#help-39
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AHHH
wait
can you teach me how to do just the first fraction
because i dont understand how to do it if theres multiple fraction in 1 fraction
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i have no idea what to do here
thats not quite right
is it
correct now but can be written simpler as (x^5 - x)/(x - 1)
and also we are given a function with degree 4
this is geometric sum
ohh i see
how it is written does not matter much since the idea is you clear the x - 1 anyway
true
spotting the geometric sum is just the most motivated way to do this
but we got an extra constant too
wait can we do
f(x)=(x^4+x^3+x^2+x-1) Q(x) + g(x) ?
if we put a b and c in this first term becomes 0
and we get f(a)=g(a)
Q(x) is some random function we get when we divide f(x) with x^4+x^3+x^2+x-1 and g(x) is just the remainder
this is essentially the idea
yes but idk how i can be sure that the remainder will be nothing else but g(x)
by finding Q
i would say yes
the problem presupposes g(1) has a unique value and certainly you have found a valid choice of g
as for whether or not this is actually true, 🤷♂️, but this is almost guaranteed the intended way of solving this problem
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Would the dimention of this not be n+1?
my book says the basis is ${x^{n-1},...,1}$ and i dont understand why it stops at n-1
BOSS
it defines it as the degree being "less than" n
Less than n
a basis is…
time for bed
Not the
yeah sorry
@wet osprey is it to think think of a basis as a genirator for the vector space?
It pretty much is yeah
it's a bit weird though because usually P_n denotes vector spaces of degree at most n
yeah I did the problem like this
didnt even notice the less then
@sharp vigil
Would the middle be enough to show subspaces
or do i need ot show it out more mathimatically
this is just practice btw not turning it in for anthing i just want feedback
sorry if its messy asf lmao
i would be a little careful of calling the zero vector "identity" since that makes me think of the identity function
Can you describe them
1 acts when scaler multiplication is there
Woah
so like it surves as an identity for scaler multiplication
Be very careful now
You’re claiming that we can multiply polynomials together in this vector space
no scaler multiplication
You called the scalar multiplication identity “the 1 polynomial”
What actually is the zero vector in F[x]?
the (scalar) multiplicative identity is a scalar whereas the additive identity is a vector
in abstract algebra terms, I know its an abelian group under scaler product
by definition
is the opperation just vector addition and scaler multiplication?
if so they kinda have different identities no?
like a ring maybe idk
They do
(this might be very wrong im just trying to understand)
But the scalar multiplicative identity comes from the multiplicative identity of the underlying field
The additive identity is something in the vector space V itself
ah ok
Here the zero vector is the polynomial p, where p sends every input to 0
ok so for subspaces
what exactly is the third condition, which identity am i checking for?
ie. p(x) = 0 for all x is a polynomial that lives in F[x]
for subspaces we require them to be nonempty
This guy is the zero vector in F[x]
No this one
the zero vector is a very convenient way of checking nonemptyness, because if it's nonempty but doesn't contain 0 then it's not closed
ie. p(x) = 0 for all x is a polynomial that lives in F[x] ok
okie wait
can i just say
0 vector and 1 vector
or are there better vocab
What the heck is a 1 vector
shflskajdg
The 0 vector makes sense sure
(1,1,1,1,1,1)
thought i was cooking
0 vector is a common term for additive identity
Now you need to specify a basis
Yes the • from the field has a multiplicative identity
yeah the mutliplicative identity for scalar mult is just the multiplicative identity for the field (this is one of the axioms)
And you use the same identity for the multiplication between scalars and vectors in the vector space
yeah
so waht im understanding is
the 1 comes from scalers and is not nesisiarly present in vectors
like ie there is not nessisarely an element $v \in V$ where \alpha v = \alpha
BOSS
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Yes, for F[x], the “1 vector” or “1 polynomial” that you called is actually just the 1 in F
well there is no such operation (a priori) as multiplying two vectors together to get a vector back
Which is, obviously not a vector, it lives in the field F
i mean the thing is
F[x] is also an integral domin
I don’t know what 𝛂v = 𝛂 means
so in this case
well there is also no such operation (inherently) that multiplies a scalar and a vector to get a scalar
What operation is between the 𝛂 and v
ur right
fuck
kinda cool tho
Cos scalar multiplication on V (a vector space over F) has the form • : F x V -> V
ok yeah
that makes more sense
i knew that too i just got a little too lost in discribing 1
however in this case
We do have a multiplicative identity because F[x] is an integral domain
however
that does not mean anything for vector spaces
you can multiply polynomials in this case yes, it just doesn't have anything to do with the vector space structure
ok cool
now in terms of abstract algebra
when they say vector spaces are an abelian group
what exactly is the opperation?
Oh dear how did we get to vector fields
vector addition
ok cool, and then scaler multiplcation just like
an added requirment for vector spaces?
yes, that's the added structure that makes them more than just abelian groups
Ok thats cool
alr tysm
I was just trying to figure out how to properly think of it in terms of abstract algebra
yall goated fr for dealing with my stupidity
tysm lwky feel a lot better lmao
alr im gonna try and finish this so i can understand maps between vector spaces
hopefully
At least you recognise what I mean when I say your words don’t make sense
tbf i didnt do lin alg yet and for some reason this just randomly popped up at the end of my abs alg class
i didnt know it would be required
but ive always wanted to learn it properly so
ill take the oppertunity
LA is really sick
yeah lwky ive been suffering because i havent taken it fully yet
i hadd a lin alg / diff eq class
where it was basicly all diff eq
and the next one is super proof based so ive been a little scared
One of my professor said that if you have a math problem and you can convert it into LA then you’ve pretty much solved it
i took real analysis before lin alg lmao
yee i took a class on optimization and its insane how much u can do
computationally
span and stuff and understanding the proper proffs behind it is smth i need to do tho
Shouldn’t be too hard if you can do abstract algebra
ill finish these exercises and come back if i got questions
im gonna take it next sem
lets see how it goes
we use axler so its fire
"mathematicians can do two things. linear algebra and reducing things to linear algebra"
that's why they spend like 80% of ode course on linear, because those are the ones we can do (and the linear algebra behind it is actually pretty cool when they bother to teach it)
@outer hare Has your question been resolved?
mine was
the exact opposite lmao
sadly
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is this talking about linear transformations?
yessirr
ok bet
i was trying to understand my class notes lmao
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what would be a basis for this subspace?
Here is my proof for it being a subspace:
for some $x,y \in \mathbb{R^3}$ lets define x_n as elements of x and y_n as elements of y
BOSS
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x_n in dollar signs
💀💀
BOSS
huh
^3 outside
yee but there is a 3 inside which looks cooler
it's trying to find mathbb of "^3"
BOSS
ah yes. the $\mathbb{^3}$-dimensional space
artemetra
fr
mathjax works slightly differently
ah
bro why is my ipad not lettting me copy paste
everything i have is broken
smh
ok so
@calm wing clearly this is a subspace
what would the basis be?
i dont think its just 3,-2,1
because then you can get like
3,-4,1
wait why does that work
any two linearly independent vectors span a plane
ngl im learning this through abs alg so idk much bout the physical spaces of lin alg
yeah i went the opposite route
not any 2 tho they have to be like lenth n right?
much more logical lmfao
no
any length works
(non zero obviously)
doesnt the basis always have to be a certain dimention
wdym
dimension can refer to s vouple of things here
yes
that equation is a plane equation
oh
bruh
lmfao
wait wdym plane equation why cant this be like
3 different vectors in x,y,z
when you learn about rank nullity and stuff about kernels and images you'll see why this has to be 2d
lmfaoooooooooooo im doing a problem with kernals right after
to hopefully understand homomorphisms more
if they are all linearly independent, two of them span a plane, and the third one lies outside of the plane
lwky im learning this right after rings
so thats kinda cool
from waht im understanding
groups -> rings -> vector spaces -> fields
interesting approach
in terms of struction
just what my book does
which book
no i meant the name 😭
lmfaoo
check dms @calm wing
oh also
thats the next question lmao
so i guess ill find out why its in 2d space now
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in this limit we separate 3 from 3/n because of $$
\lim (a \cdot f(x)) = a \cdot \lim (f(x))
$$ rule
Rony
but in this limit we dont, why
that goes to $\frac{3}{1 + 2 \cdot 0} = 3$
south
so we can separate it
wdym by separate?
yes
well the really important idea is that you can sub in 0 directly
you definitely need to check whether it's $\lim_{n \to \infty}$ or $\lim_{n \to 0}$
south
yeah i guess idk why im overcomplicating this
it's based on one of the algebraic limit theorems
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find y first
also this isn't your channel
make a new channel or else this one will close suddenly
How?
I’m kinda new
im finding if serie is convergent or divergent
sorry, I pinged you accidentally
oh ok
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Hi, I'm working on a tweak for a tabletop game, and my question is about PROBABILITY, which I know very little about, hopefully it's not too much game-language:
The game rules are currently system A:
**A) ** To hit someone with a blade, a dice roll (D20) is made to meet or exceed a target number, such as 15+. Here we know the chance of success without any modifiers on the roll is 25% (5/20). To poison someone in addition to hitting them, you make a second roll vs a second target number. Example. On a hit with a sword vs the enemys Armor Class (AC), roll another D20 vs their Constitution (CON) to see if they're Poisoned. Two rolls.
My idea was to change it to save time during play by using system B:
B) Instead of prompting another roll, we use the first result against both target numbers (sequentially). So in the example above, we would first roll to meet or exceed the AC (which would be a hit that deals damage), and then we check if the result also meets or surpasses the CON which would result in target being Poisoned. One roll.
My question is, how does the probability change by using B instead of A? Is it more or less likely for the extra effect to occur with the change, and by how much?
I appreciate any help, THX.
@viscid minnow Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
idk how many times im alowed to pong <@&286206848099549185>
So, to clarify you want to ask if the probability of rolling greater than 15 on one die is the same as two die?
The answer is no for that.
Probability with one die is 1/4 and with two dice is (1/4)^2 = 1/16
Three dice would be (1/4)^3, etc
Assuming fair dice ofc
Thanks for helping out! So I guess I'm curious as to how I approach this when moving forward. It's like onion layers right? We're not checking the second layer unless we meet the first. What if the second layer is higher? or Lower? Does it change anything?
like if we need to meet 15 for the first dice, and the second ~~score ~~target is 16, or vice versa?
Sorry, I'm not really following
No worries I'll try to clarify
So in your first message you assumed the target number was 15 for both targets, right? What happens when we roll one dice to meet 15, which is 1/4, and only if that succeds, we roll an additional dice to see for an extra effect. Only this time the target is higher or lower, let's say the target is 10 for the second effect. Would that be 1/4 * 1/2?
Ah okay, I'm following
So of you are looking for the probability that both die succeed, the answer is yes it would be 1/4*1/2
If you're looking for the probability that the second succeeds given the first succeeds it would just be 1/2
Assuming it's independent, which seems pretty fair
What do you mean by independent? In this case theres like a barrier, we dont check for poison unless the blade passes through the armor. So we never roll the second die unless the first one succeeds. I assume that means its not independent, and it would be 1/4*1/2?
I mean, in think case ita a bit tricky to understand. But it basically means that one dice roll doesn't affect the other. Say for example, you roll the second die every time no matter if the first succeeds and just disreguard the result. The result of the first die doesn't affect the result of the second.
I hope that makes sense. In this case, it's a pretty reasonable assumption
Ah yeah that makes sense, at least if the first has a higher difficulty than the latter. If the first one needs to meet 10, and the second 15, it’s different no?
Different how?
Generally the probabilities are arbitrary, you could swap them out for symbols like p and q.
The methods stay the same as far as I can think
I imagined that hitting 15 is easier than first having to hit 10, and then 15. Since if we roll 10 times, we first remove 50% of those that fail, and only from the 5 that succeed, we can get 1/4 that hits 15… wait i think you helped me solve the original question.
So if i change the ruling from this double roll, to just one roll that we check against both, its just:
vs 15/15 = 1/4 because its the same
vs 15/10 = 1/4 because anytime the first succeeds, the second automatically succeeds, which it doesnt in the original ruling.
vs 10/15 = here im confused still. We roll once, we have a 1/2 chance to hit 10, and a 1/4th to hit 15
Is it still arbitrary for the single roll (thats checked vs two targets) if the first target is lower than the second?
I think i get how the double roll is calculated now at least
Let me know if i lost you i can try reformulating
I mean, to be honest I can't fully grasp what you're trying to achieve, I thought I answered it before, but apparently not. I'd recommend learning or doing a bit of research on probability at the very least to get some of the terminology and notation down so you can be more precise in what you're asking (at least from a methematical perspective). I think then the answer should follow quite naturally. If you still have trouble after reformulating your question you can always ask again, but for now I think you just need to learn a little bit more which will help someone try to understand exactly what you're after.
Sorry, I hope that didn't come off as rude. I just genuinely think it would be helpful.
No worries, I will definitely try to learn some more fundamentals, I thought I had the basics down, and of course I have the game-terminology spinning around in my head at the same time as well so that probably doesn't help heh. In purely practical terms, I wanted to know if and by how much I would be changing the balance of the game by removing that extra step of rolling an additional die for bonus effects, and instead just using a single roll to succeed on both to save time.
I'll try to revise the basics and see if I grasp this whole issue better afterwards
You've definitely been helpful though, you did answer my question, I might have had more than one question in my head is all. Thank you for you time!
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How can to find value of A
You have the value for B and C, you need to use those to find A. You know that this holds for all x, so you can plug any value of x in that you like (that isn’t -1 or 1/2) and solve
Say, x = 0
That looks right to me
You can test it by trying it with different x values in an exam, or if you wanna check it quick pop it in desmos
im a bit perplexed do you not do partial fraction decomposition by expanding and comparing coefficients?
i havent actually done it but from what i've seen
In book it is showing comparing coefficient of x^2 but I don't know how to dp it
you expand the rhs
Yes
expand this
How
Yeh you can do it like that and solve the system that comes out, it’s personal preference
Expanding this will make it more complex
eh it's just a 3 variable system of simultaneous equations
thanks though!
easy check, plug your values of A B and C
I did but the answer is wrong
,w (-1/9)(x+1)(2x-1) + (4/3)(2x-1) + (2/9)(x+1)^2
It is wrong
can you elaborate? i think you mean
that they fractions are cleaner
you can write it as $-\frac{1}{9\left(x+1\right)}$
in essence it's the same thing
The answer is log(2x-1/x+1 ) -4/3(1/x+1)
i assume you're talking about the answer of the integral
Yes
you have to integrate your partial fractions now
your PARTIAL FRACTIONS are correct
Okk
are you sure?
i think you're missing something here
you'll see when you integrate
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If I'm finding the curve of intersection between z = sqrt(5-x^2-y^2) and z = 1, I get x^2+y^2=4, is this a cylinder or a circle?, because usually in 3D x^2+y^2=4 is a cylinder (by itself)
well you did say curve of intersection
a cylinder isn't so much a curve as it is a surface
so probably a circle
since you have also the equation z = 1
by itself x^2+y^2=4, what is it?
that's a cylinder yes
so when we put the two functions equal to each other, and get x^2+y^2=4, since it's by itself, wouldn't it be a cylinder? (before adding the z = 1 component)
which 2 functions are we talking about
so the two surfaces i listed
z = sqrt(5-x^2-y^2) and z = 1
saying z = sqrt(5-x^2-y^2) and z = 1 is different to saying x^2+y^2=4
the second gives no restriction on the value of z
when we put them equal to each other, and get x^2+y^2=4, wouldn't that be a cylinder unless you attach the z = 1?
it would yes
again, this is different
@lone nimbus Has your question been resolved?
You're essentially finding a level curve of the function z = f(x,y) = sqrt(5-x²-y²)
A level curve is a curve (not a surface) obtained when you compute f(x,y) = c for some constant c
You get x²+y²=4, which is a circle. Consider this as a slice when you cut the given surface horizontally at z=1. It's the locus of all points (x,y,z) lying on z=f(x,y) such that z=1, so it's not a cylinder
So the equation x^2+y^2=4 can represent a circle or a cylinder, and here it's a circle
Indeed. It's context dependent
is this similar to the 2D case? for example, if we have two lines that intersect, we have x = a being the x-coordinate of our point, here x^2+y^2=4 is the curve?
im trying to find the similarity
what would you call x^2+y^2=9? x was the x-coordinate of your point, here x^2+y^2=9 is the what?
I would implicitly assume it's a circle unless mentioned that it's a cylinder
I know it's a circle, but what would u call it? the curve of intersection?
I assume you mean that what if you took horizontal slices of the circle right?
Like in this case
You would get a level set
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For example, for x² +y² = 9, we have y = f(x) = sqrt(9-x²) (consider the upper semicircle for now)
For some f(x) = c, you would get a level set, for example f(x) = 0 gives {(-3,0),(3,0)}
Have a great day
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I dont know what to do or how to find G.
So the key is these angles are determined by the arcs they form
Notice how they both form (minor) arc EH
are you familiar with circle theorems?
perhaps something called the inscribed angle theorem?
@dusky basin Has your question been resolved?
ive heard of inscribed angles but no the inscribed angle theorem
an inscribed angle equals half the measure of its subtended arc
what is this theorem called in your class
Im not sure we have a name for it. I know it's something we've gone over though.
Yh, that last bullet point
A corollary (small follow-up) of that is that two inscribed angles from the same chord, on the same side of the chord, are equal
But I've already failed that question though. Could ya'll help me with this one
Taking H to be a centre, what do you know about HG and HF?
Wait if the triangle is 180 degrees and I take that point and then subtract 79 from 180.
180-79=101 n since theres 2 points missing i divide it by 2 in order to find the missing points?
Central Angle is 2 times more right?
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Let $f$ be an analytic function which has a Taylor series [ f(y)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{f^{(n)}(x)}{n!}(y-x)^n ] for $y\in \Omega$ where $\Omega$ is some neighbourhood of $x$. Replacing $y$ with $x+y$ so that $x+y\in\Omega$, [ f(x+y)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{f^{(n)}(x)}{n!}y^n=e^{y\dv{x}}f(x) ] where the exponential is opened as a formal power series: [ e^{y\dv{x}}:=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(y\dv{x}\right)^n}{n!}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{y^n}{n!}\dv{^n}{x^n} ] Thus, [ f(x+y)-f(x)=\left(e^{y\dv{x}}-1\right)f(x) ] and by inputting $y=1$ we get the equation [ \boxed{\Delta=e^{\dv{x}}-1} ] where $\Delta$ is the forward difference operator, given by [ (\Delta f)(x)=f(x+1)-f(x). ] Abusing notation, we can now write [ \boxed{\dv{x}=\log(1+\Delta)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n+1} \frac{\Delta^n}{n}} ]
kheer257
what is this and why does it work
how do you even talk of the convergence of series like this
define a relevant norm on the space
what would that look like in this context?
dunno. I would need to remember much more from functional analysis than I do
there's also more cursed stuff
where you take the e^{y d/dx} - 1 operator to the other side and then invoke the taylor series for x/(e^x-1) to get the Euler-Maclaurin formula
you only need that norm(d/dx) is a thing
and d/dx is a linear function on some function space
so you can get your operator norm
but there is a bit of a problem here as C^infty isnt a normed space iirc
so you have to fix that
hmm
but frankly open a book on functional analysis
this needs a few weeks of background
@inland ivy Has your question been resolved?
Taking the "inverse" of the $e^{\dv{x}}-1$ operator on both sides, we get [ \left(e^{\dv{x}}-1\right)^{-1}\Delta=1\implies \dv{x}\left(e^{\dv{x}}-1\right)^{-1}\Delta=\dv{x}. ] Note that the exponential generating function for the Bernoulli Numbers is given by [ \frac{t}{e^t-1} = \sum_{k=0}^\infty B_k\frac{t^k}{k!}, ] so once again abusing notation, [ \dv{x}\left(e^{\dv{x}}-1\right)^{-1}=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{B_k}{k!}\dv{^k}{x^k}. ] Thus, [ \left(\dv{x}\left(e^{\dv{x}}-1\right)^{-1}\Delta f\right)(x)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{B_k}{k!}\big(f^{(k)}(x+1)-f^{(k)}(x)\big)=f'(x). ] Replacing $f'(x)$ with $f(x)$ and treating $f^{(-1)}(x)$ as $\int f \dd{x}$, along with $B_0=1$ yields [ \int_x^{x+1} f(t)\dd{t} + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_k}{k!}\big(f^{(k-1)}(x+1)-f^{(k-1)}(x)\big)=f(x). ] Summing from $x=m$ to $x=n-1$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers, $$\begin{gathered} \sum_{x=m}^{n-1} \left(\int_x^{x+1} f(t) \dd{t} + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_k}{k!}\big(f^{(k-1)}(x+1)-f^{(k-1)}(x)\big)\right) = \sum_{x=m}^{n-1} f(x) \ \implies \int_m^n f(t) \dd{t} + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_k}{k!}\big(f^{(k-1)}(n)-f^{(k-1)}(m)\big)=\sum_{x=m}^{n-1} f(x) \end{gathered}$$ Truncating the infinite series at $k=p$ we get the Euler-Maclaurin Formula: [ \boxed{\sum_{k=m}^{n-1} f(k) - \int_m^n f(t) \dd{t} = \sum_{k=1}^p \frac{B_k}{k!} \big(f^{(k-1)}(n)-f^{(k-1)}(m)\big) + R_p} ] where the remainder term $R_p$ can usually be made small for large enough $p$.
kheer257
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I am trying to define a set S that contains all elements less than and coprime to n using set builder notation. I currently have written that S={n|gcd(n,x)=1, x e Z, x<n}, but the way I am using x here I don't think is correct. How could I write this set?
yeah you need x at the beginning not n
$S = {x : x \in \bZ, 1 \leq x < n, \gcd(x,n)=1}$ (presumably you don't want all the negatives?)
Ann
yeah I don't want negatives, nice catch
does the colon operate similar to a such that here?
I am very unfamiliar with set builder notation
: and | are the same thing in that context
ahh ok, thank you two very much :)
if you've got the divides symbol in there, which is a vertical bar, it's better to use a colon
for clarity
otherwise it's up to you
generally vertical bars appear much more often
: is a symbol thats basically never used
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is anyone familiar with spss software?
Please don't ask ur question in other help channels :)
oh ok i'm sorry I don't know how this works, I just need help really bad
I'm personally not but it might help people to give more info on the sw
whats the sw 
Short for software
@worn basalt Has your question been resolved?
ohh, its a statistics software
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anyone in y11?

!da2a
No need to ask “Can I ask…?” or “Does anyone know about…?”—it’s faster for everyone if you just ask your question! See https://dontasktoask.com/
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I'm stuck at this question for 2 days and I can't solve it....
@warm wraith Has your question been resolved?
Have you tried simplifying the left side too?
yes, I already tried both side but it didn't work
i would start by using cot^2 = csc^2 - 1 on the right side and simplifying
you should be able to turn the right hand side into the left hand side
or the other way around
@warm wraith Has your question been resolved?
have you tried using cot^2 = csc^2 - 1
i tried converting everything to sins and cosines and it got messy pretty quickly, instead just try to make the right side look like the left, so once you use the formula I gave earlier just distribute the sin^2 C into the brackets and see how you can make the two sides more similar
what is something you could do to get the right looking more like the left
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Someone explain
What will it be
Arctan??
,w derivative arctan(x)
know your derivatives sir
Tan inverse
arctan
We call it tan inverse
nah
@versed mica
🤔
you need to factor x^2-1 first before partial fractions
$x^2 + 1 = \frac{A}{x} + \frac{B}{x-1} + \frac{C}{x+1}$
knief
Oh a²-b² = (a+b)(a-b)
didn't you just ask this
lmao
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prove that BS=CS=IS
it should suffice to prove that IBS and ICS are isosceles
thats kinda the question but i dont know how to say it
I'd try some angle chasing
give those angles names and fill in as much angles as yo ucan
if i have IBS=ACB , does that mean A,I,S is on the same line ?
Is that not given information?
i dont see why it would?
also isnt A,I,S colinear by construction
the only thing that was given is BI,IC,IS is equal
hm?
arent you asked to figure out the fact that BI,IC,IS are equal?
i mean is true, but not given
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
...
i just think that i should try a different solution
but nvm
my teacher gonna solve it now
so
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ts pmo 🥀
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hello
how do i solve for x and y if 2 expressions are given
depends on the expressions
but theyre not equal to 0
so what
i mean its not given
but generally you can solve for one of the variables in one of the equations and then plug that into the other equation
ah
and
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Those 2 expressions dont provide any information about x or y whatsoever
if you're still stuck on that
so "solving for x and y" has no meaning
- Find the value(s) of x and y in the following, if they are consistent -
i. 4x-2y=3 and 3x-y=12
ii. 3x+5y-3 and 8x-3y+6
iii. 17y=3x and 2y=6
i copy pasted the question
okay now this is a meaningful question
ii subpart
are you sure these arent typos?
yes
They both have to be equal to 0 I think
but im not sure...
cause a1/a2 neq b1/b2
yes
they intersect and the way to find them is equating both I think
consistent
consistent
yes
You know the answer?
Yea ask your teacher
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Consider the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{(n+1)!}$. Find a formula for the partial sums $S_n$
Any hint pls?
Halex
Try to find a recurrence relation for n/(n+1)!
@midnight reef Has your question been resolved?
I got $S_n = 1 - \frac{1}{(n+1)!}$, is this true?
Halex
By telescope sum, right?
I got the same by just doing telescope sum
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Hi guys.
I know this seems simple, but here's what I wrote:
Since cos(pi/2) = 0 we go to -sin(pi/2) which is -1 therefore this is the first term and the next term will be the remainder ie
$\cos{(x)} = (-1)(x - \frac{\pi}{2}) + \left(\frac{-\cos{(c)}}{2!} (x - \frac{\pi}{2})^2 \right)$
Bete Puttigieg 🐢
where c is between pi/2 - x and pi/2.
However, the solution appears to have used the next nonzero derivative of cos evaluated at pi/2, so it used the third term as the remainder bit.
Is this common/what you are supposed to do?
@normal sigil Has your question been resolved?
@normal sigil Has your question been resolved?
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Find all values of $x$ for which $2^x<8$
What a wonderful world !
This is from spivak, chapter 1, so I'll have to prove this , can't use logs
( I think?)
I think we can't use logs
It's not explicitly mentioned, but I suppose we can't.
I'll do this axiomatically
I think you should just be good to use $2^a < 2^b \iff a < b$
@ruby cargo
$\forall a, b \in \bR$ ofc
@ruby cargo
We start by stating the following conventions:
$2^{x} = \underbrace{2 \cdot 2 \cdots \cdot 2}{\text{x times}}$,
$2^{-x} = \underbrace{\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdots \cdot \frac{1}{2}}{\text{x times}}$
$2^{x} \cdot \frac{1}{2} < 8 \cdot \frac{1}{2}$
if $a < b$ and $c$ is positive, then $ac < bc$
$(2^{x} \cdot \frac{1}{2}) \cdot \frac{1}{2} < 8 \cdot (\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2})$
if $a < b$ and $c$ is positive,then $ac < bc$
$(2^{x} \cdot \frac{1}{2}) \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} < 8 \cdot (\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2}) \cdot \frac{1}{2}$
if $a < b$ and $c$ is positive, then $ac < bc$
We then have $2^{x - 3} < 1$
hmm
Is this just for integers?
for now, yea
What a wonderful world !
You can also say, $2^a < 2^b \implies \exists c \in \bN \text{ s.t. } 2^a \cdot 2^c = 2^b \implies 2^{a + c} = 2^b \implies a + c = b \implies a > b$
@ruby cargo
Yea
And that includes logs to prove I think
$2^a \cdot 2^b = 2^{a + b}$ in particular
@ruby cargo
Actually if a and b are natural then logs aren't necessary
Not really, because we're just comparing inputs by the virtue of the fact that $2^x$ is a bijection
@ruby cargo
You can do this for any bijection, without requiring the inverse
This definition will only give you x ∈ ℕ
Or ℤ
yea, I know
Yea that's what they need rn
what do I do now is the question
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help
i do not know how to continue solving this problem
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well you gotta do the derivative of y=-ln(x+2) right?
yeah i got -1/x+2
i don't understand why the max value of c is is a f(0) the intercept of the actual graph
what if there is another point on the graph where the tangent line intercepts the y axis at a higher point than the yint of the graph?
hmm I am not sure\
I mean
y=mx+b, thus y=-x/(x+2)+b
y=-ln(x+2)
-ln(x+2)=-x/(x+2)+b
b=x/(x+2)-ln(x+2)
b=1-(2/(x+2)+ln(x+2))
so we need to find when 2/(x+2)+ln(x+2) is minimized
maybe take another derivative of that?
this should solve it, but it is not very efficient, anyone got other ideas?
mm that's a bit much this is a one mark question
it's not possible to get a higher value
if it's higher then the line wouldn't be a tangent line
bruh
yall fr
the graph is downwards
so minimum c is when x is =
0
c ranges from -infinity to 0
0 isnt even one of the options dawg
x=0 bro
that means -ln(0+2)
=-ln2
which is the answer ;-;
this is the most common sensical question
idk if that word even exists
but u get it
this is the best answer
but visualization is op
just see how tangents move
@little grove Has your question been resolved?
idk why its not clicking for me
do you mean maximum?
i think i'll come back to this question another time because right now it's not making sense idk why it looks pretty straight forward
bro is not slick 🥀
i wasn't trying to be
didnt they solve in methods
sometimes one explaination just clicks for me rather than another
but idk i'm not getting it
lemme get my cas
im going to close the channel cause i need to do other work, but if you want you can send in dms so i can look at it later
I might be able to help.
@little grove Has your question been resolved?
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Why is $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-2} + \sqrt{-3})$ a feild extention of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-2})$
BOSS
Im new to extention fields
My book explained it through linear combinations, which i did not understand
didnt we just talk about this?
the word linear combination doesnt matter
fields are closed under addition and multiplication
what is under the radicals there
negative numbers or positive?
if you subtract sqrt2+sqrt3 from sqrt3-sqrt2 you get what?
I was told to go back and learn vector spaces more and i did
oh this was a mistake it should be positive
-2\sqrt2?
why
.
sqrt3-sqrt2=1/(sqrt2+sqrt3)
and thereforr also in the field
sorry
yeah ok so it has multiplicative inverces
so we showed that
-2\sqrt2 is in the field
cool
.
-2 is in Q
yeah just realized
we get sqrt 2
so that means
Ok let me undertand this fully
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)$ is the smallest field with $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\sqrt2$
BOSS
right?
yes
Then $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2 + \sqrt3)$ is the smallest field with $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\sqrt2+\sqrt3$
BOSS
We want to show that this is an extention field
so we have to show that it also cotains $\sqrt2$ as $\mathbb{Q}$ is given
BOSS
yea
BOSS
we know it has the multiplicative inverce $\sqrt3 - \sqrt2$
BOSS
then $\sqrt2+\sqrt3 - (\sqrt3 - \sqrt2) = 2\sqrt2$
BOSS
idk where the negitive came from last time
cause I said it the other way around
anyway, 2 is in the rationals so we can just devide by two and get \sqrt2 meaning it contains it and thus contains F
ah any reason
no
Ok
ok wait so
with the same logic
can i not just show $\sqrt a + \sqrt b \in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt a)(\sqrt b)$
BOSS
yes

@tropic saddle idk why i was so scared of this
thanks for going through it slowly lmao
for the record, writing it in one equation we have 1/2(sqrt2+sqrt3)-1/2(sqrt3-sqrt2)=sqrt2
ok so in the other direction I just have to show $\sqrt a$ and $\sqrt b$ are in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt a + \sqrt b)$$
BOSS
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thats a linear combination of sqrt2+sqrt3 and sqrt3-sqrt2
wait is it 1/2 or 1/the entire first part
1/2
oh yeah ur jsut reqriting what we did
why does that work
otherwise I would have written 1/(2(...))
are they generaters for the set or something?
wdym work
or just the way its explained
like why is it important to explain it that way thater then just showing how we got it
yk
thats just something called a linear combination
No i get that
the author just never used lin alg verbage befroe this
ok
until now
we used it for like
ideals with multiple genirators
which is why i asked
something like this
its always the same idea, yes
in linear algebra speak, they are two linearly independent vectors over Q
and all field extensions are vector spaces over the subfield
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)$ are scalers
BOSS
over the vector space $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2+\sqrt3)$
BOSS
ok so they were just showing
ok yes over that space
taht u can write it as a combination of two factors

I learned lin alg just for this btw
so
its like whatever my book covered
you should learn lin algebra anyway
its the single most important class in math