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you can let AB = 1 for example
then EA/AB = PC/CB
7/1 = h/CB so CB = h/7
then AC = 1 - h/7
so you can use similarity on triangles APC and ADB again to come up with an equation in h
Is the one on the bottom a formula? Or just an example
it's a formula actually
here a = 7 and b = 12
the harmonic mean is 2/(1/a + 1/b)
yeah
no
seems like you didn't understand what I wrote here
Do you know what the similarity in a triangle is?
look at triangles APC and ADB
name every intersection so we can communicate
can you come up with an equality relating the sides
like how since AEB is similar to CPB, EA/AB = PC/CB
named.
AP/AC=AD/AB
PB/PC=EB/AB
I mean don't use the diagonals
only use the sides AC, AB, PC, DB
Ohh
EB/EA
I’m so confused sorry 😭
anyway since you understand the concept I'll just tell you
PC/AC = DB/AB
but if you've been following through my working, you'll know that AB = 1
AC = 1 - h/7
DB = 12
and we let PC = h
so we want to solve for h
H/1-h/7=12
4.42 ft?
,calc 84/19
Result:
4.4210526315789
yeah
you can also rearrange this to get 7h = 84 - 12h or 7h + 12h = 84
so if you now work with any pole heights a and b, not just 7 and 12
you actually find you get (a + b)h = ab
hence h = ab/(a + b) = 1/(a/ab + b/ab) = 1/(1/b + 1/a)
no worries!!
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how do we solve this one? i used l'hôpital's rule and my answer is coming out to be infinity
.-.
but still, how do we go with it
take k = pi-2x
how does that help?
shouldn't it be (pi-k)/2?
ah it's in third quadrant
$\frac{1+cos(\pi-k)}{k^2}$
Alaska
ye
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Let $Y_1,Y_2,…$ be an i.i.d. sample of random variables, each with a Uniform(0,3) distribution. Define a new sequence of random variables $X_1,X_2,…$ by $$X_n = \frac1{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} Y_i^2$$
Using the Law of Large Numbers, determine the value of a $\in \mathbb{R}$ for which $\mathbb{P}(\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} X_n = a) = 1$
Xotiic
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i need help with geogebra
@median tinsel Has your question been resolved?
@median tinsel Has your question been resolved?
i just wanted to know how to make a fractal in new geogebra
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is there any mistake here?
On the first sentence of your proof: Is there some guarantee that the $p_0$ will be in $\textbf{every}$ open ball? Or is it more that, for every $r>0$, there will be some $p_r\in\Delta$ in the open ball $B_r(z)$? How you wrote $p_0$ implies that it is a fixed value.
SWR
oh yeah, the point is proving that for a contradiction
should`ve stated that
I get that you are proving by contradiction
there must be a point in every ball
Yes. a point. But your proof implies that the same point would be in every ball, which is not necessarily true.
p_0 is a fixed value
nono
there is some point, the first one is p_0. then i shrink the ball and there must be another point, say p_1. then i shrink it again and there must be p_2 and so forth
p_0 is not in the second ball, p_1 is not in the third, p_2 is not in the forth and so on
oh yeah
i should`ve said "for some r > 0"
my bad
sort-of
sigmund, is english your primary language?
for some r > 0 (since it should be true for all r > 0)
no
Allow me to make a minor correction then, to better express your proof in more standard mathematical wording
"for some r > 0" reads as "there exists some r > 0".
You do want "for any r > 0".
However, "let p_0 for any r>0" reads as "this p_0 is fixed", which you do not want.
And "let p_0 for some r>0" reads as if you are only looking at one specific r>0, not generalizing to any r>0.
The best wording (in my opinion) would be "For any r>0, assume there is some p_0"
yeah i know what it means
optionally, you could say "assume for contradiction" to be more clear.
Which I addressed here
However, "let p_0 for any r>0" reads as "this p_0 is fixed", which you do not want.
p_0 is in some ball since for any r > 0 some point is in the open r-ball
Maybe your edited proof makes the point clearer. But when I use the context of the remainder of your proof, this line still sounds wrong to me.
lemme rewrite it then
appreciate it
Overall, I like the idea of your proof though. And use of the word "absurd" is amusing to me
@dark stirrup
Okay that reads better
At a glance, your proof looks sufficient, but let me be certain for you
hmmm i think thats quite common among portuguese speaking math students
I know there's another way to prove this, so I'd not want to send you off with an incorrect proof
I have seen it a few other times around here, so that makes sense. In English mathematics, we would often say "which leads to a contradiction" or "which is contradictory" or something like that. But I like yours. It adds some joy (for me as an English speaker) to see something a little different, but not detracting from the quality of the proof.
virgin "it's a contradiction" x chad "it's farfetched"
thatd be wild
In English "absurd" is a more accusatory/hostile way of saying "contradictory". "Contradiction" has very little emotional connections, but "absurd" can be seen as criticizing someone.
But take my words lightly, as I do not represent every English speaker, and I have zero problem with your use here.

I'm not brave enough to use farfetched in my proofs
Anyway, back to reading your proof
yup same goes for pt
when i first learned maths and saw ppl writing "absurd" like that it often felt a bit too much to call things absurd
but it really comes from latin, "reductio ad absurdum", which roughly translates to "reduction to absurd"
maybe the lusophone tradition inherited this latin logical habit
You conclude that $p_1\in\Delta$ is in $B(z, d(z, p_0))$ from your assumption that every open ball around $z$ has some point from $\Delta$. Am I understanding that correctly?
SWR
it's virtually the same as the previous statement
since for all balls theres some point in delta, there must be this point p_1 in this ball
Ah. very true. Also why we end some proofs with "Q.E.D."
I figured. At first, I didn't understand how you came to that conclusion, I had to fill that line in myself. It may not heart to mention how you got p1, but feel free to omit it if you want to keep your proof short
You go on to prove something by induction. You don't explicitly mention the proof is inductive, but I understand your work. In my style, I mention it explicitly, but your approach is fine.
oh yeah i swiftly hid the induction there
Your proof is sufficient
gold star
🌟
Have you studied continuity in metric spaces yet?
nope!
not yet
continuity is chapter 2 of this book
its a shame you english native speakers dont have this book, its so good
and its not common for a book written in pt to be better than the english ones
so i think it does it
dude u have no idea how much i tried NOT TO THINK of M as a field while doing this problem
bc i could force the cartesian to be some vector space and dang vectors spaces are just nice
its much easier to think of balls in vector spaces
but M could be literally anything
I had the same problem when I first started studying metric and topological spaces.
The reason I asked is because there is a nice, more generalized proof to this problem that uses properties of continuity.
I believe you. But I was very satisfied with my topology book. A little too introductory, but it covered the material well and the exercises were still challenging (to me).
so let's all be happy we all get a nice book
yesss
what book was it btw
im thinking abt maybe after i clear this book i start doing munkres topology book problems like crazy
Introduction to Metric and Topological Spaces, by Wilson A Sutherland.
it's very introductory, but it's a great start
i see
But that book had a problem which is a more generalized version of your problem
i'm curious now
i'm not a complete illiterate when it comes to topology so i might understand it
send it pls
There is also a third proof that doesn't require continuity. I think it may be a simplification of your proof
Sure, but it's built around toopics that I do not think you have studied yet
such as?
a hausdorff space is a space with the hausdorff property right
topological spaces, topological product spaces, continuity, hausdorff spaces
ah you know that
yes
in which for any two points in the space theres a disjoint neighbourhood containing x and another containing y
(iirc)
Yes it is.
And its easily provable, since at any two distinct points, there is a non-zero distance, and at each point you can make an open ball of less than half that distance
The converse of this statement also has neat implications. If a space is not Hausdorff, then it is not metrizable. So you can definitively state that there exists topological spaces that cannot be expressed as a metric space.
oh i think you meant the counterpositive
not the converse
interesting
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what does the given by u x v = [...] mean?
wdym what does it mean
isnt that just the cross product formula for a 3d space
👍
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I have to find the derivative of this equation and this is practice for the AP Calculus exam? Also it's question 9
are you asking for the second derivative of $\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}$ or all the exs from A to E?
mercidy
The second derivate of 1/square root of x
But idk if that derivate is the correct derivate of the equation
okai you should approach this ex by considering the square root simply x^(1/2)
So it would be 1/x^(1/2) as the first derivate?
Then take the derivate of this equation?
it would be 1/2 * 1/x^(1/2)
Can u explain why I would multiply 1/2 to 1/x^(1/2)?
yes sure, how do you take the derivative of x^2?
It would be 2x
you take the exponent (2) and multiply it by x^(2-1) right?
Yes
in this case you do the exact same thing, you take the exponent (1/2) and multiply it by x^((1/2)-1), so 1/2*1/x^(1/2)
So it would look something like this?
oh ops i was wrong i thought we were taking the derivative of sqrt(x) sorry
okai the logic is always the same
but in this case you have x^-(1/2)
Wait I'm confused??
1/sqrt(x) is x^-(1/2) right?
I'm getting myself confused
yeah my fault I was totally wrong sorry
Am I suppose to take the derivate of square root of x while taking the derivate if natural log??
Oh no ur good
no no, you are not taking the derivative of 1/x, but 1/sqrt(x)
basically you are taking the derivative of x^(-(1/2))
so, like before, you take -(1/2) and multiply it by x^(-(1/2)-1)
-(1/2)-1 = -(3/2)
so you get $-\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{x^{\frac{3}{2}}}$
mercidy
right?
okai i'm really sorry i promise you that now i know what are we searching for, f(x) = ln(sqrt(x)), i thought it was f(x)=1/sqrt(x) because i only say your pencil on the right ahaha
okai i'm making this more confusing than how it should be
restart
Lol oke
in general, when we are taking the derivative of a ln, we get a fraction, in which the numerator is the derivative of the element in the logaritm, and the denominator is that element
so the derivative of ln(sqrt(x)) is (derivative of sqrt(x))/sqrt(x)
right?
mhm, what is the derivative of sqrt(x)?
x^-1/2
consider it x^(1/2)
okay yes, but remember the *(1/2)
so its (1/2)*(x^-(1/2))
imma use latex cause of the impossibility to reading xD
$\frac{d}{dx}\sqrt{x}=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}$
mercidy
so you have that for your numerator, and at the denominator you have only sqrt(x)
yeah i'm really sorry i created a lot of confusion xD
No it's oke ur good
you're doing great, the important thing here is to remember to use the power rule for any root
so we have $\frac{d}{dx}ln(\sqrt(x))=\frac{\frac{d}{dx}\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{x}}=\frac{\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}}{\sqrt{x}}$
mercidy
Ooh okay it's starting to click now
okai so did we figure out the first derivative?
Currently working on it
good
Is this the next step to take?
And would u get rid of the fraction or no?
Wait nvm I messed up lol
Would the next derivate be set up as the question below the first derivative equation?
okai wait, first, what do you think about the first derivative? How could you rewrite it?
Would it be x^(-1/2) / x^(-1/2)?
well, dividing is equal to multiplying with the inverse right?
so you could muliply 1/2sqrt(x) * 1/sqrt(x)
obtaining 1/2sqrt(x)*sqrt(x) right?
For 1/sqrt(x)?
I'm sorry calculus is confusing to me sometimes😭
Ooooh
U mean multiplying both fractions right?
yess right
Lol oke
dw completely normal
Is it -1/x^2?
mercidy
perfect
Thank u for the help!
nothing!
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why is zero vector orthogonal to every vector when it kinda has no vector at all
or like no magnitude
Zero vector is a vector
yea ik that
it has magnitude 0
A point
right
Assuming you mean euclidian iner product?
parallel to any direction even when you think about it
It is orthogonal because the inner product with any other vector is 0.
but isnt the definition of orthongal also that it is perpendicular
That isn't necessarily the definition.
Because dot product is always 0
Implies costehda is 0 so angle is 90 degree
but there is no angle
ok i can see this
Zero is a bit of a weird case, its hard to interpret visually, but this might help:
- Dot product of the zero vector with any other vector is zero. A zero dot product implies orthogonality.
- If two vectors are parallel, one vector can be expressed as a multiple of another. You can't multiply the zero vector by any scalar to get a nonzero vector.
this helps a lot
Orthogonality is most rigourosly defined through the inner (dot) product. The "two vectors make a 90 degree angle" definition doesn't work outside of R2. And since the zero vector isn't really in R2, that def collapses.
so since its not parallel then its perpendicular
but you can always say 0 = 0 * v for any vector v though
i think ur using 0 as a scalar
One is scaled another is vector
You can
V1 = kv2 implies V1 and V2 are parallel
Yeah, I guess it would have to go both ways for two vectors to be able to be parallel. Either way, go with the inner product. Once you decouple the idea that "orthogonal means perpendicular", and go with "orthogonal means zero inner product", it'll be more useful.
But when you take V2 as 0 vector it won't work , so zero vector is just a special case
myeah
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Oh btw I forget to mention when doing dot product
V1.V2 = | v1| |V2| costehda
Here both side will yield 0 in case of 0 vector , so the angle can be anything
Which is true because 0 vector is just a point at orgin
And you can't define angle between a point and line
that was my original gripe
but yea I get it now thanks
Yeah and its correct
.reopen
✅
can someone give me a quick summary of the goal of linear algebra
uhhh
depends
econ + math?
yup
well
from a pure math standpoint
its fundemental for a lot of algebra
and has a lot of connections with general functions/mappings
i'm trying to do a more applied route
Linear algebra? Like x+y= 10 stuff? Or with lines?
A lot of the properties are especially important as you abstratc away the connetcion with a "plane"
i see
partial diff and optimization
good for ML, calculating stuff fast
IMO its just a general basis for a lot of math
i c
bc i have a final coming up and I wanted to know how I should like view the questions
The goal of linear algebra imo, is to develop a level of intuition for relations, functions/mappings/transformations
A goal for what exactly a space is, what is a thing, a bunch of things, and a sub-bunch of things in things.
I think were the most important topics that (i wish) i understood.
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My math teach wanted me to analyze a piecewise function and I can't decide if I need to mention a hasy that doesn't effect the function 2^x bc its cut off at x=2
@ember bolt Has your question been resolved?
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hello?
i need help with the last part
why do we take N to be the max of those numbers specifically?
nevermind i just got it
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I am confused with the pi variable I do not understand how I am supposed to horizontally stretch it.
pi/6 shifts the graph to the right by pi/6
,tex .transformation rules
ℝαμOmeganato5
pi/6
stretch is not the same as shift, these are very different
"horizontally stretch"
i just want to know how far its stretched
it's not stretched
whats the period
2pi
2pi/6pi
lol
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How would I start this question?
increasing corresponds to y’ > 0 and at a decreasing rate means y’ is decreasing so y’’ < 0
So do I take the derivative and then see which values are greater than and less than zero when plugged into y? When do I take the second derivative? Or am I comprehending this all wrong
well first you should find when y’ > 0 since you’re already given y’
then you’d take the derivative yes but tbh you should have this memorized since it’s a logistic DE
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Can someone explain the jump from these lines?
is that a partial derivitive
Yes
which part
Sorry wrong one
Two sec
alr
what part are you confused about
This is my professors working, I’m just working through this example myself
So here I’m confused about the second line
How does it become that?
Here’s what I’ve done so far
x = rcostheta and y = rsintheta
polar
all good
I’ll keep channel open cus I might need help in the next step
But let me try that rn
@sharp locust Has your question been resolved?
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Hello
how do I close this thing
By typing .close
It looks like the ABC triangle is isosceles, use that and the facts that BAC + ACB + ABC = 180, ACP = BAC
named as Alternate segment theorem
I can solve that question
but
I have some problem understanding something
What is it?
I am typing it
@tawdry thicket Has your question been resolved?
Question:
In the given diagram, PQ is a tangent to the circle at C, and AB is a chord of the circle. We know that ∠QCB (the angle between the tangent and the chord) is equal to ∠ABC (the angle subtended by the chord on the opposite side of the circle), as per the Alternate segment theorem in circles.
Now, my confusion arises and this is what we have concluded from the diagram that PQ and AB are not parallel.
So I remember that if we draw 2 parallel lines and draw a straight line intersecting them then alternate angles are equal
If we assume that PQ and AB are parallel then even if we neglect the circle then we would know that ∠ABC is equal to ∠QCB and we also know that in current situation, they are not parallel so if we were to make this thing in image from our assumption of the parallelism here (Remember that we are neglecting the circle here) we will rotate our PQ or AB, Now I say that we will be rotating the PQ, earlier when they were parallel ∠QCB = ∠ABC for obvious reasons of what we know about parallel lines with a line intersecting them. This is obvious that when we rotate that thing, ∠QCB's angle will change but the Alternate segment theorem says that they are still equal.
How in mathematics 2 different angles have one magnitude or be equal to one angle?
I am doomed, can someone end my confusion?
This is refined question by ChatGPT, IDK if it can help you understand whats the main thing but something is better than nothing
Question:
In the given diagram, PQ is a tangent to the circle at C, and AB is a chord of the circle. According to the Alternate Segment Theorem, ∠QCB (the angle between the tangent and the chord) is equal to ∠ABC (the angle subtended by the chord on the opposite side of the circle).
Now, here’s where my confusion lies:
We observe from the diagram that PQ and AB are not parallel. However, I recall that if we draw two parallel lines and intersect them with a transversal, the alternate angles formed are always equal. So, if we assume that PQ and AB were parallel and completely ignore the circle, we can conclude that ∠QCB = ∠ABC because of the alternate angles property.
But, in reality, PQ and AB are not parallel. If we were to create this situation by rotating PQ (while still ignoring the circle), the orientation of PQ changes, which should also change ∠QCB. Despite this, the Alternate Segment Theorem states that ∠QCB remains equal to ∠ABC.
My confusion is as follows:
- If the orientation of
PQchanges and∠QCBadjusts accordingly, how can it still remain equal to∠ABC, whose value seems fixed within the triangle? - Mathematically, how is it possible for two different angles (
∠QCBand∠ABC) to have the same magnitude, even when the conditions affecting one angle change?
Can someone explain how this works and resolve my confusion? I feel stuck!
Someone help
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✅
Now, my confusion arises and this is what we have concluded from the diagram that PQ and AB are not parallel.
how did you make that conclusion
Every single diagram on the internet shows its not parallel
diagrams aren't necessarily drawn to scale
hmm
based on the values given they are parallel
from altenate angles on parallel lines theorem (converse)
let
there are two different theorems involved here
That happens if BC = AC
They must be parallel for what is happening here buttttttttttttt, internet is confusing
alternate segment theorem relates <BCQ and <BAC
alternate angles on parallel lines theorem relates <BCQ and <ABC
Oh
I understand it now
but it would have been better if they would have put 5 more minutes making those diagrams
diagrams are deliberately made like this
Why tho
to prevent people to determine answers just by "looking at it"
or using protractors/rulers
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I asked ChatGPT before this and it was breaking mathematics
Thank you for help
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Where does the completeness of a Laplace transform come from?
@rich patrol Has your question been resolved?
@rich patrol Has your question been resolved?
Pls help?
What do you mean by "completeness" here?
Meaning within the region of convergence. Given a signal x(t): X(s) is the laplace transform of x(t).
For a given s=sigma+i*omega within the ROC, if I set my sigma, the line along the imaginary axis paramterized by omega has an inverse and if I take the inverse laplace transform it will give me back my function
How do I know I can not lose information transforming from s domain to t domain
And further its like I can pick any sigma as long as it's within the ROC
And then go along a line on the imaginary component and that will totally describe my original function in t domain
It's like if the ROC exists and has a range (a,b) of sigma, s domain gives me infinitely many lines along the imaginary axis (omega) that can map back to my original function in t domain, so although my function has 1 representation in t domain, it can have infinitely many representations in s domain, pretty fascinating.
I think. Maybe I'm wrong on this
<@&286206848099549185> 👉👈🥺
Let me se
Ty boss
It = 62/^9
what's ROC
Sorry, region of convergence
Meant to say "Within the region of convergence, given a signal x(t)..."
@rich patrol Has your question been resolved?
@rich patrol Has your question been resolved?
@rich patrol Has your question been resolved?
@rich patrol Has your question been resolved?
This is by a theorem in complex analysis known as Cauchy's theorem. The integral of any complex differentiable function around a closed loop is equal to zero.
If you imagine a loop that starts at (0,-M), then goes to (sigma,-M), then goes to (sigma,M), then goes to (0,M), then finally back to (0,-M)
You can split it into four parts, two horizontal and two vertical
In many cases as you take the limit as M -> infinity, the horizontal contributions become negligible, and the vertical parts have to cancel out; therefore they have to be equal
So that's how you can justify that integrating along the imaginary axis will give you the same result as integrating along some other vertical line within the ROC
Hope this helps
Ohhhhhh thank you!!!!
I'm going to take a mathematical methods class in physics for complex analysis soon
So I should see this there too
Awesome!
Thanks so much
You're welcome
use .close to close the chat if your question has been answered goodnight!
Ahhh right thanks 🙏
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can anyone help me with calc 1
Sure
What's your question
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Can anyone help with this
isnt BCD a equilateral triange
so all interior angles must be the same
Well do we know that from the question
It looks like it but idk exactly if it is or not
Cos rule I think
lemme try
doesn't work it needs the angle that correlates to the side
When I do law of sines it just doesn't work out
you can get the height
E?
ACE is a 30-60-90 right triangle
how do we know
because you know it has 30 and 90
how do we know it has a 30
yeah
How does this help us get DCA
With that how would that get us BCD
is it a bisector?
use the cosine of angle ECD
yeah that one was 60
don't we just have this
for
ECD
CD is given in the problem
I got this
Could I just law of cosines
sines
with the 90 degree anglke
i think so
why are we even doing this again
because ECD is half of BCD
oh ok
I think I got it, but I have to go to bed
gn
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I've been working on this too long.. I'm making simple mistakes and misunderstanding simple things...
But I can't figure out where this 2 is coming from
And also, when integrating drd(Theta), isn't there supposed to be an additional "r" in the integrand?
could you show the entire question?
note that you are not actually integrating in polar coordinates, you are integrating over a parameterized surface where the parameters are named r and theta because it's based on polar coordinates. the factor that you have to multiply by is taken care of by the cross product.
Well, they've included it in other problems 🤷♂️
i can't really comment on that if you don't give an example
Oh well.
I'm busy with this particular problem at the moment, and I can't understand why it's being inconsistent with what I think I know
Namely, where'd the 2 come from
could you show the earlier part of the solution?
it explains the factor of 2 in the second paragraph
This is so fucking frustrating
And.. how does the cross multiplication eliminate the extra "r"?
As in.. when do I include rdrd(Theta) and when do I just include drd(Theta)?
you include the factor of r if you are integrating in polar coordinates. you instead include the cross product if you are integrating a parameterized surface. although r and theta appear to be polar coordinates, (because the parameterization is based on cylindrical coordinates), really they are parameters. you could call them u and v if that makes it clearer
It doesn't. x and y were swapped for rcos and rsin...
if these aren't polar coordinates (ok, cylindrical, but that's just polar extended along the z axis) then what are they?
Again, rdr was included in other problems
they are parameters used in the parameterization of a surface. similarly "t" is used to parameterize a curve
When do I include it? When do I leave it out? I don't understand the difference
in this case it is not a surface integral at all, but rather a triple integral (that is equal to a certain surface integral according to the divergence theorem)
maybe think of it as a difference between surface integrals and double/area and triple/volume integrals. another way to think about it is that the cross product does the same "job" that the r does elsewhere
I don't know
It seems too arbitrary.. just like the 2... I have no idea when to include it and when not to
My material doesn't explain where a lot of these things come from, or where they go when they're missing
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What’s this called in English?
Euclidian division ?
When do you use it?
To simplify sqrt and also in some number theory
Is it true you use to to find
least common divisor and greatest common multiple?
<@&286206848099549185>
what do you do in this?
Euclidean algorithm is used to find HCF
There are two @opaque dome
Least common multiple - you can use it to find what number can both numbers be multiplied to.
greatest common divisor - you have 2 numbers and you want to find the biggest number that can divide between those two numbers.
<@&286206848099549185>
So euclidian division is also useful for gcd
@hexed rover This is important, learn that.
@bright gazelle Has your question been resolved?
'simplifying a square root'
there's a step by step description of the process on the site.
some vocabulary, some examples. 🙂
"Simplifying a Square Root
Step 1: Find the prime factors of the number inside the radical sign.
Step 2: Group the factors into pairs.
Step 3: Pull out one integer outside the radical sign for each pair. Leave the other integers that could not be paired inside the radical sign.
Step 4: Multiply all the integers outside the radical sign and all the integers remaining inside the radical sign to get the final answer."
Quote from the site I just posted.
I know how to do it
She tells you how to do it 🙂
You just need to find a number that it can be divided to
$sqrt{90}$
Is this acoustic
You started the channel asking for the name of the process. You later voted that your question wasn't answered. I provided the answer.
Shea
nope. that's wrong
Wild123
I am not sure anymore what you're trying to find/do, or what help you need.
Let’s say I have
Shea
How’d I simplify this?
take a pen and paper, and find the prime numbers that have the product 171.
Wild123
$171=... \cdot ... \cdot ...$
Wild123
found a prime divisor?
Shea
don't think so
Okay
Wild123
😄
I think you're trolling. I am slightly amused.
I asked you; take 171, divide it in primes.
You tell me 13, then solve it with wolfram alpha
xd like, what's going on? how do you plan to learn if you search for the answer 
I KNOW
What to do
I understand that
I’d have to guess all square roots table to guess that
Or use that method
123
Oh yeah
Shea
@scenic oar
yes...
Mhm this is ez
If there was +, could we add and do sqrt44?
Wild123
What if it was 41 and 41
what answer would you get?
Wild123
x+x=?
Shea
2x
yes
Ooooh
JINX!
Ok this is so easy
I completely forgot square roots
Never understood them
It's never too late to give square roots another chance 
They’re kinda useless ngl
@bright gazelle Has your question been resolved?
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i was thinking cosine rule
but it could and did get messy
ig for C = pi/2
it becomes
(0,0) (1,0) as the diameter
@rocky glen Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
am i fr never gonna get help wth
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hello
it says since V = span(b1, ..., bm), we know that the system must be consistent
how do we know that its consistent?
i think i missed a couple theorems in my lectures, does anyone know how the system is always consistent?
the matrix equation is equivalent to the linear combination above
and since v is in V, and V = span(B), and by definition span is the set of all linear combinations of b1, ... bm, then we must have that v is in that set and therefore can be expressed as such a linear combination
oh i think i get it
wait a second
so v is already a part of the basis set?
so thats why we can write v as a linear combination?
v is in the larger vector space V
oh right
the span of B is the set of all vectors which can be written as linear combinations of the vectors in B
and we have that V = span(B)
oh so since v is apart of V, and V=span(B), v is apart of the linear combinations of B?
yes
got it got it!
im also a little confused about the last bit
it says
the system made from (b1 ...bm | v) has to be consistent
wait
does this mean b1 ... bm equals v?
also i was also wondering about the term consistent, i think it means that there is at least one solution. but if it can also have infinitely many solutions, how do we know that there is a pivot in every column
sorry i have a bunch of gaps in my knowledge
if you take the linear combination equation at the top and set each entry equal one at a time, then you will get a linear system of equations that can be written as B x = v, where B is the matrix formed by taking each b as a column, x consists of all the coefficients of the linear combination, and v is the same vector as before
then they are writing that system as an augmented matrix
in other words, finding a linear combination that equals v is the same as finding a solution to the linear system
ohh i get it
wait how do we know theres one solution?
could there be infinite solutions?
if the columns of a matrix are linearly independent, there is a pivot in every column
and they say that Theorem 2.37 says that means there is only one solution
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precalc:
h(x) = 29 + 48.8 log (x+1)
therefore x=12 would create
h(12) = 29 + 48.8 log (12+1)
Can you convert log (12+1) into an exponent?
no
you can't convert it
log12 + log 1 = log (12 × 1)
but you don;t have even that
Would it cause problems for me to add 12 and 1 inside the parenthesis?
no
hmm
and log(13) should be convertable
i don't see how
Ok then, what's my next step?
29 + 48.8 log(13)
hmm
i suppose the calculator can solve it (Ans = 83.360. . .)
Just wasnted to see how far i can simplify it
How about this other one?
16ln (10) + 31?
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can someone please help with 13?
,rotate
Which parts are you asking about?
I guess I’m just confused on like b c e and f because they’re not on the graph meaning that they’re undefined I think?
Do you know what f^-1 means?
Another way of thinking of inverses is that if you see f^-1(5), you can think "When the y value is 5, what is the x value?"
oh
So instead of finding 4 on the x axis and tracing up like part a, you can find 5 on the y-axis and trace sideways.
When you have inverse functions, it's just switching the x and y. Like the inverse of y=2x+3 is x=2y+3 and then you rearrange to isolate y again.
but if you graph the f(-1)x the maximum value is 7 and the domain is [-3,4]
The maximum value is 7 because that's where your table ends. In theory, the xy plane extends infinitely.
You just ran out of room because your teacher gave you that much.
but on the graph theoretically of the f^-1x it wouldn’t fit into the domain or the max values
that’s why I’m confused
Looking at this graph, what is the domain and range of the original function?
-5 to -12 inclusive
Right, and the range?
Right, so if you swap those for the inverses, the new domain and range would also be swapped.
okay
So -4 to 7 domain, -5 to -12 range
It's possible that this is one your teacher wasn't aiming for you to draw.
Correct.
That's why I said your teacher didn't give you enough room to actually draw it.
it would be -5
cause the domain and range are flipped
and maximum value is looking for the maximum y
What are the domain and range of the inverse?
We talked about it briefly, just wanted to check that we're on the same page.
The minimum would be -5
RIght.
Sure.
ok I’m proving that these are inverses but I got like something else and they’re supposed to be inverses
ok I’ll rework it
To prove a function is the inverse of the other, just take the inverse of either function, and they should be equal. It looks like you made a compound function.
yea and then u have to solve it because u do f(g(x)) and g(x)) and see if they = x
if one equals x you have to do the other anyway
Narutoes
I’m working through it rn
Gotcha
cause at first I did a different method
of like making the same denominator but it’s easier to keep track and not make mistakes when u multiply by the denominator
to get rid of the complex fraction
I think
From that, you went to $f(g(x)) = \frac{4(-\frac{3x+1}{2x-4})-1}{2(-\frac{3x+1}{2x-4})+3}$?
Narutoes
yep
multiply by the denominator of the complex fraction
then multiply by the 4 and 2 respectively and then simplify
ok I got x finally so I’ll do the other one now
Nice
alright wait could u check my work on this problem
it’s not making sense
,rotate
Narutoes
yes
Then $f(g(x)) = \frac{\sqrt{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}}^2+7}}{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}}}$?
Narutoes
Gross.
It goes on the whole numerator
yes
LaTeX just makes the line short for some reason.
g(x) is all under a square root
Unless I missed something
$f(g(x)) = \frac{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}+7}}{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}}}$
Narutoes
$f(g(x)) = \frac{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}+\frac{7(x^2-1)}{x^2-1}}}{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}}}$
Narutoes
$f(g(x)) = \frac{\sqrt{\frac{7+7(x^2-1)}{x^2-1}}}{\sqrt{\frac{7}{x^2-1}}}$
Narutoes
Did you get something like this so far?
@kind valley Has your question been resolved?
You should cancel root of x^2 -1 and root7
The next step would be $f(g(x)) = \frac{\sqrt{7+7x^2-7}}{\sqrt{7}}$
Narutoes
Which obviously gives you $f(g(x)) = \frac{\sqrt{7x^2}}{\sqrt{7}}$
Narutoes