#help-33
1 messages · Page 248 of 1
so 1/2 x + 1/6 y = x
became
= 1/2 x + 1/6 y = 0
U german?
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Hello i am trying to prove this iff statement
For all sets $a, b [ a \subseteq \bigcup b \iff (\forall z \in a)(\exists w \in b)(z \in w)]$
toast
$a, b [ a \subseteq \bigcup b \iff (\forall z \in a)(\exists w \in b)(z \in w)]$ \
Assume $\forall z(z \in a \implies z \in \bigcup b)$. \
This is equivalent to $\forall z (z \in a \implies \exists w \in b(z \in w))$
toast
but i am not sure how to proceed from here really
do i expand the implication to not p or q?
or am i done
@steady fjord Has your question been resolved?
Well from there you can conclude that $(\forall z\in a)( \exists w \in b) z \in w$
Azyrashacorki
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Yes
thank god
I will
2nd last line is dodgy
i think you wanted to write $0 = 4(e^x)^2 - 2b\cdot e^x$ here, but you have the next line corret
حسیب ♥
aw man ram beat me to it
here's everything in the last to lines coming from
i put in ln(1/2b) in gb(x)
where's the stuff on the right coming from
-2b timess e^ln(..)
can you show full work.
it seems like you're skipping a ton of steps
and something bad happened along the way
okay my bad
switching from ln(1/2 b) to (ln 1/2 b) is also bad
ideally you'd want to write something like ln(b/2)
this
ou
yeah i forgot the bracket thing
so many rules wtfff
basically its ln(1/2b)^2 right and not 2*ln(1/2b)
you want more () to make it less ambiguous and again b/2 is miles better than 1/2b
ln( (b/2)^2)
wait
so this is correct?
missing () aside,
both are ok
its just another way of express it
what you did seemed to have ignored that 2 completely
2 * 1/2 b is indeed b
so i was correct?
however how are you turning $e^{2\ln(\frac b2)}$ or $e^{\ln((\frac b2)^2)}$ into $\frac b2$
you don't explicitly have e^ln here
ραμOmeganato5
you don't have e^(ln(b/2)) here
yes, you can't just arbitrarily ignore components
you're essentially trying to say
$$a^{bc} = ba^c$$
ραμOmeganato5
which is NOT a thing
power law for logs
or exponent laws
power law for logs actually gives you something of the form e^(ln(stuff))
or you could apply exponent laws a^(bc) = (a^b)^c
okay so ln ((1/2b)^2)
yes
and write b/2 instead of 1/2 b to make it less ambiguous/ugly
alright
2^-1 b 
@gaunt lynx Has your question been resolved?
il keep this channel open cuz im practicing nr
But after some amount of time it will close up automatically
Unless you click the usual red cross
yea if you want you can close it and reopen another one later if you need to
pretend a is a constant
split up the derivative $\frac{d}{dx}e^x - a\frac{d}{dx}xe^x$
MarcoMa210
wait do you use d/dx notation or nah
ight just derive e^x and axe^x
no product rule here?
you can ignore a since it's a constant
correct
yes but
what's this symbol though
now factorize
its a 1
ah
but we have 3
e's
so
maybe
(e^x)^2?
and only leave one e^x in the bracket
why
it's * 1
you wrote * 1 which we can omit
it turns into a plus
what turns into a plus
+1 appears when you differentiate a lone x
okay ill show an example after this
this isn't that
okay so here
can we just pull all of them out
then do e^x^3
no
shit
a (b+c)
right?
but here we have 3 e's that kinda confuses me
same principle
you didn't think of doing stuff like a^2 right?
even though you initially saw 2 as there
So you can factor out e^x from all the three terms
yeah i did right?
With this you mean?
yes
Well, this is only for the last two terms 😅
a(b+c+d)
There you go
so
So if a = e^x what do you have?
Huh? You have 3 terms and all of them have e^x in common
So THERE IS d
Nope
can you tell me
Ok let me write this
How would you factor AB + AC + AD?
A(B+C+D)
Good, now can you write how this expression becomes with these values?
A = e^x
B = 1
C = -ax
D = -a
There you go!
Indeed
$$e^x = e^x \cdot 1$$
Alberto Z.
I hope you know this
oh
The same as this: A + AB = A(1 + B)
this guy just multiplied it
And?
ohh
yes so the 1 is gone
but
i get what u mean
it doesnt make sense otherwise
No?🤔
Indeed 👍
Yup awesome 💪
Sure
because theres a +?
Yes
oh shit
Again, this is something you should really remember/know way before doing things with exponentials and derivatives
yes
i just got confused
do
so here
does the -infinity influence the infinity of the e‘s
oh so do e^x(-ax+1)?
Exactly
If x → +∞, then you have -∞
Of course you need. When you have an exponential, in particular
but e is stronger than x
Correct
But you have +∞ • (-∞) which yields -∞
ohhh
It is infinity, but negative
- times - = -
does anybody here have comfortability with probability and statistics? I'm having trouble understanding this problem:
!occupied
Someone else is already using this help channel. If you need help with a question, please open your own help channel/thread (see #❓how-to-get-help for instructions).
Aren't you given it is positive?
But yes, if you were given a is < 0, then you would indeed have +∞
Yeah luckily 👍
nice okay
also for lim x->-infinity it would be 0+ right
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,Usually 0+ and 0- are used only for the argument (like lim as x → 0+) and not the output of the limit.
But yes, it would be a 0+ if you'd like (but just 0 is correct and enough)
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can someone explain me how this results in that
,rotate
like idk what he did here
Two matrices are equal if and only if their corresponding entries are equal
so just compare line by line?
yeah
but how did he get ab=1
they assume that a is nonzero
yes its fo
Then a^2 b = a implies ab = 1
wait and that comes out from every equation?
Well yes all the other equations can also be used to deduce that ab = 1
and going the other way as well from ab = 1 you can deduce any one of the three equations
so the last two statements are equivalent
but one would've been enough
I'm not familiar with graph theory sorry
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Super simple question I am just brainfarting. I want to specify that if an interval goes from one range of values to another range of values, from -infinity to 0[ to ]0 to infinity, how would I write that?
Cause it's an interval within an interval, would it be ]]-inf;0[;]0;inf[[?
That looks crazy to me :P
(-inf,0) union (0,inf)
If you specifically want interval notation, then (-infinity, 0)u(0, infinity) is ok
But really it's R - {0}
R \ {0}
If you want to combine two disjoint intervals then you have to write them as a union
R ; {0}
i.e. ]-inf;0[ U ]0;inf[
I want to specify that it is from a range in the negative to a range in the positives, relating it to an interval of a;b, so would it be nicer to say a<0 and b>0, or is there a fancier way?
Oh so this looks apt
you can't have square brackets on an infinite sided interval
]a;b[ = (a,b), it's a french/european notation
^ this
Never seen that 🙁 British maths education
It is so very nice when the standards are different, isn't it :P
I would prefer the notation (-inf,0) U (0,inf)
But yeah, so, in an interval a;b, where a is negative infinity to 0 excluding 0, and b is ]0 to infinity, this is how it would be written?
If you want that specific interval then R \ {0} (or whatever the euro equiv is)
but you cannot simplify beyond a union
as long as a < b, then ]a;b[ is fine regardless of positive or negative values
if that's what you're asking there?
It's not written. That's two intervals
By definition there can't be a hole in an interval
I want to use this as a visual example of why the mean value theorem wouldn't work on a discontinuous function, I wanted to write and specify that the interval [a;b] is specifically on these lines excluding 0
Use R ; {0}
I am not trying to define the functions values, I am saying if we specifically put a point anywhere on the left and a point anywhere on the right, the secant does not have a tangent in the interval with the same value
You say $f(x) = -1 for x \in (-inf,0) , 1 for x \in (0,inf)$
WeAreIngram
You misunderstand I think, I know the values of the function, I am using the function for something else, or am I confused here?
What do you want out of us
To specify, any value on the function with x < 0 to any value on the function with x > 0 would have a secant, I want to say that
But I want to exclude x=0
I think I've come to the conclusion I just separately specify that a > 0 and b < 0, seems so simple now
I have not been sleeping much ngl, sorry about the confusion y'all
how about: for any $x \in A = ]-\infty;0[$, and for $y \in B = ]0;\infty[$, then there is a secant line between $(x,f(x))$ and $(y,f(y))$
حسیب ♥
You don't need to set the set to the interval you can just use the interval
But the interval needs to be specified for my example, so I just say a < 0, b > 0?
i was going to say: you really only need A and B if you plan on referring to these intervals later, but in that case you can write out the intervals explicitly
you can either do this, or you can just pick a specific interval
I do like making it more generalised, so I will be doing it like that I think
Thank you guys for your time! And sorry for the confusion
np / pdp
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could someone explain to me this process? i get how to test whether it converges with the p-test, but im not sure why this process is being used to find where the integral converges?
they used the limit comparison test to compare it with the integral [ \int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{x^{3/2}} ]
cloud ☁
sorry what's the limit comparison test 😭
When a polynomial or so approaches infinity, the numerator/denominator behave like their highest power term, i.e √x and x²
the idea is, find an integral that you know the behavior of and where you expect the limit to exist and be finite, then since they both have the same behavior that tells you about your original integral
usually this looks like comparing it to the ratio of the highest power terms (in this case, sqrt(x)/x^2) because the convergence of the comparison function is easily found by p-test
thanks! sorry, im still a bit lost on why we multiply that with the by the original integral?
the idea is, we want to find out whether f(x) converges, so we make up a g(x) where we expect the limit of f(x)/g(x) to be finite and where the convergence of the integral of g(x) is easy to determine
because if the limit of f(x)/g(x) exists and is finite. we know either both integrals converge or both diverges
Isn't that g(x) technically 1/f(x)
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yooo i just finished acceleration and am skipping to geometry next year, is there anything important that is good to know prior to taking the course?
which course?
geometry?
you mainly need to understand the basics of algebra before you start applying geometry to it. like solving equations, working with variables, and rearranging formulas that stuff helps a lot when the geometry gets harder
@jagged orchid Has your question been resolved?
yeah, i mean i just passed the algebra 1 final to get to geometry, so i know all of that stuff
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$x_1=3, x_2=7, x_{n+2}=x_{n+1}^2-x_n^2+x_n$. Find $lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n 1/x_n$
Nerdyasianguy
<@&268886789983436800>
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
I'm trying to split it into some telescoping sum
So that the adjacent numbers cancel out
But haven't got that
The limit should be 1/2 if i'm not mistaken
Correct
Can’t you prove this by strong induction on the sum?
What is the induction statement?
Also I think you made a small mistake. Shouldn’t the denominator be x_k not x_n? Also I’m working on it but a strong induction proof should work
@spark nest Has your question been resolved?
I solved it
Oh yeah
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Using telescoping sum
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Woah whay math is this. I am currently doing Algebra 1 in 7th.
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sorry. but one question, can I ask any type of math question like how to solve sin 350?
Yes you can ask here.
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do you have a question? if not, please close the channel so other people can use this
!done
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😈
am I crazy or did OP leave the server? I can see that he has roles, but I dont share any servers with him???
ok, thats cached stuff
ye bro has dipped
.close coz OP left
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maybe he got muted
original poster
o ok
i thought it was Observation Post
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Screaming Iced Tea
what have you tried so far
write $3^x\cdot 13 = \frac {13}{3}$
ghost
oh shoot its 13/3 XD
non
as said you can cancel 13
right
also use \times for multiplication
Screaming Iced Tea
Screaming Iced Tea
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need help again i made this problem
Asking the actual question right away is more likely to get responses.
Asking "Can I ask...?" or "Does anyone know about...?" doesn't give people enough information to decide whether they can help, and answering can feel like a promise to help with the actual question, which they might find themselves unable to.
what problem
Players A and B each begin with one fair coin the start of every round both players simultaneously flip their coins The rules are If both coins show the same face the players exchange their coins if the coins show different faces each player keeps their own coin after the exchange keep step each player secretly chooses whether to Flip their coin again next round or replace their coin with a fresh fair coin from an infinite supply but they may only do this replacement if the other players coin showed heads this round. as the game goes on forever wht is the probability tht player a will hold their original coin at infinitely many different rounds
can u tell me answer
A will hold his coin infinitely many round, with a probability of 1
but the rule states tht the first coin he started with disappears from his hand
per the second borel-cantelli lemma
if the events are independent and the sum of their probabilities is infinite, then the probability that infinitely many of them occur is 1.
but i didnt assume it always disappear at the first chance
but borel-cantelli lemma cant be used here bc it depends on previous rounds and the original coin disappears
well ur right i did not specify how players choose to replace their coin or not or if if they replace always or never
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ty
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Let $p$ be a prime such that $x^2 + 67x + 1$ is irreducible mod $p$. Show that the order of $x$ divides $p + 1$ in $\Z[x]/(p, x^2 + 67x + 1)$. \
any hints would be cool. People say it's trival hmm I tried using $(a+b)^p=a^p+b^p$ tho
six seven
whats the order of the field you are constructing
ok i we know that x²+67x+1=0 which means x²=-1-67x mod R where R is the ring in the task
so i can construct every monomial and by that polynomial with a linear function
so the order is 2?
R is the ring which is a field. how many elements does it have
ok i only remember it is some prime power
how many linear polynomials are there
how many choices for a and b
so how many elements does the multiplicative group have
p²-1?
and what else can you tell me about the multiplicative group?
it should be periodic?
what do you mean by that
wasnt it for finite fields that the elements repeat themselves?
if you mean g^k = e, there's a special word for that in group theory
cyclic
so we can use lagrange?
x^(p²-1)=1
x^{(p-1)(p+1)}=1 => ord(x) | (p-1)(p+1)
@red nimbus Has your question been resolved?
@red nimbus Has your question been resolved?
@red nimbus Has your question been resolved?
@red nimbus Has your question been resolved?
my pity progres
why no one helps bro ☠️
because i manifested it
ya know you can ping helpers right?
i aint gon ping pre unis
real helpers took off the helpers role years ago
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it’s like that time you gave chris a question in mg then he asked it in a help channel and copy pasted the answer someone posted
I may have fallen asleep yesterday. anyway, the problem is that in general if you do this process modulo some quadratic polynomials x^2+ax+b then it can easily happen that the order of x is p^2-1. hence you will have to use some specific property of x^2+67x+1. but I dont know which. for starters, you know that b^2-4ac cannot be a quadratic residue mod p (otherwise the poly would not be irreducible), so maybe by quadratic reciprocity you can find out something about p. not sure
@red nimbus
you use the fact that x has norm 1 with respect to F_p
so that powers of x are actually in the subgroup of norm 1 elements, which is smaller
ah yes I thought about the 1 but didnt spot this. damn I'm really out of practice
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I know this is simple but I have the feeling I messed up
$L\left(\theta \mid x_1 \dots x_n \right) = \theta^{\sum_{i_1}^{n} x_i} \left(1 - \theta \right)^{n- \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i}$
\
Then the log-likelihood function is $\ln \left[L\left(\theta \mid x_1 \dots x_n \right) \right] = \sum x_i \ln(\theta) + (n- \sum x_i) \ln( 1- \theta)$
wai
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what is this question trying to say? isnt y = f(x) already defined so why is it asking for me to find it
it should be x = f(y) and then when you invert it , it becomes y = finverse (x)
oh thats weird
It’s the result after the change.
so, y= x^3 ==> x = y^3 ==> y = x^1/3 ?
Exactly.
hmm ok, that makes sense although it seems useless
Do you have more questions?
🙂
this question makes sense now ty, not for the time being
You are welcome.
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.close
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.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-33 message
actually, what do we do with y=2/x? because swapping y and x then solving for y just gives back y=2/x right?
so does it not have an inverse thing
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it has the thing, it just looks the same
inverse is reflecting the graph diagonally
2/x is inverse of 2/x
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how do we solve this
Do you remember the theorem?
What was it?
You don't have it in your notes/textbook?
,w max min theorem
Extreme value thrm
a function is guaranteed to have both an absolute maximum and an absolute minimum if two conditions are met: 1. f(x) is continuous 2. there is a closed interval @low scaffold
if this is not in your notes, you are gonna want to put it in there asap
ahh i remember
also my other question is
this question
I did the workking ot and got
$x\geq11$
ø
I'm doing to assume that your working was correct
your result is incorrect,
can you show your work
Oh oops thanks ramonov
Also it's not that, x is greater than or equal to 11
Try drawing the region on a number line
you should be getting an interval no?
x>=11 itself was already wrong
feels like you're gonna need to do some casework
same, sorry for interrupting
it cant be x>=11 at all, for a fraction to be positive, the numerator and denominator must have the same sign. if you go larger than 11 you get a negative numerator and pos denom
oops my bad
Why did the sign reverse on the first line
i made this mistake so many times when i was younger lol
Well I see a ≥ and then a ≤ in the next line
Also no, not how inequalities work
You can't just multiply stuff to inequalities without being careful
the best way to solve these is to never multiply by the variable. Instead, move everything to one side so the other side is zero
thats how i learned
I'm gonna let you take over, we're gonna keep talking over each other
sorry didnt mean to
Because I heard someone say if u multiply by x, it will change the sign
That's not how it works at all
Unlike equalities where you can do the same thing to both sides without worrying about it
Inequalities are a bit more involved
Addition and subtraction work the same
But for multiplication, what happens depends on the sign of what you multiply by
Yes Celine I am coming to cases 

So when you're multiplying by (x-6), you get two outcomes depending on the value of x
For what region is x-6 positive
And for what region is it negative
Great explanation actually
I would avoid it entirely, the entire issue can be solved by just moving everything to one side
Not true, you'd need to get rid of the denominator eventually
Hope I'm not bothering... I was gonna say flip both the fractions (you can do that right?)
And you will run into the same issue
Stick to this, it's the most common way @low scaffold
Also it's a very bad idea to simply avoid stuff if you can't understand it
So how’s it meant to be done
That would also change the signs
Well I asked you a question
Alright im gonna leave this to Xavier
X-6 is negative in for values lesss than -6
I think all of us trying to help is confusing him more
...no
With all due respect man, you can't be doing calculus and struggle at stuff like this
Rusty on FIRST degree inequalities? That's a VERY SERIOUS problem!
Also genuinely asking both Alberto and Noctorin
Wouldn't this give you an x-6 in the denominator
That you would then need to get rid of?
Thus running into the exact same problem in the end?
Please correct me if I am misunderstanding what you're suggesting
i think you are misunderstanding
Man am I cooked
The way i learnt it, you dont need to get rid of it
Interesting
I usually do:
Num > 0 (or ≥)
Denom > 0
And then a sign scheme
I think they called it boundary point rule
Probably it's a different method than some others that are taught
Ah right sign schemes
Forgot about those
Fair, but then we'd have to explain sign schemes down the line
either way sign analysis is inevitable
I mean, I hope he has been taught them 😅
atp im down to stay up as late as i have to in order to help
Alright lets start from the beginning
My first step is always to set the inequality = to 0
combine it into a single fraction
there's us as well
you don't have to if you are not available. just a gentle, friendly reminder
of course, i have a passion for helping though lol
good guy
||good guys finish last, kidding||
And then
find critical points
lol
when you are done solving, let me know what you get
that would be critical
LOL
Yeah and then
x=-1 and x=6
you should have 11-x in numerator
let me see where you went wrong
its not 5-x-6
its 5-(x-6)
distribute the negative
5-x+6
11-x
if i had a dollar for every time i made this mistake i would probably own a porsche lol
X=11
steel yourself for more.
okay good
so we have (6, 11)
picture a number line
this gives us 3 intervals
what would those be?
Wdym
Ok let me try to word this better
(6, 11) divides the number line into three intervals.
what would those three be
btw quick side note that you HAVE TO REMEMBER
6 in the denominator makes it 0
dividing by 0 is a HUGE NO in math
so you MUST remember to not include it in the interval by using a parenthesis instead of a bracket
it gives us one of the critical points
alright so
what are the three intervals
if you need me to tell you that is okay
this might help you understand better, what is the domain?
All accepted values by the function
yeah of course
Could also mean 5.4?
yeah we hadn't gotten to the answer lol
Cuz that's >= not just strictly >
alright
so
we know
(-inf, 6) ∪ (6, 11) ∪ (11, inf)
are three intervals
so we test a value in each interval
if its true
then yuh
if not
then nuh
So we can do 11
That doesn’t matter tho because it’s in the numerator
It won’t be undefined
well, no
you wouldnt want to
you would want a number between the interval
not on the endpoints
anyways, now we pick a number in the interval, plug it into the equation (11-x)/(5(x-6))
the important thing is if its positive or negative
because we are looking at >=, we want a positive value
because anything >= 0 is obviously positive
therefore true
Same as how many intervals there are I guess?
alright im glad you figured it out
i just lack practice
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how do i find the area?
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How do I check convergence of number 3
I tried D’alambert on that one as well as a major thingy
1/(k+2)
But I keep getting 1
@misty hinge umm convergence means ?? Ig u wanna solve questions right ?
My english weak
partial fractions
It meeans the sum exists
you can do a limit test or idk what it's called in your program
$$\dfrac{1}{k(k+2)} = \dfrac{1}{2} \left( \dfrac{1}{k} - \dfrac{1}{k+2} \right)$$
Oh that’s smart but is there another way because I think we haven’t seen that yet for numerical analysis
robin.dabanc_
he wants to prove convergence
exactly, the thing i wrote above is a telescoping so the infinite sum is finite
That what i tho convergence means solving questions?
Also I don’t think you can rarange order because you haven’t proven yet that is concergest absolutely
well yeah ig
idk what youre saying bruv ;
Nvm 😭 you handle this my english weak
convergence means showing that the sum is finite
ah i see
Yup
this is 1/(k^2+2k) which is < 1/k^2
for large enough k
Also I don’t think you can do partial fractions because it isn’t asociative unless you prove absolute convergenxe
wdym? i can sum it up to n terms which gives some function of n, and then limit n to fininiity to get some finite number
Oh damn true hahaha how did I look over that
but then youll have to prove 1/k^2 is convergent
you can solve suppose $V_k = \frac{1}{k\sqrt{k}} and then take $$\lim_{k\to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{k(k+2)}}{\frac{1}{k\sqrt{k}}=0$$
and $\sum V_k$ converges thus the original sum will converge
darky
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thats a basic fact
I mean you can’t rearange an infinite amount of terms in a sum because it’s not asociative unless you prove absolute convergence
its actually true for every positive k, so youve just lower bounded the sum
ik but idk if a "proof" question would accept that
It’s 0
no its pi^2/6
How?
thtas not true
Can't u use this
First limit tend to 1 give 1/3 and last limit tend to infinity that will give zero so sum exist hence proved ?
take $\sum 1/k$
robin.dabanc_
1/k tends to 0, but the sum is divergent
Oh wait you didn’t prove the sum is convergebt you just proved the series is
darky
you can do it like this with the comparison test
Oh and how do you know that’s larger than the original
no we did
robin.dabanc_
I thought hyperharmonic converged to e 😭
robin.dabanc_
$$k^2 < k^2 + 2k \quad (\forall k \in \mathbb{N}^*)$$
$$\frac{1}{k^2+2k} < \frac{1}{k^2}$$
(summing up the inequality gives you)
$$\sum^{\infty}{k=1} \frac{1}{k^2+2k} < \sum^{\infty}{k=1} \frac{1}{k^2}$$
$$\sum^{\infty}_{k=1} \frac{1}{k^2+2k} < \frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
Thus $\sum^{\infty}_{k=1} \frac{1}{k^2+2k}$ converges.
darky
How do you prove that de sum for 1/(k•k^(1/2)) is convergent
it's a reiman series
or a P series
i think that's what you call it
Don’t know those
p = 3/2
Numarical analysis sis so hard 😭
$\sum \frac{1}{n^p}$
darky
Nope
How u proved other questions?
Just for context I am in my last year of highschool
a person who doesnt know what convergence is should really not be talking here
do partial fractions then
partial fractions it is
Mb man why u so mean 😭
huh
how do you usually solve these questions
in class?
Yeah I think so but I’m not sure
what tools have you studied
just show partial fractions, your teacher will be impressed either ways
D’alambert cauchy liebnitz integral and comparison test
I have right to learn man
you know these?
yeah, not to poke into other's learning
I really think they won’t it’s supposed to be an easy excercise 
Yes
I know how to solve but don't know how to prove i just asking how he proved other Question that will help
@dire basalt
they are useless if you dont know that 1/n^p converges for p > 1
alright man, you confused me cuz you asked what convergence was in the beginning
That’s not true
And I do know that harmonic series is divergent and the hyperharmonic is convergent
And the alternating harmonic is also convergent
just do partial fractions
bounding is still valid
Alr thanks
squeezing
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h_j is positive semidefinite and h_j = e_jX(X'X)^-1X'e_j and by definition of pos semidefinite this is >= 0
however i dont know how to proof it is smaller equal to 1
maybe "h_j that is positive semidefinite" is not what you meant
maybe you were talking about (X'X)^-1
without more context this is certainly not solvable
I infer that x_j = X'e_j
What more do we know about e_j and X?
H is positive semidefinite
what's H
X(X'X)^-1X'
what are the dimensions of X
n * k
and what are the e_j
e_j is a zero vector with the j'th element being a 1
isn't this matrix H an orthogonal projection then
Yes
it is equal to each other
Hmm wait that is if H is orthogonal matrix
I am not sure tbh
no
An orthogonal projection will not preserve norms in general
but it will affect it
maybe only if x is in X?
Idk what "in X" would mean, but we're not interested in that
H is an orthogonal projection
so it's a projection onto some space S, parallel to S^orthogonal
then $x = x_S + x_{S^\perp}$
Rafilouyear2026
(x_S being Hx)
x_s and x_S^orthogonal are... orthogonal
pythagoras
$|x|^2 = |x_S|^2 + |x_{S^\perp}|^2$
Rafilouyear2026
thus... $|Hx|\leq |x|$
Rafilouyear2026
As long as you keep this in mind
Rewrite $h_j = e_j'He_j$ into something with norms...
Rafilouyear2026
(final hint: ||you need a specific property of projections...|| ||H^2 = H||)
Aaaah okay
Ngl matrix algebra has been a long time ago so I needed this
thank you very much :)
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