#help-33
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you cut out the important formula you were supposed to prove out of the image here
take another screenshot that includes the formula below the paragraph
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idk why but my brain is not braining. I am stuck with this, does anyone see what I am doing wrong or does anyone have any suggestion on what to try instead?
in such cases its sometimes easier to prove something harder
for example, that the sum is > 13/24+1/n
thank you!
Is there any way to reasonably pick this extra term, or is it just intution and then trying if it holds?
tighter*
because here you have three delicious terms which are less than 1/n FOR ALL N so to make the statement look clean and easier to visualise i assume @devout mauve chose that bound
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✅ Original question: #help-33 message
I was wondering, whether I am just doing something horribly wrong or if this new bound is actually not helpful, because it already fails for n=1?
just asking because it might have just been some examplary bound without much thought behind it, but also sometimes I mess up big time
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Can someone help me in GEMDAS/PEMDAS?
what do you mean? Like order of operations?
Yes exactly
what exactly do you not understand about it?
$10 + (2^{12-5} =32)*18 + 3$
Katrro
like this?
what's that equals sign doing in there..
can you show a picture of the problem as originally given
idk
sorry i cant iam on my loptop
the equal sign is + sorry
loptop.
LIke this 10+[2(12-5)+32}18+3 with exponent 2
$10+[2(12-5)+3^2]\cdot 18+3$
Ann
like this?
3 in the power of 2
let's just put the multiplication back in explicitly: $$10+[2\cdot (12-5)+3^2]\cdot 18+3$$
Ann
there is no 2 in 3
can you confirm that the problem is written correctly or not
it is send by a teacher
why dont you start with easier ones first to understand the core of the concept
and then move on to harder ones
instead of directly jumping to a tricky q
send the exact question
I think the true question has been lost in translation
he himself seems confused while sending the question
the real question is why does he have the undergraduate tag tho
10 + [2(12 -5) + 32} - 18 / 3^2
write ^ for exponent
like 2^3 is 2 to the power of 3
18 divided by 3^2
alright
so ill follow PEMDAS here
so what does P stand for
parenthesis?
yep
so now only focus on this part first
and work your way out by solving the inner bracket first
once you do tell me what do you get as the result
its the same idea!
so since theres a bracket inside, we solve that one first
because as i said, consider only that part so according to PEMDAS/BODMAS we solve the first inner bracket
10 + [2(7) + 32} - 18 / 3^2
yep
i get confuse 2 + 7?
wheres 2+7?
2(7)
thats 2 x 7
10 + [14 + 32} - 18 / 3^2
10 + 46- 18 / 3^2
thats 3 x 3 right?
mhm
10 + [2(12 -5) + 32} - 18 / 9
- why did you write it in that form when we simplified it
and 2) why are the bracket notations different
oh sorry
10 + 46- 18 / 9
10 + 46- 2
there you go!
yup
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Can anyone please check if I did these questions correctly
Well the answers seem to be correct
But did I do the work correctly or should I adjust anything?( also thank you )
well like, maybe dont use the x for times/multiplication here, might confuse you
you can keep everything in brackets when multiplying, like (4)(x^3)(-13)
Makes sense thank you for the tip I'll do that from now on
Nothing else ?
looks good yeah
would just generally rec to use brackets when multiplying or $\cdot$, like $a \cdot b$
aristos (kugelblitz)
Thank you so much
Well the only minor problem i have here is you wrote (x-13)^4=(4C0)(x^4)(-13)^0
I would remove the (x-13)^4= at the 1st line and also at the last line write
(x-13)^4=(4C0)(x^4)(-13)^0 + (4C1)(x^3)(-13)^1+...
And then replace each terms with what you calculated
Ok thank you!
Wait actually I'm kinda confused sorry if you have time could you show me what that would look like
I can't think rn xd
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how do i approach this
@grave burrow Has your question been resolved?
Is this algebra 1?
Idk
Ok, first solve for y
Ok, remember that when 2 lines are parallel, they have the same slopes
Slope is -4
Yep, now create any line with that slope
Downslopeing
?
idk what u mean
if i were to make a line with that slope it would be downsloping is what i mean
Yeah
Any line with that slope is parallel to the original line
yes
So just make a random line with the same slope
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hi, what did i do wrong?
the rounding was confusing me a lot, i tried multiple different ways of rounding/displaying the answers and they still all showed incorrect
when you said .03 did you mean three percent or did you mean tiny fraction of a percent
in letter a
uhhh idrk i just got that on the calculator, however i also tried 3 and that was still wrong
i can write it out to show how i did it if that would help
yes, show how you did it. but also
calculator-bashing...
show how you did it
im asking for the 3rd time SHOW how you did it
o. 12 is correct
omg
im so dumb
lemme try the next one again
ok i got a diff answer again. maybe my issue is that im not writing it out and doing it in my head
i got .13 for the second one
which would be 13 percent?
ok i redid them and got everything except 3
so to put it as a percentage you will need to multiply by 100 to convert
for (c) pay attention to how much the interest is
it is 50 CENTS not 50 bucks
yes i used .50
is that right
okok
im redoing it rn one second
just to make sure i didnt miss any steps
i think im messing up rounding the last number
i keep getting the same one but im not sure how to enter that as an answer
or maybe i didnt do it right
sorry i forgot to reply to your message
it says to round to the nearest tenth of a percent
which means that before multiplication by 100 that's 3 dp of rounding precision
0.171 in your case, or 17.1%
OOH I GET IT
I GOT IT!!
tysm for the help:DD
now onto the even harder version of this assignment LOL
i shall try it by myself and see what happens
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because finite difference approximations are derived from a taylor series, are they only valid when the taylor series converges?
for example here
taylor series for f(x+d/2) and f(x-d/2) are used to find f'(x)
by using a small d such that the terms with a higher power of d can be ignored because in approximation
the document I am reading then goes on to mention the error by neglecting terms with power d^2 and greater
but they dont mention anything about whether the function is equal to its taylor seires, and just seem to assume
Usually a finite difference method only has a local smoothness condition. You don't need something as strong as what you are asking
why is this all you need?
like i dont understand how they are able to just assume the function is equal to its taylor series in this derivation
I'm not sure what kind of response you are looking for here
You are usually looking to approximate a point in a neighbourhood with a linear or quadratic function, you don't really care about the Taylor series part
isnt the taylor series how its derived so needs to be considered?
I mean, just consider any function that has some finite number of derivatives at a point
You can still do linear approximation on it
you can always do a finite taylor approximation
you dont have to do the full series
f(x+h)=f(x)+f'(x)h + R(h) is a taylor approx of first order
the rest term R(h) goes to 0 fast enough
ohh, because you are ignoring higher derivatives in the approximation, you dont need to care if the error goes to zero or not if you add all the terms?
there are much less stringent conditions on when a function can be written as taylor polynomial + error term, and we only need to assume enough smoothness for whatever taylor polynomial we're using
the rest will go to zero fast enough
I just don't view it as a Taylor series at all, although Denascite's viewing of it being a finite Taylor approximation is the same.
well what else are you gonna call it
I just don't think you need to think of the language of Taylor series to approximate a function by a line or a quadratic etc
linear, ok
Yes, it turns out to be terms in a Taylor series, but I think in this case it's just confusing the issue
this makes more sense now
Its a finite difference method, it's not like you are going to apply a 25th order adams method.
Anyway, its semantics and I don't really want to pursue that part of it further
thanks
it was a little confusing how they said it was equal to the function exactly without the remainder bit
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I dont think I graphed this right. Could someone help me
its $P(x) = (x-1)^2(x+2)^3$?
The x+2 is cubed
jan Niku
Yes
this actually seems like it might be fine 
you have the key values,
looks a little off due to the vertical scale and placement of (2,64)
it's passable
Follow up question then
Why is one of the end behaviors in a negative Q if the leading coefficient is positive , that's what threw me off when I drew it
can you track out what the leading term will be?
i mean you have $(x-1)(x-1)(x+2)(x+2)(x+2)$
jan Niku
It would be x^5 but idk what the leading term would be
that is the leading term
x^5 + (Other lower degree stuff)
so x^5 dominates for really big (or really negative) x
Like the leading coefficient, what's that
the leading coefficient is 1
So if it's positive then why does my graph start in a negative Q
quadrant you mean?
Yea
well say x is really negative
now we have (negative) times (negative) times ...
maybe its better to write it
(negative) * (negative) * (negative) * (negative) * (negative)
you probably know that a negative times a negative is a positive?
so lets say [(negative) * (negative) ] * [(negative) * (negative) ] * (negative)
can you see what happens?
Yea
so for negative x, we get out a negative
Yea
at least, assuming that x^5 dominates
which will be true if x is really negative
'end behavior'
if that makes sense
Ok
Imma test
One sec
I tested at -3 and it was -16
So if I'm ever uncertain ig I can just do more test points
I think its better to rely on your intuition of end behavior
and test functions
but you could, yea
you run the risk that you do not grab a test point thats far enough out to be 'end behavior'
like, x^a for odd a is always going to look like this
,w plot x^7 and x^11
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how to prove this relation
i started from the fact that :
$$ A \triangle B = (A \cap \neg B) \cup (\neg A \cap B)$$
and then distributed to get :
$$\left(E \cap (\neg A \cup \neg B) \right) \cap \left(E \cap (B \cup A) \right)$$
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what is this question (#4) asking .. i dont understand
pls help, as a dad im supposed to know everything
How many combinations of red and blue backpacks add up to 10 backpacks
E.g. you can have 6 red and 4 blue
ahh, thats way easier to understand than the instructions thanks
@gritty zephyr Has your question been resolved?
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yo
i don’t understand how axioms 1 and 6 are violated
what evidence have you to say either of these is specifically violated?
as in, who says that axiom 1 is violated specifically?
(which it's... not. that one holds)
well it also isnt clear what field the vector space is defined over
i guess the assumption is R
the question
in which case for c < 0, axiom 6 is violated
i know it holds h thats why im confused
well yeah
where
show me where it says in writing 'Axiom 1 is violated'
"Show that axiom 1 and 6 are violated"
it says “show where axioms 1 and 6 are violated”
oh is that so
bruuhhhu
do they probably mean this
i have no clue atp
i mean
those aren't the axioms
how is 6 violated
right
but the defn of the vector space says x >= 0
so -x is not in the set
nothing violates axiom 1 though
Yeah youre right
nothing violates 1 though
for X = (x1, y1) and Y = (x2, y2)
X + Y (x1 + x2, y1 + y2)
Since x1 >= 0 and x2 >= 0, x1 + x2 >= 0 as well
etc
and then for y1 + y2 the sum of 2 reals is always real since R is complete yada yada yada
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✅ Original question: #help-33 message
i dont get what theyre asking
You have R^2, but with a new scalar multiplication operation
Do you know vector space axioms?
i don’t understand
Let's focus on 6-10, can you reprove them in the new vector space? There should be at least one axiom that you can't prove.
well i don’t understand the “new vector space” thing
theyre saying “scalar multiplication is redefined “
is that what it’s about?
Then you use the new scalar multiplication instead of the older one. Simple.
that means y is just 0?
or c is always 0 for y
It means, well $c(x,y)=(cx, 0)$.
Xwtek
Yeah but
Like why
is c set to 0 for y?
but then c is c so it must be always c right
if c isnt zero for x it shouldn’t be for y
The whole point of the question is to explore why (or why not)
but then y cant be 0 always because its any real number
It's something that you're going to prove why or why not.
I thought i was just proving the invalidity of the space being a vector space
but im talking about the scalar redefinition
You can try to define scalar multiplication by any function whatsoever. You just have to reprove that the vector space axiom is satisfied.
It's like saying f(x) = x^2 + 4x + 1, and then asking "why the constant is 1 instead of 4"
No i get that but im asking what can that scalar be if y is any real number and c doesnt make x zero so it isnt 0
The scalar is an argument to the operator. The one who uses it can set c to anything they wants
Like 2(x, y) = (2x, 0), 3(x, y) = (3x,0), etc.
Yes but how did y become 0 here
Definition
im confused
The definition literally says c(x, y) = (cx,0)
but it needs to make sense though right
like what can x and y possibly be and what can c possibly be that would produce a non zero number for x and a zero number for y
It needs to follow vector space axiom... which is what you're trying to disprove here.
What you are missing is that this operation is not the same as the one you are used to
can you please explain what you mean by this?
It literally says "scalar multiplication is redefined as ..."
vector space = set + addition operation + scalar multiplication operation
if you change the addition or scalar multiplication operations you get a different vector space, even for the same set
It means "forget old scalar multiplication and use this one"
But thats the thing i don’t understand
1- how “this new one” makes sense
And
2- how are we allowed to change definitions like that
For example, $\mathbb{N}$ is either a trivial vector space, or you can redefine it by defining addition as multiplication and scalar multiplication as exponentiation.
Xwtek
you can define a vector space with any set, any addition operation, and any scalar multiplication operation (provided they follow the axioms). they don't have to be the "standard" operations
is N a vector space? over what field/operations?
$\mathbb{N}$
Xwtek
N isn't a field?
Xwtek
but the scalar multiplication is how multiplication works.. like c * u = c(x,y) = (cx,cy) thats just how multiplication works right
no, that's just a definition
you can define it a different way and get a different vector space
It doesn't even have to be actual multiplication.
in the case of $\mathbb{Q}^+$, the scalar multiplication is exponentiation
Xwtek
you have closure issues methinks
wdym, $q^n$ is always rational for integer n
Xwtek
(Also, the vector addition here is actually multiplication)
integers aren't a field
I guess it's just a module.
But I think there should be an example where the scalar multiplication is not a regular multiplication.
I don’t get this concept
I thought scalar multiplication and vector addition all followed a standard operation
and that same standard operation is what makes them a vector space
no, they are part of the definition of the vector space along with the set
so there is a standard definition right
for scalar multiplication and vector addition
And there is also "nonstandard" definition
But then the vector space is for the standard definition right
R^+ over R (or over Q if you want)
the vector space could be either. you just have to specify which operations you're talking about
unless otherwise specified you usually use the "standard" operations. but there's nothing special about them other than that they are common
oh theyre called “unusual vector space “ when you define the scalar multiplication or vector addition differently??
unusual is not a technical term here
It's just the title of the slide
it is just describing the fact that it may seem strange to students
because like usually if it isnt the standard way of using scalar multiplication or vector addition then that would violate the axiom
But not always
well certainly most "nonstandard" operations would violate the axioms. but some of them will follow the axioms and then they're perfectly valid as vector space operations
if you want to you can use something like $\oplus$ and $\odot$ to distinguish the nonstandard'' operations from the standard'' operations
κλαουντ ☁ (cloud)
what do those symbols mean
that doesn't change any of the math, just a notational difference
they mean addition and scalar multiplication, they're just circled to denote that they're "nonstandard" in some way
if using regular + and * makes you uncomfortable
well if you were talking about R^2 being a vector space everyone would assume you mean using the standard operations, unless you specifically said otherwise
also if a vector space uses a non standard operation does that make it a different kind of vector space
there's nothing mathematically different about vector spaces with nonstandard operations
only a difference in what's conventional
wait how
clearly here they made k a power for example
i mean that they're both vector spaces
vector spaces have the same fundamental properties no matter what the particular operations they use happen to be
so if i had two sets, V and U and both had identical elements
But i chose to define the scalar multiplication and vec addition differently for both
They remain the same vector space?
If yes in what sense?
no, they are different vector spaces
so whats the same thing that you were referring to
i just mean there is nothing mathematical that says one vector space is "standard" and the other is "nonstandard"
.
that's just based on convention
okay but in the problem, shouldn’t there be a mathematical logic that makes y always 0?
like I understand that if you wanna keep a valid vector space you can define scalar addition and scalar multiplication however you want unless it doesnt violate the axioms (hope this is correct)
but then i just wanna know what their definition means
Wait
i keep thinking of it as the standard way maybe I shouldn’t do that
All the definition says is "to scalar multiply by a scalar c, multiply the first component by c and set the second component to 0"
you should verify which axioms are true if you follow that definition, and which are false
right but the setting to 0 part doesnt it need to follow some mathematical operation that makes sense?
like see how in c*(x,y) the components are literally being multiplied
= (cx,cy)
you can view it as multiplying the second component by 0 if you want
which.. makes sense
but thats just so random
whether an operation "makes sense" doesn't have anything to do with it. all it needs to do is produce a valid output for every input
or have the definitions always been irrelevant to how we use standard math?
Even in c*(x,y)?
the vector space axioms don't care whether a function makes intuitive sense, they only care if it follows the axioms
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Hi
I have a math question in french 🇫🇷
send it
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@frank geyser Has your question been resolved?
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I don't see how you are getting things like an i infront of partial u/partial y
You should probably write out the chain rule more carefully because it's hard to see what you are thinking
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You want f(z) = f(u,v) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y), not what you wrote
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This should have been explained in your book by the way, that u and v are real-valued functions with real variables x and y
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You are overcomplicating it by having this discussion instead of just doing the exercise
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what is partial f / partial u if not the thing you wrote right next to it.
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You still need the partial derivatives with respect to z
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The way I would do this is to write
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial z} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} \frac{\partial x}{\partial z} + \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}$$
then calculate $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ separately, then substitute it all in.
JessicaK
The way you are doing this by trying to cram every part of the chain rule in a single line makes it very hard for me to follow
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What is the length of PQ when □ABCD is folded as point A is on line BC and AE = 5,EB = 4,BP = 3?

whats P? whats Q? am I supposed to read it from your mind or smthn?
where is Q?
post the full problem
Gauss law
triangle EBP should be similar to FRQ
Its helpful to track some angles in the figure and figure out the similarity
yeah you can angle-chase it to see why
||PQC is better imo||
fair enough
There is no shared angle other than 90°?
well, angle QCP is also 90
and importantly, what must angle EPQ be
cause where was angle EPQ originally before the folding?
Angle DAE
yep!
so you can start with angle EPB = x
then chase to angle PQC and that should tell you something
@faint grove Has your question been resolved?
Can't figure out what ratio are the area of EBP and FRQ
instead of FRQ, consider PCQ. That one is much easier to handle
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I'd like my work checked
We first set $x \in S_1 = (A\cap B)\cup(A\cap C)$ and $x \in S_2 = A\cap(B\cup C)$\
Let's analyze $S_1$ first.\
According to $S_1$, $x\in A$(otherwise it cannot be true whatsoever)\
x can be either in B or C\
Now for $S_2$\
Known fact: $x\in A$\
x also can be either in B or C.
e4 e5 Qh5 Nc6 Bc4 Nf6 Qxf7#
Forgot to mention, either B or C has to contain x in both cases
I have a doubt, though. Shouldn't $S_1$ be equivalent to $S_2$?
e4 e5 Qh5 Nc6 Bc4 Nf6 Qxf7#
They are yes
I imagine that's what this is building up to
thanks
Another quick question
So like range is "elements that have appear" and codomain is "elements that can possibly appear", right?
Yes
ah yes, that's clear
A bit categorically, codomain is the domain of f_inv
Where f: A → B and f_inv: B → P(A)
Every function is invertible under this definition of inverse
yep, learnt that b4
Nice nice
ye, is my thought process all right?
@calm harbor Has your question been resolved?
yes, sry I have an emergency. Will be back later
Thanks for you time 
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No worries, feel free to tag me when you come back 🌺
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For known $\omega, A, B$, how do I go about finding out what $R$ and $\varphi$ are
[
A\6\cos{\omega t} + B\6\sin{\omega t} = R\6\cos{\omega t + \varphi}
]
Trig
Or another method involves tranform Acos(wt) and Bsin(wt) to rotated vector around the origin
Which I forget its name
Rewrite in terms of complex exponentials, you mean?
expand out R cos(ωt + φ)
you get $R \cos(\omega t) \cos(\varphi) - R \sin(\omega t) \sin(\varphi)$
Ann
therefore you should have $R\cos(\varphi) = A$ and $R \sin(\varphi) = -B$
Ann
this amounts to a translation from rectangular to cartesian coords
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how many quadruples of (A, B, C, D) exist such that there's a function f : Z -> Q that fulfills those conditions?
i don't know where to even start
@white hull Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Well you could start factoring out the quadratic
define S_1 = n^2-2n-1
and S_2 = n^2-4n+1
S_1 = (n-1)^2-2
s_2 = (n-2)^2-3
can look at two diff paramters give the same x
S_1(n) = S_1(m) = (n^2-2n-1) - (m^2-2m-1) = 0
simplify and n=m or m = 2-n
S_2 similiar idea
S_2(n) - S_2(m) = (n-m)(n+m-4)
@white hull , you can speak indonesian?
yeah
ok, jadi km udah tahu kah kalo 2022 = 47^2 -4*47 + 1
itu udh sangat berguna utk mengetahui C dan D sih sbg first step
oh jadi |47-c| + |47-D|=90
ya
dan untuk poin ke1 dan ke 2, kalo n =1 maka dua2 nya menjadi f(-3)
jadi, f(-2) = (A+B)* (2+1/2) = |1-C|+ |1-D|
eh
wait i might be wrong
-2 sori
now the question menjadi jauh lebih simpel sih
i hope this gives you some good insight
bukannya harusnya 2A+B/2?
i still don't really get how to continue though
lemme think
yg bikin susah tuh keknya |n-c| + |n-d| nya
jd mungkin kamu bisa memgabig menjadi 4 kasus
yaitu 47-c positif dan 47-d jg ,
47-c negatif
47-d negatif
dua2 negatif
jadi ga ada absolute valuenya lagi, aljabarnya lebih straightforward gitu
tapi kalau satunya negatif dan satunya positif fungsinya jadi konstanta kan?
lalu kalo tahu |47-c| + |47-d| = 90, nanti bisa mengetahui juga |1-c| + |1-d|
eh
kek nya engga
yah kalo 47-c iitu negatif (sbg cth), |47-c| = c-47
oh iya iya
jadi c-d
yah its so easy now
2 kasus susah dan 2 kasus f(x) itu konstanta
dyk how to continue?
jadi kalau kasus 47-c negatif 47-d positif jadi C-D=90
iya
hmm tapi kasus konstanta gak bisa kan karena kondisi pertama
ya i think
jadi antara dua duanya positif atau dua duanya negatif?
sorry i am kind of lagging
keknya yg 1 pos 1 neg itu bukan konstanta
i am so brainfoged rn
but i think so far the problem has been simplified quite a lot
so you should try to do it
ok i think i get the rest of the problem and i'm pretty sure the constant solution works too but just changing A and B
thanks for the help
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lol it's fine, the n^2-4n+1=2022 was something i would have missed
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AAA i need help 😭 firstly im assuming I made the wrong choice for u because this didn’t simplify the integral one bit and js seems like a vicious loop atp if I try to integrate with parts again… can anyone tell me how to select u more wisely or if I made a mistake here 😞
You're on the right track really
Now u-sub the integral on the left just like what you did with the original
I think if I use u=e^ax again it won’t get me anywhere in simplifying it though
Yes
But
should i restart the question with u=sinbx instead
You will end up with the integral just the same as the original with different coefficient
I=..... + mI then you cam move I to the left side
I(1-m)=..... the right hand side won't have any integral
mm ok wait ill try it
fionna how do yk so much math 😭
sobs cuz wtaf
this is certainly smth
who wanna check my work for me 😊
i did this halfheartedly btw its prolly littered with errors
ill check it too 💔
should be ae^ax 2nd line
😐
isnt v = -cos(bx)/b?
wow
it is
...
now i acc give up
ty guys
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🪦
Yeah that's a legit crash out
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how can i express this in writing?
Well (fog)^-1 = g^-1 o f^-1 so yeah it commutes
we would say that inverting distributes over multiplication composition if that equation were true in general
Well so yeah thats what cloud said
ah i see
but is this multiplication? its composite
typo, composition not multiplication
so i could phrase it as "the composition of two inverse functions is equivalent to the inverse of the composition in opposite order" ?
that seems fine
we can actually note that this is true for any number of function compositions
so on top of that i could write note: this is true for any number of function compositions ? or just leave it as that
As you want ig
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how do i prove this without L'Hopital
you know exp is growing a lot faster than x^beta
Take the log? Then it's basically x - log(x)
yea?
Then the derivative of that is positive increasing
yea i did that and got (ln (f(x)))' = a - b/x
then the derivative tends to a as x goes to infinity
something feels missing to me tho
a is positive, so there is a point past which that derivative is always positive
b is also positive, so that derivative is increasing
i think it's just me not confident about my answer
like there are functions that have positive derivative but does not tend to infinity
so it worries me
Because the positive derivative tends to zero
Here it tends to a which is positive, so intuitively the area under the curve gets infinitely large because the gap between the curve and the x-axis has a minimum width (past a certain point)
ye i think i can just write the derivative tends to a and hope that'd be an acceptable answer
The easiest way without Lhopital's is almost always going to be to Taylor expand if you ignore the fact that people then tend to run in circles arguing whether that is valid or not.
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How do I set up the double integral for parts a and b and how do I approach problems like these in general?
Here is my work but I know this is incorrect.
Why are you writing that 1/3 <= y_1
You want the probability that Y_1 is at most 1/2
there are numbers below 1/3 that you are elminating from contention
Like, what if y_2 is 1/100 for example, then y_1 can take on any value from 1/100 to 1/3 not captured in your writing
okay that makes sense
You are integrating two things here, the square and the triangle, if you integrate dy2 first, then it isn't dy2 simple and you need to separate it into two integrals
if you do dy1 first, you can see it is dy1 simple
what do you mean dy simple
I am surprised I cannot find a set of lecture notes on this online, but you should have had this in your Calculus course
A region is basically x or y simple if it is bounded from the top and the bottom by a single continuous function
I mean, technically the top is bounded by a piecewise continuous function, but you usually treat this case as two integrals, the one bounded by the line y = x and the one bounded by the line y = C
or in this notation, the one bounded by y_2 = y_1 and the one bounded by y_2 = 1/2
so, y_2 is bounded at the top by y_1 and the bottom at 0
Yes, but only for the triangle part
and since y_1 is bounded at the top at 1/2, the top bound of y_2 should be 1/2?
nah wait that actually doesnt sound right top bound is still y_1
Do you recognize that you are integrating the area of two shapes, a triangle and a square?
In one integral, the top is a diagonal line, and in the second, the top is a horizontal line
so the triangle is 0 <= y_2 <= y_1 and 0 <= y_1 <=1/3
What you just wrote is a rectangle
and the square is from 0 <= y_2 <= 1/3 and 1/3 <= y_1 <= 1/2
well, a square more precisely
y_2 is bounded by y_2 = y_1 Is that correct
apologies
Yes
Alternatively, if you did dy_1 first, the top curve is just the line y_1 = 1/2 and the bottom line is y_1 = y_2
Thank you so much
you are the best it all makes sense now
apologies for taking your time
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,rcw
shit how do i rotate
@mossy widget Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
anyone????
<@&286206848099549185>
whats the topic called
@mossy widget Has your question been resolved?
I might be wrong but I think that $\nabla(\nabla\Phi(q))$ is not well defined. Usually what you are trying to write there is the Hessian of $\Phi$ that can be written as $\nabla\cdot\nabla^{T}$, where $\nabla$ is a column vector. However, if you take that into consideration, your answer should be the same. To be sure, if I had to write the way you did I would say that $\frac{d}{dt}(\nabla(\Phi(q)))=\dot{q}\cdot\frac{\partial}{\partial q}\nabla(\Phi(q))$
KonoEmllikDa
yes that makes sense
i thought the same
as the gradient of the gradient is acc the laplace operator i think
The laplace operator for a scalar function is the divergence of the gradient
No problem what really matters is that you know how works
btw have u done lagrangian mechanics before?
But for a vector field is a little different, so you should be aware of it
I wouldn't say I'm an expert, but I had a basic introduction to it in classical mechanics
If there is a problem you have you can send and if I can help I'll do my best
thx
its the final one
ive done the first thing, which is proving the time deriative equals 0
i can send my solution for that if u want
im now stuck on checking if this applies to the following lagrangian theyve given
i started by differentiating L wrt q dot
Sure, I'm trying to do it, so can you show your work just to see if we are on the same track?
At least what you did seems right, we got the same result
for both
ok
idk how to go further now from the 2nd page
like im assuming u can simplify that derivative
If you use Euler-Lagrange equations on that Lagrangian you get that $q(\dot{q}\cdot\dot{q}+q\cdot\ddot{q})=0$, but after that I'm not finding a way to further simplifying it
KonoEmllikDa
hmm
but you should try to apply EL to it and find it
ok i will try thanks
i will close it this channel as i need to log off
ty for ur help
i will lyk if i get an answer
Also the question seems to imply that you can't really show that it is equal to 0, the problem is showing that it's different to it, so if you can't do it, at least try to find the other conserved quantity
Ok good luck with your study
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Ya un - devant
donc le b est negative?
Je sais pas ce que tu appelles b mais tu as que sqrt(x+5) est définie sur [-5,+inf[ et que donc en changeant le signe c'est sur ]-inf, -5]
donc si il y avait pas de - c'est [-5,+inf[
Oui
le b c'est le chiffe avant le paranthese
ici c'est -1
donc le b est negative
tu comprend je veut dire quou? @limber hearth
Non mais l'important c'est que tu as compris pourquoi le domaine c'est d)
Est-ce le cas?
non parce que je comprend pas le truc du signe
le b ici
il y a un chiffre ici
-1
Et bien tu résoud une inéquation
Faut que la quantité sous la racine sois positif
Donc -(x+5) >= 0
Puis de ça tu obtiens ton intervalle
si c'etait -(-x +5) on fait quoi
La même chose
donc la courbe va vers la gauche?
Mais avec -(-x+5)
Comme ça : \ ?
Alors oui
ok c sa le truc que je comprend pas
quand jai appris les racine carree
quand le a est positive et le b est positive le courbe va en haut a droite
regade
La racine carrée ne change en rien la fonction qui est dedans
le a est positif
mais le b est negative
b = -1
pourquoi sa va en bas
c'est en haut a gauche
donc a*sqrt(bx + c) ?
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Ok admettons
est ce que le a est positif ou negative
4sqrt(-x-5) c'est la même chose que sqrt(-2x-10) oui ?
oui
Bon et la racine est strictement croissante donc elle n'influence pas la "forme" de la courbe si tu veux
comment on sais le elle est strictement croissant
Donc enfaîte sqrt(-2x-10) va "aller du même côté" que -2x-10
comment on sais que elle est strictement croissante?
k yo donc si c'est f(x) = 4sqrt(x + 5) − 1?
comment est ce que sa va vers le gauche
quand c'est -
ta dit le direction change
donc sa va comme sa \
comment est ce que meme sans le signe - sa va encore /
ok mais on peut pas avoir un racine negatif
ok mais c'est (x+5)
pas -x -5
donc sa va quelle direction
a droite? \
Et bien dans ce cas ça va du côté de x+5
ta dit que quand c'est - sa change de direction jcomprend pas
comment on sais
Si x <= y => f(x) <= f(y) alors la fonction est croissante
De manière plus générale si f est de la forme ax+b alors f est croissante si et seulement si a est positif
Ici on a x+5
Donc a = 1 >= 0
Donc croissante
Et même strictement croissante si a > 0 (vrai pour x+5 donc)
Pour -x-5 c'est strict décroissant puisque a = -1 <= 0
mais c'est sa l'equation
c'est -(x+5)


i dunoo cuz I'm unemployed?