#help-39
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ok wtv i'll explain
now let's say for example in a different scenario, you start at the origin again and this time move right with a positive velocity
youre still moving away from the origin
HOWEVER
lets go back to this
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you moved left first
then after you moved left for some time, now you decide to move right with a positive velocity
now because youre on the left of the origin and now moving right, youre moving TOWARDS the origin
YOU -------> origin
EVENTUALLY you will reach the origin again
if you CONTINUE at your positive velocity
you will CROSS the origin and now start moving away from it
origin -------> you
therefore now even though your velocity is positive you're moving AWAY relative to the origin
so for part d, it's asking when does the particle start from the origin, move left, stop, then move right and reach the origin again. it's asking for when is the NEGATIVE DISPLACEMENT EQUAL TO THE POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT
we know the displacement is the area under the curve
we can see by congruency that the negative right triangle is the same as the positive right triangle
you moved left 9 metres till time = 3
then you stopped
then you moved right
for 3 more seconds
and find the area
youll see you moved right 9 metres again
so basically at the end of the line
you reached the start again
left 9
right 9
overall 0
applying this same logic can you now solve f and G
So what was the answer for d?
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why do people complain about in depth explanations that focus on building concept rather than giving a solution
I'm not complaining.
Very detailed. I like it.
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Stuck with this
Yep now split and solvd
are you asking me to solve
Lol i thought it was wd _nesumo
yeah
how do i join a live
Shouldn't then this be the result?
A what
a group
This entire server already is one
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how do i prove that cos 70 + sin 40 = cos10
,w cos(70 degrees) + sin(40 degrees) - cos(10 degrees)
write cos 70 as sin 20 and use the sum to product formula
how do yk that cos 70 is sin 20?
cos x = sin (90 - x)
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Can somebody explain how to get angle 31 ?
@unborn quarry Has your question been resolved?
@unborn quarry Has your question been resolved?
Use the dot product
,w arccos(10/(sqrt(68*2)) in degrees

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this is my task
this is the suggested solution
this is my solution
wait nvm i see my mistake
i can't just ignore 1/(x^2+y^2), can i?
i guess it's because i don't take into account 1/(x^2+y^2) when i dot product with the derivative of the parametrization
but i don't entirely understand why my method doesn't work, given that x^2+y^2=a^2 for the entire integral
oh i see a typo
fuck
it should be (-a sin theta, a cos theta) injstead of (a cos theta, a sin theta)
yeah it works out like this
awesome
thanks everyone (the voices)

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number of ordered pairs (a,b) such that gcd(a,b) = 6 and lcm(a,b) = 24 ?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2
how to approach this problem?
<@&286206848099549185>
anyone here
do you know this thing:
if we take a = dx, b = dy
where gcd(x, y) = 1
gcd(a, b) = d and lcm(x, y) = dxy
??
gcd(x,y) = 1
yes
so d = 1?
no
sorry, i meant: d is (a and b's highest common divisor)
hence, gcd(a, d) = d
what u mean by d is a
d is the greatest common divisor of a and b
and a and b are co primes?
no, a and b are any 2 numbers given in the question
x and y are the co primes we considered
a = dx and b = dy
didn't understand
let's start from scratch
so, take 2 co-primes x and y
such that a = dx and b = dy
why
for example, if a = 16 and b = 12
a = 4×4
b = 4×3
here, x and y would be 4 and 3
just wait and see
alr
yes
and d would be 4, right?
yes
the common multiple
yes
it's also the greatest common multiple
yes
greatest common multiple is same as greatest common divisor?
now, coming to lcm,
yes?
cause 4 is the greatest number that is a divisor of both 12 and 16
no other number greater than 4 can do the job
alr
what method did they use to teach you to find the lcm and hcf of 2 numbers in general?
do u know the one where you write 2 numbers beside each other
prime factorization
and if hcf look out for common factors of lowest power
and if lcm look out for all factors of highest power
do u know this method?
common factors
2 is common factor
3 is a common factor (twice)
2x3x3 is lcm them
yes
common factors are lcm?
yes
so, 2x3x3 is the gcd?
i do
and lcm is 2x3x3x1x3 which is the same as (2x3x3) x (1x3) = d x (1x3) = dxy
there, 1 and 3 are the remaining co-primes
18 = 2x3x3 = 2 x 3^2 54 = 2x2x3x3 = 2^2 x 3^2 lcm (18,54) = 3^2 x 2^2 = 9x4 = 36 hcf (18,54) = 2 x 3^2 = 2x9 = 18
i do this ^
very shit concept
idk why even that works?
18 = 2×3×3×1 = 2×3²
54 = 2×3×3×3 = 2×3³
so, the common prime factors are 2, 3 and 3
yes
that is the same as what is done here
hm
selecting the lowest power is the same as picking the 3s that are common and leaving the others
oh
that is how gcd works
got it
both of what???
first, starting with the definition of a multiple
a and b
let's do this first
a multiple of a number "x" can be divided by "x" right?
yes
so if we want a common multiple, of a and b, it should be divisible by both a and b
yes
and the smallest one of them is called the lcm
yes
coming back to this,
remember how you take the higher power for lcm?
isn't it the same as first taking the lower power, then adding the 3s and other numbers you left out?
Yes
??
u wanna say that\
take
2x3^2 + 3
21
Im taking rest i think my mind is not working now
ill ask u later this on dm ig
Okay
@inland laurel Has your question been resolved?
Yes
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anyone?
@stiff mauve what have you tried?
do you know the definition of conditional expectation?
i genuinely have no idea how to start
yeah
honestly your notation is tripping me up a bit
maybe start with that then and see what happens
is E(Y|x) = E(Y| X = x)?
f(Y | X = x) = f(Y, X = x) / f( X = x) right
yeah
right then expand with that
uh
It will be $x = \sum_y yP(Y = y | X = x)$
dyxn
but like i've never seen the notation Y|x ~ POI(x)
isnt poission and expontenial, continuous distributions
Poisson is discrete 
yeah sorry man I just don't get the notation here, you should ask your teacher, wait for someone else, or maybe post it in #probability-statistics
okay thank u for your time
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So I did this question and I got it wrong
because I thought only the first line equation would use the negative reciprocal as the gradient
could someone explain to me why both of them use the neg reciprocal?
How do you mean here?
(could you maybe show how you did it?)
Assumedly you're setting x = 4 here - how comes you have sqrt{8}?
It does happen 
Other than that, I'm mostly happy with what you've done, a small comment here (though noting that you may not have intended to show anyone this!), be careful not to set y equal to the gradient here 
oh yeah
What i was originally wondering tho was
why have they used the neg reiciprocal for the curve
I thought it was only for the line
As in this bit here?
ye
If so, they're noting the fact that your normal gradient is -1/(dy/dx), so you can get an equation that way as well
The more "natural" (imo) way would be to get the tangent gradient via the normal and go about it like that, but they wanna give you as many ways to do it, hence the oe (or equivalent)
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anyone have any ideas? i dont know where to start
i found a solution but it's rather involved
im not sure if there's something simpler
the idea is to split into two cases
case 1: for every point in M, there exists an open ball around M containing no other points
case 2: for some point in M, there are other points in any open ball around M
use hausdorff?
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How do I solve this frq? I'm just genuinly confused on where to even begin. I know I can use integral from a to b of 1/2 r^2 dtheta but besides that I have no idea
a) you need to find for what values of theta does the curve cross back over itself. then you can integrate between these values
find the largest value of r
like the critical point?
It might help if you instead, plot a graph of r vs theta
(instead of plotting on the cartesian grid)
what do you mean by "critical point"?
when dr/dtheta = 0 I think
yes
when dr/dt = 0, the graph will be flat, and r will be a local maxima or minima
(unless it's a saddle point, but there are none here)
so all I have to do is just solve for when dr/dtheta is 0? (is it dr/dtheta or dr/dt)
pretty much
you'll get two solutions between 0 and 3/2pi, only one of which will be a local maxima
(see the green plot)
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How do I find an equation of a reflected line given an equation y=mx+c reflection line y=2*x?
@worn turret Has your question been resolved?
what have you done so far?
not sure how I can get the equation of the reflected line
you want a transformation that you apply to the thing you are reflecting
and you are given a transformation
remember, matrices are just systems of equations
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Are factor groups just the collection of left cosets of a normal subgroup (strictly the set, i understand the opperation is coset multiplication)?
like for G\H, H being normal, say |H| = d, then G\H is just H,dH, 2dH, etc etc until d-1
yes, we also call them quotient group
ok so like
we know SL is normal in GL right
so the cosets would just be
det(1), det(2), etc etc
det(1) being id
If G is a Group and H is a subgroup then
G\H has cosets as elements gH for all g in G
If H is a normal subgroup then G\H is actually a group if you define the operation as
gH * hH = (gh) * H (yes this product is well defined one has to check that)
got u
so quotent groups only work with normal subgroups
because thats needed for the opperation to work
yes otherwise you cant define the product this way
or the operation is not well defined
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Can I get some help on this?
Just wanna make sure I’m going in the right direction
I just got to this trig stuff, and I’m kinda stuck
going good
Is this good?
looks correct got close enough answers when chekcing
@charred tinsel Has your question been resolved?
I have one more
ok
Please check my work so far. Did I do ok with my formula?
yeah going ok,
my brain was a little off forgot about the -2ab when I was calculating
This specifically applies to Law of Cosines when solving for interior angles right?
yeah but you can just find 1 angle then use sine rule for the rest
I feel that approach is eaiser for me
can u elaborate?
like you found 31 as one of the angles you can continue finding the other angles using the sine rule (becuase you have 2 known sides and an angle)
Got it. I'll leave now. Thanks for the help.
How do you leave btw?
type .close
.close
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<@&268886789983436800> scam
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I've got a geometry problem I just have no idea how to solve:
I'm given a triangle ABC with two cevians AF and BE, where point F divides line BC into segments BF:FC with the ratio of 3:2 and point E divides line AC into segments AE:EC with the ratio of 6:2.5. These cevians intersect at point K. (image of figure attached) The task asks for me to find the ratio of AK:KF.
Due to my country's (frustatingly) limited curriculum, I likely can't use mass points as a method of solving the problem as we weren't taught it. Ceva's theorem is also off-limits for the same reason.
The effort of trying to prove that the cevians are perpendicular wasn't fruitful because I'm pretty sure I lack info. I tried to draw a line parallel to cevian AF so that it touches point B, but for whatever reason I can't come to the conclusion that the line segment BK would be perpendicular to both of these parallel lines (figure 2). I didn't find any successful application of the right angles despite failing to recognize that fact in my previous tries (law of sines, Pythagoras's theorem and trigonometric ratios all don't work due to insufficient info or useless results).
Drawing other lines to create new shapes, such as a parallelogram with BE and EC as its sides, also hasn't harnessed any useful info. Trying to prove that triangle ABC is a right triangle also failed because the perpendicular bisectors of the triangle meet outside the triangle (figure 3, tried my best).
I do know that, according to my textbook, the right answer should be 4:1.
I'm likely missing an obvious step or two, so any pointers would be appreciated.
try this: since BCA can be anything/its not related to the ratios and the way the question was setup, the answer should be constant for whatever triangle ABC that fits the ratio criteria, assume BCA is an ideal angle such as 90 degrees and continuing it shouldnt be too hard
@brave portal Has your question been resolved?
ill try this
.close
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if i plug the formula on wolfram alpha it wont work, where is the mistake in my calculations... (day 3 of asking for this)
whats the question
@craggy lark
Have you heard of “integration by parts”?
can u post that
bro i was looking for a new representation of the gamma function
if you ibp you get (x)!
it should be xdu in after the first u sub
and then I have no idea about the rest
@craggy lark Has your question been resolved?
x!=gamma(x+1)=xgamma(x)
then simplified the x you are left with just gamma(x)
ah mb, missed that you switched from x! to gamma(x)
dwdw
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what happened here
cot(x) = 1/tan(x)
Get closer to 0?
Basically what x is at n = infinity
If it converges, that means that when n is infinity, x is a defined number (meaning it isn’t undefined or also infinity)
wait
Since when n is infinity, x converges to a, that means that at really large values of n, the x’es are really close to each other
oh okay
kinda got it
So we can set x _ n and x_n+1 as the same number
And after that, we can just solve what x_n is
And that equation gives us 3x_n = cot(x_n/2)
For when n approaches infinity
u know alpha is the point x such that cot(x/2)-3x = 0
u understand that right?
its what u did in part a
let me understand what converges is again
it is when the number is definded right?
oh yea
such that at x=alpha we have a root e.g = 0
converging is that as you go to infinity you reach a specific point/number
diverges means as you go to infinity you go to infinity
oh so we rearranged to equation
now lets suppose that the iteration formula converges
and to be converged it must equal the alpha thingy
that means x_n+1 and x_n is gonna be the same (as n->infinity) lets call that point L
when you do the algebra
For example, in the geometry equation 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8… if it goes on infinitely we eventually reach 0, so we say it converges to 0
oh
yea cambridge is a bitch
cambridge international a levels?
yea
ik their system is better as well
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does my answer look good?
how do you treat sups if (M) is unbounded
peanutbutter
would you say (\sup M = \infty)?
peanutbutter
and why does a smallest x exist with that property
that's way stronger than you need
you know that if (\alpha = \sup M), then (M\cap (\alpha - 1/n, \alpha]\neq \emptyset) since (\alpha) is the least upper bound
peanutbutter
or said another way, you know that (\alpha - 1/n) is not an upper bound of (M)
peanutbutter
so there is an (a_n\in M) with (\alpha - 1/n \le a_n \le \alpha)
peanutbutter
also, it looks like you are trying to define a_n to be a set
a_n = {x with some property}
and how do you know that it converges to the sup
i think you'd probably be expected to check
an example where an (x) like yours doesn't exist is when you have something like (M = (99/100,1)) and you take ``the smallest'' (x) such that (x\in (1/2,1]\cap M = (99/100,1))
peanutbutter
@calm wing Has your question been resolved?
sorry notational quirk, ignore the { }
i want every a_n to be the smallest x such that x > sup M - 1/n
that's sorta what i am going for tho
(this doesn't necessarily exist)
why not
i can find you an x from that set given an epsilon nvm
if we drop the "smallest" condition will my thing work then
Yeah
alright i was also uncertain about that part lol
Although can you prove that the sequence converges to the sup
yes
when you proof the limit it basically becomes this
so by squeeze thm it would be the supremum
i'll treat the infinite case separately
shouldn't the left inequality be strict?
it should
hmm
i am not sure about that one
$a_n = \inf (M \cap [n, +\infty))$
artemetra
idk if i can use inf tho
@urban coral sorry for the ping but is there a way to avoid using inf?
acutally i don't have to use inf
i can just pick any element
can't you just use the Archimedean property
it doesn't really matter
if (\sup M = \infty), then for every (n), there is an (a_n\in M) such that (a_n \ge n)
peanutbutter
@calm wing Has your question been resolved?
yes, ive resolved it.
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What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
2
took e^iA = a
e^iC = c
e^iB = b
then got determinant
(abc)(1)(1)
(1) (abc) (1)
(1) (1) (abc)
not able to simplify
then i tried taking angles eg A = pi/2
B= pi/3
C = pi/6
didnt work
[ping dealt with]
hm?
there was a scoundrel while you were away
oh
there you go
oh huh
I mean if A + B + C = 180 which = pi
So my gut says it’s -1
And call it a day
also if you consider a straight line a triangle... A = B = 0, C = pi
PFFT
🙏
how can u consider st line a triangle? but let me try that
Trust me, I’m good at multiple choice PFFT
abstraction?
the only property that defines a triangle in this universe is the sum of the angles
OH
,w det{{1, -1, 1}, {-1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1}}
peanutbutter
I was close enough 😔
ah did you just brute force open it?
@rustic tendonlove u
i just put it into chatgpt
-1 and -4 doesn’t look much different
i wasn't calculating it
Work smarter not harder
you know, i think you might be onto something
no, you're definitely not
that's why sub 0, 0, pi
I think I’m on something actually
JOKING ofc
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I want to show that the set of negative integers are unbounded below. So I know the set of positive integera are unbounded above. So I can multiply the set of positive by -1 which creates the set of negative integers. So by multiplying by negative one all I am doing is flipping the direction. So the amount of elements is the same but now it starts from -1 and goes down by -1. Which shows it is unbounded below. But I feel like this is not a strict proof
are you working with supremums and infimums?
Yes
But how can you apply those concepts to this?
Do you have access to the axiom of completeness?
One second let me check
Ye but how can you interaate theoguht the elements of the set of negative numbers like positive numbers
What?
Like positive numbers are inductive set so I can say it is bounded then say there is n+1 so there is a contradiction
just do n - 1 here
Ye but how do we know n-1 exists in the set of negative integers
The only reason we knew n+1 existed in positive integera was because it was an inductive set
if n is an integer then n - 1 is also an integer 
I assumed you already had some sort of construction for Z^-
what if you just did -(|n| + 1) then?
Wdym by that?
you can iterate over |n| right?
Are those absoule value signs?
yeah
So your saying it doesn't matter if it is an inductive set?
i don't think so
Wait what says that n-1 exists in the set of integers?
closure? 😭
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i know that the value of f(x) is a maximum at 6
but how do i find the actual value
plug it in
into where
into f(x)
i dont see the equation for f(x)
so i just start counting the blocks?
You just find the highest point and compare to Oy because it says maximum value? Nvm it's f'(x) 😭mb
there is an easier way
how so
remember what f'(x) means
ok i get what f'x but not sure how im supposed to use it to evaluate
f(x+1)=f(x)+f'(x)
this comes from f'(x)=f(x+1)-f(x)
is this like a formula
also im still confused because i dont have f(x)
you have f(2)
and you have f'(2)
so you can find f(3)
remember what f'(x) means
i got 110 as my approximation
sounds about right
but i still dont get how you get f(x+1)=f(x)+f'(x)
the value of the function + the slope gets you the next y value?
y=x^2
f(1) + f'(1) = 3
f(2) = 4
do you know the defintion of f'(x)?
$f'(x)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$
Bonk
generally, we let h go to 0
to get the proper value
but we can approximate it by choosing a small h
for example, h = 1
then you get...?
f(x+1)-f(x)
here you take steps of size 1
but you can also take steps of size 2
or size 1/4
etc
how would i think of that using my informal way
using h=1 here
the smaller your h gets
the better your approximation gets
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yup 🙂
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why are they saying t_(r+1)th term? if for example I want to find the x^2 term of (2+x)^4, my n = 4, p = 2, q = x, and r = 2 to get the right ans of 24x^2
or is it still techincally the same cuz there is a 0 term?
idk
how am i supposed to be interpreting this
would x^2 term be T_3? so r = 2? idk
I'm assuming that they're basing the terms off of increasing powers of q
So the first term would have q^0
the second term would have q^1
and so on
Ex. (p+q)^4 = p^4 q^0 + 4p^3 q+6p^2 q^2+4pq^3+q^4
Here, we're considering p^4 q^0 to be our first term, 4p^3 q to be our second term, etc.
@orchid token
oh so the third term in the expansion has the x^2 power?
mhm
oh kk
its not intuitive to number it this way
right cuz (a+ b)^3 has 4 terms
either way you'd use r for the power you want
oh kk
so i can js think of it like if i want to find the x^2 term in a sequence to just set r = 2
so r is the power i want
and n is the the power of the binomial
yeh
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Im so lost, tried using ai and that confused me even more
what is the goal
to simplify them?
If this is simplifying. to eventually solve the code
what have you done
Ignore the circled part. Thats level 1 (this is all ai btw)
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
what is confusing you
Everything 😂
okay focus on the 10s, keep them separate
and then multiply out the decimals
or their respective property
ex, for R, (4 * 10^4)/(3.63 * 10^-4)
= 4/3.63 * (10^4)/(10^-4)
~1.1 * 10^8
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Would you like us to just admire your handwriting? (it is really good
)
(or do you have a question you wanted to ask us?
)
Omg thank u lol
Idk I’m just confused
I just tried something else
Does this work
I used 3pi/4 and the other one on the unit circle
The solutions 3pi/8 and 7pi/8? Those seem fine sure 
Well, I mean, considering that tan is pi-periodic, the "opposite sides" are pi apart, so as per the diagram, they're fine 
(for sin and cos, you need to be careful, as those aren't pi-periodic, but 2pi-periodic)
As in, if u = 3pi/4, or u = [any of the other points you marked] were a solution to tan(u) = [what you wanted], then so would u = 7pi/4 [= 3pi/4 + pi], or any of the "opposite" points (which would correspond to adding or subtracting pi)
Wait what
In your one, you circled 3pi/4, you're also allowed to circle 7pi/4, for tan
(of course, I'm being quite careful in my phrasing, to make sure it's as clear as possible: the fact you needed to divide means you need to be careful how you go about it!)
Oh yea the 2x
But if it were another line on the circle
Like
Pi/4 and 5pi/4
Would it still work
Yes, it would, as would 5pi/6 and 11pi/6 etc etc
@leaden osprey Has your question been resolved?
Thank you
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If a is prime to b and y, and b is prime to x, prove that ax + by is prime to ab.
can anyone help me solve this : Find no. Of integral values of a for which (x - 3a)( x - a - 3) ≤ 0 for all x €[1,3]
Hell naw
!occupied
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u good?
Lol hes not
?
do u have a question @proper flare
.
oh
when you say "prime to" do you mean "coprime to"
Yes.
Yes.
bezout's identity?
Huh?
have u learned bezouts identity
It's allowed.
what do u mean integral values?
i dont get the q
so we have:
\begin{itemize}
\item $m_1 a + n_1 b = 1$
\item $m_2 a + n_2 b = 1$
\item $m_3 b + n_3 x = 1$
\end{itemize}
Ann
don't encourage channel hogging btw
oh my bad
we have this, where m_i and n_i are some integers
and we want to find a linear combination of ax+by with ab that adds to 1
Did you mean n_2 y in the second one?
Another way to do this is by showing a Lemma: if m is coprime to n, and l is coprime to n, then show that ml is coprime to n.
Got it
Let (ax + by, ab) = d
Let (a,d) = d_0
d_0 | d and d | (ax + by)
So d_0 | ax + by
So (ax + by)/(d_0) is an integer.
(a/d_0)x + by/d_0 = integer
by/d_0 = integer
Let (b, d_0) = d_1
Then d_1 | d_0 and d_1 | b
d_0 | a. So d_1 | a.
Since (a,b) = 1, d_1 = 1
So (b, d_0) = 1
Now let (y, d_0) = d_2
d_2 | d_0 | a. So d_2 | a.
d_2 also divides y.
Since (a, y) = 1, d_2 = 1
So (b, d_0) = 1 = (y, d_0)
But by/d_0 = integer
This is only possible when d_0 = 1, because if d_0 >= 2, then this would mean that d_0 has common factors with b and/or y.
So d_0 = 1 = (a,d)
In the same way, we can show that (b,d) = 1
But d | ab. We can say that this is only possible when d = 1. So d = 1 = (ax + by, ab).
Is this proof correct?
yeah just need to justify why d|ab and (b,d)=(a,d)=1 implies d=1
Let ab/d = k
ab = d(k)
(dk, d) = 1
d(k,1) = 1
d(1) = 1
d = 1
Is this correct?
k is a positive integer, and because 1 | k, (k,1) = 1.
Because if a | b, then (a,b) = a.
<@&286206848099549185>
@proper flare Has your question been resolved?
@proper flare Has your question been resolved?
why is (dk,d)=1?
the third line
you have to essentially prove that (b,d)= (a,d)=1 implies (ab,d)=1
@proper flare Has your question been resolved?
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Trying to prove or disprove the existance of a sequences, such that for every $n$ in $N$ it's possible to find $n$ consecutive one's somehwere in the sequence
What a wonderful world !
I was thinking of $a_n=1$
What a wonderful world !
that works
Does the sequence have to have a proper form? Can it be an infinite sequence?
By proper form, I mean "can be expressed in common mathematical functions"
I don't follow
So it doesn't have to be?
a_n = 1 works anyways
then prove it does satisfy the statement
π has an infinite number of digits, hence any sequence number can be found in there
thats not how that works
It's not?
nope
0.111111..... is infinite but doesnt contain the digit 2
Well...
0.101001000100001... is irrational and doesnt contain the digit 2
"any finite sequence can be found in its base x expansion" is the property of a universe number
Is there any proof that π does not?
we dont know about pi
is there any proof that pi does?
We THINK pi is a universe number
never had one proof
Random strings of numbers are found though
but can you prove ALL of them are there?
That's rational
π is irrarional
then consider this
reasons why I gave the second example
Hmmm
as if I could look into the future
There r people who say so
Then I'm looking forward to meeting them
in the meantime
But is defined to follow a pattern
we don't know if pi is a universe number or not
well yes and?
π on the other hand, appears to be random for us so far,
appears to be
appears, so far
xdd
Yes
"and that's the proof folks!"
Yes lol
-_- I thought at least you would see the irony
Imagine if everything that 'oh it seems to be the case' was assumed true and people relied on those statements without ever checking on if there was a valid proof for it, in order to build more statements
What would math look like then, when we realize one of those "oh it seems to be the case" statements at the foundation of maths turned out, not to be the case?
(circa Hilbert problems and set theory stuff)
So anything neither proven nor disproven cannot be taken as true or false
and while "pi is a universe number" is some very interesting claim
it stops there
How r we even supposed to approach this problem of proving/disproving this statement?
That π has all strings of numbers
Just finding all the digits?
that's a different question, I feel like we've strayed far off from the original question from the owner of this channel
you can open a new one to discuss it if you want
there is a reason why we dont know
showing claims like this so far has only been done for very special examples
like 0.01234567891011121314...
pi's digits are unpredictable, and we're still computing them
iirc there is a paper that shows that weird numbers like 0.1010010001... have measure 0
i forgot the specifics of the statement
its somewhat easy to show that almost all numbers are normal
non-universal numbers indeed have measure 0 on [0,1]
which is an even stronger claim
oh yeah thats what i was looking for
it's an easy statement to prove
take some string of digits that's not allowed, say its length is n
the probability that it doesn't show up on a real number between decimal 1 and decimal n is 1 - 10^(-n)
(someone correct me if the exponent is wrong)
the probability it doesn't show up between decimal n+1 and 2n is the same, 1- 10^(-n)
betwen 2n+1 and 3n, same probability
etc...
What does it mean?
so the probability that string doesn't show up in a real number in [0,1] is smaller than (1-10^(-n))(1-10^(-n))(1-10^(-n))... = 0
since there is a countable amount of possible strings of digits of finite length
measure of countable union of events of measure 0
= 0
almost every real number is a universe number in base 10
and well, since there's also a countable amount of bases
almost every real number is a universe number in every base
oh didnt realize its that simple i never looked at the proof
measure is an extension of the notion of "length"
at least the lebesgue measure over the real numbers
sorry for polluting your help channel @sharp smelt we can take a new one if you don't want us to continue 😭
the examples they give, where it some string of integer never occurs, is a "small" subset of real numbers
nah, it's fine
I'm writing another answer rn in overleaf, so this helps keep the channel open

xddd
alright so, to sum up
we know if we pick a random real number, it's almost certain that it will be a universe number
however, pi is not a random real number
in fact it's among the set of definable real numbers
which if I recall correctly is countable
so also of null measure
so, looking at the first digits of pi
we have a small idea as to if pi is indeed normal/universe or not
but we don't have the tools to prove it
you can easily show rational numbers are not normal/universe
because we know something about their base x representation
we don't know crap about pi's base x representation however other than the first trillion digits (in base 10)
which sounds like a lot but pales in comparison to infinity
funnily enough there are formulas for computing the nth digit of pi in base 16
yeah I do remember that
yes
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hello dear server, its me again :/ i feel genuinely embarassed
the questionmark is the only place i didnt understand
the 2/3s and stuff are just the teacher explaining a fact dont mind them
(-1)*(-1) = +1
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Let I(x) be the antiderivative of $arctan^2(x)$ express using I(x) the antiderivative: $\int \frac{ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$
prograce
How
let ln(1 + x^2) = u
some nontrivial integration by parts fuckery
Ok so dx=du(1+x^2)/2x