by 2
I want to assign a "cost" value to each variable so I can find out, given 3 values, how many "steps" were taken.
Example:
A 100
B 25
C 8
steps:
A took 10
B 5
C 4
total 19
In this case I can just use the value of each step for this "opportunity cost", but if I wanted to add a $ cost of taking each step for each variable, I couldn't do that
sorry if this is confusing, I'm very confused too
@kind herald Has your question been resolved?
Can you state this more precisely?
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Does this residual plot not match well with the data because it has a curvature?
does this mean that the data should be x^2 or higher in the equation?
The residual plot matches well because about half the residuals are above 0, and about half the residuals are below 0
When analyzing residuals you want to look for even distribution and not too much clustering
it kind of shows non-linearity, but the dataset is too small to really judge correctly
ohhh I get it! Thank you :)
thanks for letting me know, i'll take note of both of your responses :)
btw how close to zero is considered generally accurate and whats too far?
Definitely like c2b7 said you'll notice if the points continued that way they would start going below 0 and never come back (non linearity), or if they oscillate around (also non linearity)
haha it's statistics so it's all up to looks
I actually am not sure what they taught us in our class
Maybe below 0.1ish
xD true
maybe 🤷♂️
im going ahead in my class so I can learn geometry
thank you both so much!
Good luck! any questions you can always come here 👍
!done
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I don't really get what $\mathcal{K}_{i}$ is
wai
it's the same thing as in part a but now you are considering all conjugacy classes at once
But aren't conjugacy classes defined wrt a certain element
wdym
conjugacy in G is an equivalence relation. you were able to deal with one single such class in part a. now all you're doing is looking at all of them partitioning G
you just aren't fixated on any specific representative for any class
Okay , so we just are looking at the set of conjugation calsses
well yes, the collection of all conjugacy classes is {mathcal K_i : i = 1,...,r}
I see
so K_i is essentially 1_R * ( sum of elemenent of mathcal{K}_i)$?
Technically, sum of (1_R times element of K_i)
I mean they are the same thing, no
by distrbutivity of rings
Your (sum of element of K_i) by definition is already my sum of (1_R times element of K_i), multiply by 1_R outside isn’t necessary
Sure
You mean (b)?
(Σx: x in K_i itself is only an abbreviation, it actually is Σ 1_R x: x in K_i, the latter is well defined)
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what is your question
I want my proof checked
ok go for it
Go for it
Chose $N$ such that $n,m≥N \implies \abs {a_n}< \varepsilon; \abs{a_m}< \varepsilon$.
\Then $\abs{s_m-s_n} = \abs{a_{n+1}-a_{n+2}+ \dots -a_{m}}≤ \abs{a_{n+1}+a_{n+3}+ \dots +a_{m-1}}+\abs{a_{n}+ \dots + a_{m}}< 2m \varepsilon$
wai
Is it not a problem that it depends on m ?
you havent used that the sequence is monotone
so your proof cannot be correct
(exercise: find an alternating series which diverges because the sequence is not monotone)
so basically a_n converging isn't enough
yes
(because that's what this proof implictly assumes)
I'll continue working on this
thanks
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Let m,n € N and m>n .
Show that there does not exist an injection from Nm into Nn.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
Okay, what did you assume for your contradiction?
Let there exists an injection from Nm into Nn
There was another theroem which might me helpful in proving this
If S is a finite set , and A is a proper subset of S . Then there is no bijection from S onto A
Where m >= n sure
Thats a nice theorem, but no bijection doesn't necessarily mean no injection
Let's think about this from the definition and try to gain an intuition
What's the definition of injection?
m>n
m>n yes* sorry
Injection means every element in domain has a unique image in codomain
i love the usage of the euro symbol for element of 😭
That means that for every element of the domain, how many elements of the codomain must there be?
One exactly
no
not in an occupied help channel
Yes, good
is Nm N^m
So if there's one element in the codomain for every element in the domain
And we started with m elements in the domain
Nm ={1,2,3,.....,m}
Subset of N
How many must be in the codomain
Yes
One common element in codomain for all..?
The element has to be unique since its injective, remember?
Wrong channel, sorry
So each one in the domain has a unique one in the codomain
There are m in the domain, there must be _ in the codomain
Yes so minimum no of elements in codomain should be equal to no of elements in domain
Sir , i respect your help
But actually these statements won't constitute a rigorous proof
Right, now we have to translate our intuition into a proof
We understand what we're doing and how we want to do it, so thats the last step
Let's just change all of our statements to math
Sure
You have the first part
Let there be an injection f from Nm to Nn, where m > n (feel free to write this as you please)
Now because f is an injection, for every a in Nm, f(a) in Nn is unique
Do you follow so far
Yes
Good
Therefore since there are m unique elements in Nm, there are at least m unique elements in Nn, because f(a) in Nn is unique for every a in Nm.
(There are many ways to write this, if you are familiar with image notation you could use that as well)
But m elements in Nn contradicts n < m, so f cannot exist 
Other ways to write this would be
f(Nm) is a subset of Nn
f(Nm) has m unique elements, so n >= m (because its a subset) - which gives us our contradiction
Great!
In general this is called the pigeonhole principle
I cannot fit m unique elements (pigeons) into n slots (holes) when n < m
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Too many pigeons for holes
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claim
I would think so
why
Actually now I wouldn't think so
Maybe a simpson's paradox but in any case even though C always happens with B there may be (a majority of) cases of C without B, such that the inequality is reversed in those other cases
add me
added
hmm..
makes sense
$P(B | A) = \frac{P(B \cap A)}{P(A)} > P(B | A^c) = \frac{P(B \cap A^c)}{P(A^c)}$
$P(C | B) = 1$
$P(C | A) = \frac{P(C \cap A)}{P(A)} = \frac{P(C \cap A)}{P(B \cap A)}\frac{P(B \cap A)}{P(A)} > \frac{P(C \cap A)}{P(B \cap A)}\frac{P(B \cap A^c)}{P(A^c)}$
Coolempire93
Inconclusive?
Applying the identity in the first line
hmm..
but we have counter
wait
but we had to compare cintersectiona/anot
idon't think if its the same
@shut elm
Right and that's the thing
Yeah
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Np
Prove that it's not necessarily true?
By contradiction naturally
We can easily produce such a dataset
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In the below question how do I plot the points and get the intervals on the number line after getting the critical points?
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,w plot \sin 3x - \cos 3x where 0<x<\pi
@solid torrent do you see a pattern here, particularly what is different is the increasing and decreasing regions
This is how I worked on it till now..
I do see a pattern and now the positive and negative interval makes sense.. but how am I supposed to solve this without plotting the sin3x-cos3x graph cuz i dont know how to plot it
Well the slope is positive for increasing intervals. Does this make sense? @solid torrent
Yes
It says strictly increasing and decreasing so the points are required where the slope changes
So I won't be able to solve this wo plotting this graph?
You can find the derivative
Yes alr
Observe the slope at the points where it is stagnant, ie peaks and troughs
These points lie in neither interval
I think you can attempt it now
No wait
Along the x axis the function is still decreasing
Or increasing
@solid torrent read the question again and retry this part
Again, look at the graph and observe the slopes
ts too advanced for me
Yes
Hint: ||How can one write an interval without its endpoints?||
When I see the graph I can see the increasing and decreasing interval.. but i have to do this question in exam and I wouldn't have any resource to check the graph for sin3x - cos3x.. so how do I do it then?
U want me to calculate the slope?
no need to plot just do a derivative sign chart
Yeah that's what I am explaining to OP
2.5?
😭
Think
Wait how
The change in y is 0 for a flatline
y2 -y1
So 1.5--1
Ohhh tht
Yeah tangent
Yeah the slope is zero there
So whenever the derivative is 0, it lies in neither interval
Understood tht
When derivative is positive, is it increasing/decreasing
Answer this
Yes
Decreasing
So is that positive or negative?
Positive
YEAH OK
Note that the derivative is defined as the rate of change so this makes sense
If velocity is positive for example, then the displacement must grow. Ignore if you don't get this, it's a physics example
I think you got it now
do the opposite for negative because yes
Could u please help
Well what I explained works without the graph
It's the same as a derivative sign chart
The Principle above like slope is 0 when it is neither is true for all functions @solid torrent
I gave the graph so you can understand better bc its your first time
Ty for that... I appreciate it.. but now I need something easy and fast for the answer
They ask me interval
And I need to provide intervals in the answer
when we said slope we meant the derivative
compute the derivative find where it is zero and then check whether the derivative is positive or negative in each interval
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how are the fibres additive cosets
I feel like I'm missing some intution
Ah this should have been one of the first things they showed
this is something you should know from group theory
Same lol
Think along the lines of $\phi(r + I) = \phi(r) + \phi(I) = \phi(r) + e_G = \phi(r)$ so the fiber of phi(r) is r+I
lemme see if I can recall it
Coolempire93
Put spoiler on that image
frankly you should even know it from linear algebra
I think the use of fibres is making me take time to process this
its like the first thing you prove about any homomorphism of any kind
Okay, yea, makes sense
What's your intuition of fibers
Or knowledge/definition I guess
That may be what holds you up
First time I'm using them extensively is today, so none
It's funny our book never even introduced them
They just introduced the inverse image and called it a day
the set of pre-images of a certain image
I did a control f for fiber and there was nothing 😂
Exactly yeah
In non math terms
The set of elements in $S$ such that $\phi(\text{element}) = \text{whatever}$
Coolempire93
Is the fiber of whatever
the idea that phi(something + (anything from kernel)) = phi(something) is fundamental
which is really just this fact in other words
(we can even reword the definition of kernel to be "fiber of the identity element")
The set of elements that map to identity
The nullspace
etc.
Hopefully that makes this clear
The set of elements that map to $r$
Coolempire93
the use of fibres tripped me 😭
Actually if you want my book does have a few find the fiber problems if you want to try them
I'll stick with D&F for now if that's fine
I got too excited 😆
I just remembered the professor put one on the test like find $\phi^-1(4)$ for $\phi(x) = x$, $\phi \colon \bZ \to \bZ_{20}$ and it annoyed me
Coolempire93
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how do I do partial fraction decomposition in this
you have a quadratic and a linear do you know how to deal with the quadratic?
no we haven't done integrals yet
😭
i'm a minor dw
but anyways
idk how to do partial fractions
go to paul’s online math notes then if you’ve never seen the topic
oh thanks this is such an interesting website imma check it out !
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Sorry but after looking at your bio I have to ask you to change it to something appropriate. Even if you're a minor and even if it's a joke, it's not a cool one
oh yeah sure ig i didn't think it through
thank you
IT'S A COOL PFP
ain’t no party like a diddy party
it' showing occupied
ohh alr
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if ther are 11 grades and to get minimum of 4,75 as average, how many grades can you get for 5 in a 1-6 grade system?
!xy would help @rocky crow
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assume there are n grades that get a 5 and assume the worst, that the remaining grades are a 1
so 11 - n get a 1
should be clear how to continue
😭
!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
Do you have a screenshot of the problem as originally worded? It's kinda hard to tell what you mean from this
Oh nvm I understand what you're asking here
Interesting
So as knief said, let's call the number of 5's n
and let's assume all the other grades are 1
so you'd get grades like 5, 5, 5, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1 for example
how would you calculate the average in that scenario?
@rocky crow Has your question been resolved?
ya
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@clear shore Has your question been resolved?
try pairing in summation
smallest of a series with largest of b
That would give the largest sum which is 1012^2, on the other hand the smallest sum is 1012. But I'm stuck here
i think you misunderstood me
when i said paring i meant pairing a1 with b1 a2 with b2 and so on
see it like this , take an element k in a set then we can have 2025-k in other one in that way the summation can be written as
k-(2025-k) which sinplifies to 2k-2025
now see to it that there is a mod
so instead og going for 1012 terms
we go for 2024
and then again we convert it into 1012 sum and multiply it by 2
I have hard time digest this, wdym by "in other one"
take a series which consists a1 a2 a3 and so on and similarly there is a b series
now i picked a number k from a series
and?
now for the question i pick number 2025-k
okay?
so summation of |ai-bi|
becomes |2k-2025| where k goes from 1 to 1012
but since there is a mod and a sign change occurs
i wrote it as 2*summation of -(2k-2025) where k is from 1 to 1012
You can't ensure that k and 2025-k paired together
you can
How?
previous conditions
How can we ensure that ai=k and bi=2025-k
Can you elaborate
they say the sequences are a permutation of S so we can say they a1....a1012,b1...b1012 contains each element of S once
yeah ik
then the previous condition says ascending and descending order, for any combination of 1012 elements there would be only one ascending and 1 descending order
yes
I'm not even sure if k and 2025-k would be in different sequence
they would be for 1 specific
@clear shore Has your question been resolved?
I think if you can show that switching two elements won’t change the result it’s solved, any such partition works, 2024C1012
I mean 2024 length sequence of 0, 1. j-th element is 0 when j is in A, is 1 when j is in B. I think we should try to prove that switching any adjacent 0 1 won’t change that sum of | |
I tried for smaller number, like 4 instead of 2024, it seems to be correct
like, switching ai with bj or just switching order of a pair in the sum by that I meant ai and bi
It involves some other elements too, so I am not sure how to proceed
Hmm, I'll try
They gave us 15min to do this problem btw, and it has taken 2 hours of my life so far
Oh
order doesn’t change this way
Adjacent 0 1 if this 0 is the p-th 0 from left, 1 is the q-th 1 from right
Swap this two 1 0, 0 is still the p-th from left and 1 is still the q-th from right
So simply |k-j|+|k+1-i|=|k-i|+|k+1-j| for any i, j that don’t equal k or k+1
|k-(i-1)|+|k-j|=|k-i|+|k-(j+1)| since (i, j+1) is just (i-1,j) shift right
(This 0 1 appear at k, k+1 . p-th 1 from right is at j, q-th 0 from left is at i)
For any 2n (your case 2024), the sum thus remains n^2, so done, binom(2n, n)
As long as k k+1 are inside [i, j] though, this part I haven’t guaranteed
Oh I have completed, say p<=q, then the position is of this relation: k k+1 i j
(j-k)+(i-k-1)=i+j-2k-1=(i-k-1)-(j-k)
Ig well we could ,cuz |k-j|=|j-k|, pair it with |j+1-k| if that's not the case
Oh wait
No
Turns out it’s always outside but I showed it’s still invariant
0 1 at k k+1, this 0 is p-th 0 from left, this 1 is the q-th 1 from right
q-th 0 from left is at i, p-th 1 from right is at j
Then
position relation when p<q:
k<k+1<i,j
position relation when p>q:
i,j<k<k+1
position relation when p=q:
j=k, i=k+1
Hmm, this's some kind of "invariable" problem isn't it
p>q: (j-k)+(i-k-1)=(i-k)+(j-k-1)
p<q: (k+1-i)+(k-j)=(k+1-j)+(k-i)
p=q: obviously 1=1 unchanged
Yeah. I guess we just need to find out the fact that it is invariant as soon as possible in a test
That's just a different way we use to choose k,i,j so that i<k<k+1<j doesn't happen isn't it
No. Case by case there isn’t such case
Only these
Sorry I was trying to do the problem my own after knowing that this's invariant kind of problem
I mean using this apporach that case can't happen right?
I'm going through your sol after tried it my own
Yeah. Can’t happen
Gimme a min to digest all of them
Okay cool
One question
How am I supposed to spot this's invariant problem?
Hmm okay yeah, I keep forget to try for small problem first
I just happened to notice some extreme cases 010101 , 000111, 111000, 101010 happen to have the same value, so guessed maybe it’s invariant
This's like the second time a invariant problem appeared on the test btw
and I have taken many, should take some time to learn it? I mean some technique
I don’t know. I have never trained myself for competitions. I guess, stay sharp? And see more examples
Thanks
for the help also 💙
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Np
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claim
Four of the eight vertices of a regular octagon are chosen at random. Then probability that these four vertices forms a square, equals
woah I love this problem…
anyway idk the factoid thingies, how far along are you
idk
how to start
perhaps, think of when a square is actually formed
idk
it’s ok I don’t rly care about it
well, have a play around and see if you can make a square
hmm.. i found 2
no
right
another way to rephrase this question is, what proportion of combinations of 4 vertices form a square
so perhaps, you can finish it off?
2/8C4
:)
supposedly in the same way, since you have the general idea, the problem becomes whether or not finding a square is possible and if so how
hmm.. gif [n/4]
I’m assuming you mean 4|n?
greatest integer function
I’m not sure what your notation means
oh I see
well, is it always possible?
how would you find a square for a pentagon
I thought you were asking solely about squares, this is your question 😂
I can’t tell you what you mean
btw what is this?
np, but you should know that the answer is different even in the case of an octagon in this case
4 divides n; n is divisible by 4
ok
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interesting question
Four of the eight vertices of a regular octagon are chosen at random. Find the probability that these four vertices forms a square.
seems like binomial expansion can just be done here with the probabilities
(same + not same)
(1/8 + 7/8)^4
to get (7/8)^4 chance it forms a square
1 out of 4096 cases is a point
28 out of 2096 cases is a line
294 is a triangle
nvm forgot to add the uhh
should be 7^4 + 4×7^3 cases?
P = number of successful outcomes of forming a square / total number of possible outcomes
find total number of possible outcomes with combinatorics
3773/4096
eh guys appreciate but it is solved
and for number of successful outcomes think logically, if you have an octagon, and you connected 4 vertices, in how many ways can you do it
just need to subtract all the cases where it isn't a square
but there's only 2 possible cases when it is a square lol and 70 total choosing any 4
why would you go the hard way
oh wait its a rectangle
for that
LMAO calculated rectangle
mb thats embarrassing
is the word quadrilateral
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In this property or theorem or something
We dont say that the restrictions of the binary operation * on G in H
Is equal to *?
In the end why they said * is binary operation on H
Its like they change the whole domain and codomain of * (as function definition of binary operation)
where did they say that?
that sentence just means "if two elements are in H implies the result from applying * is als in H, then H is closed under *"
ie the sentence after ie
it is just a verbal vs mathematical way of ohrasing it
strictly speaking the binary operation on $H$ is the restriction $!\mid_{H \times H}$ but by standard abuse of notation we denote it again by ∗
- is automatically associative (or commutative) on H
Is similar for me saying *is binary operation on H
anflo
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Hmm. If I define + to be an operation on R, (hint: it's the one you know and love),
then + is associative and commutative on Z, but is it a binary operation on Z?
Yeah
Its
Then if thats true
The restrictions of a binary operation * on G in H its equal to *
Then there RxR=ZxZ
And also R=Z
yes, we get a little bit lazy and instead of talking about $+\Z$ or $+\Q$ we just say $+$ and let context do the work for us
boughs of hayley 🪷
So this is an idiomatic expression?
i suppose in some sense yes, but it's normally unambiguous
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can anyone offer help by solving this lim using MVT?
mean value theorem?
do we need to use mvt somehow?
Cauchy’s MVT?
yes
i mean i just rather use it lol
can you go WITHOUT using it?
