#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 283 of 1
Yeah
you're still doing something wrong
looks better
don't sweat it, was just pointing it out 😛 everyone makes typos
From 2nd to 3rd step
We multiplied both sides by the inverse
And took another A as a common factor
idk 4 typos in a text so short... 😅
What’s up guys
yeah
I’m learning linear algebra at college this semester
I was wondering if this holds true
I was just thinking about it
R^2 to R^3 transformation can never be onto right?
yep
Because we are increasing the row by one
Multiply by A^-1 and divide by 4
Oh
idk what you mean by this, but a linear transformation from V to W where dim V < dim W cannot be surjective in general
the proof is pretty simple. Suppose {v1...vn} is a basis of V, then {Tv1...Tvn} is a spanning set of ImT. Since n<dim W, this cannot be a basis, so dim Im T != dim W meaning Im T doesn't equal W.
A similar thing holds for transformations between W and V. If dim W > dim V, then T can never be injective (the proof is similar)
i'd just be a little more careful with calling {Tv_i} a basis a priori
spanning set, sure
oh yeah my b
Potato
Is there a way to represent λ_max as a function of a symmetric matrix S?
λ_max is the maximum eigen value of the matrix S.

like u want a notation for λ_max?
Actually, I am trying to do b part here
not like there's an explicit function where you can put in S and expect to get the λ_max
$\lambda_{\text{max}} = \sup_{x\neq 0} \frac{x^TSx}{x^Tx}$
what's S**?
The set of solution $X\cdot A=0$
Potato
,tex \begin{gather*}
X\cdot A = P\cdot A \
\implies (X-P)\cdot A = 0 \
\implies X-P \perp A
\end{gather*}
then dim S** is the dim of the orthogonal subspace of A
which has dim = n-1 (if A is non zero)
You use $\dim A+\dim A^\perp=n$ right ?
Potato
yes
The set of solutions of Ax = 0 is made from the vectors that A sends to 0, i.e. the kernel
Idk what the X dot A is supposed to be though
(although technically A is a vector so dim A is non sensical, use ⟨A⟩ instead )
I thought A is a matrix here, npw X dot A makes sense
⟨A⟩, is this inner product or sth ?
no subspace generated by A, span{A}
I see
( This book if from 1987 or sth, people usually say it used a bad notation, but hmmm this book is easy to read for me )

What's the book

Serge Lang, linear algebra
I love his book 
just a quick subspaces question, If the vector space is all continuous functions on the reals,
would the class of functions 2f(x)=f(2x) be a subspace
I say yes because
2f(0)=f(2*0)=0 so 0 is contained
(f+g)(2x)=f(2x)+g(2x)=2f(x)+2g(x)=2(f+g)(x) so addition is closed,
a(f(2x))=a(2f(x))=2(af(x)) so scalar multiplication is closed
but im not sure
like you already proved it and still not sure 
reason for their disagreement?
said scalar multiplication wasnt actually closed
told me to try a=1/2
which still works
so all dubs today

translate
i define {x,y} as V and the other one as W
and then have to show that V is a part of W and vice versa
but im kinda stuck on how to show that W is a part of V?
any help?
Demonstrate that the eigenvalues of alphaA are ...
Can you always decompose a codomain into the image of a linear transformation direct sum some other subspace? i.e. T(V)+W'
write the eigendecomposition for A
The complement
not needed also may not be possible
I am assuming he has something additional not in the picture
Because they are asking him to prove alpha lambda_1, ...
try to show that αA-αI is singular
no I mean there may not even be enough eigen values to write an eigen value decomposition
can some1 help me
"V is a part of W" is just not true, unless you're referring to their spans. but proving that isn't enough to show that the second set is also a basis
So a Jordan normal form, I assumed A not being defective yeah
is this not what symbol C means
that long c
like this is the solution but i dont get it
this shows they span the same space. so your new set spans. maybe a word or two on why it's linearly independent is in order
remember a basis is a spanning set that's linearly independent
ah so long c meants span sry i forgot
but still how do those two euqation prove that they sapc
span
it means subset
$\subset$
{x, y} is a basis, so its span is the entire space
Edd
but not the other way around
lol long C
these equalities show that a linear combination of x and y (so an element of V) is also a linear combination of 1/2(x+y) and 1/2i(x-y) (so an element of W)
ah so bascially i can use scalar multiplication and addition on the other vectors to go to the first ones
ait thx
I am trying to interpret a system that I get from the KKT conditions
$\begin{bmatrix} A & B^T & C^T \ B & 0 & 0 \ C & 0 & 0\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \boldsymbol{x} \ \boldsymbol{\lambda} \ \boldsymbol{\mu}\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \boldsymbol{0} \ \boldsymbol{b} \ \boldsymbol{c}\end{bmatrix}$
criver
Where A is symmetric
As I understand the above Bx =b and Cx = c are enforced exactly, while Ax = 0 (what would have been the original equation) is enforced weakly
I am trying to understand how this would compare to doing something like
$\min_{\boldsymbol{x}}|A\boldsymbol{x}|^2, \quad \text{s.t.} , B\boldsymbol{x} = \boldsymbol{b} ,, C \boldsymbol{x} = \boldsymbol{c}$
criver
Would this result in the same solution?
Note that even though I wrote mu, both constraints are equality ones
i.e.Bx = b, Cx = c
And I know that thdy are linearly indepebdent so KKT is applicable
I don't under how you get the matrix
I have an original energy
i get A^TA instead of A
ooh
$\min E(x) \implies \nabla E = Ax = 0$
criver
Now I add constraints Bx = b, and Cx = c and add them to the energy
So then I get this
Now the question is, is this the same as solving
If a linear transformation is 1:1, is it automatically onto?
$\min_{\boldsymbol{x}} |A\boldsymbol{x}|^2, \quad \text{s.t.} , Bx=b, , C x = c$
that's what I was saying actually that if you go from the optimization to the matrix one you get A^tA instead of A
in that matrix
criver
no, if they have same dim and are finite then yes
Thank you
yes symmetric positive definite
because |Ax|²=x'A'Ax and grad is 2A'Ax
yes the grad is A^TAx
so you can use cholesky decomposition
I am trying ti understand whether the kkt system gives the same solution
$A=L^TL$ then $\min_{x}\norm{Lx}^2$
probably no
in both Bx = b and Cx = c are enforced explicitly
what are the conditions you get from here?
in the L2 formulation one finds the x such that Ax is closestto 0
That I can solve explicitly
I can enforce them explicitly
Think removing dimensions of x
That get fully determined by these
no I mean to say that you can check if both of them give the same optimization problem
well one involves Ax + B^T\lambda+ C^T\mu = 0 while the other A^TAx = 0
I'm kinda rusty on my diffs but 2A'Ax+ λ B'+ μ C' =0 is one comdition
So one makes up for Ax!=0 through the lagrange multipliers
hmm?
While the other makes up for the strong constraints through an L2 minimisation
Bx = b, Cx = c basically fix some parts of x
the what
Then we want to get Ax = 0, but this is impossible with the constraints, xo the lagrange multiplier approach just gives: Ax +B^T\lambda + C^T\mu = 0
So lambda and mu supposedly can make up for Ax != 0
what's the original problem?
because the way you're saying it it just sounds like the feasible set is empty
$\min_{\boldsymbol{x}}E(\boldsymbol{x}) \implies \nabla E = A\boldsymbol{x} = \boldsymbol{0}$
criver
then yes, one need not have Ax = 0
Yes it's essentially overdetermined at this point
But the KKT approach handlex this through
Ax + B^T\lambda + C^T\mu = 0
mhm
While an L2 approach would habfle it through
$\min_{\boldsymbol{x}}|A\boldsymbol{x}|$
Under the aforementioned constraints Bx = b, Cx= c
criver
So I am trying to figure out what the difference is
Because it's clear that both enforce Ax = 0 weakly
which two?
kkt vs the L2
also the kkt one is E(x) + B^T lambda + C^T mu
nabla E(x) is Ax
i know
the loss function in kkt includes the original loss, not its grad
you then differentiate all the terms
not just E(x)
Yes what I wrote is nabla Lagrange = 0
That's what the Ax +B^T\lambda + C^T\mu = 0is
question is is there actually a difference
Both enforce Ax = 0 weakly
So I would expect both to result in the same solution
A, B,C are linear operators here
can you write the full L2 problem you're talking about
you mean minimize the 2-norm of Ax with the given constraints?
It's a discretisation of $\min_x\int|\nabla x|^2$ leading to $\Delta x = 0$, so $A$ is a discretisation of $\Delta$
The strong constraints are Dirichlet data
criver
That's the full problem
i meant more generally, it's just you keep saying kkt and "the L2"
i don't need to know the full problem, just what you meant by L2 in that context
because you keep throwing E(x) and Ax around and idk which one you mean when
Then then kkt results in the system I mentioned, while the alternative being the Lw thing
The original is basically
i guess i don't mean the original either
you said the kkt is Ax + B^T ... = 0
what's the other
criver
The original being
$\min_x E(x) = \min_x||\sum_iD_ix||^2, \quad \text{s.t.} Bx = b, Cx =c, , \nabla E(x) = Ax = 0$
criver
The kkt minimize the original
Whkle the other thing is
$\min_x |\nabla E(x)|^2 = \min_x|Ax|^2, \quad Bx =b, , Cx = c$
the $\Vert Ax\Vert_2^2$ has as a first term $2A^TAx$
Edd
the original has as first term $Ax$
Edd
the other terms are the same
criver
in kkt form
now, regarding what that means for the minimizer
the question is whether 2A^TA x has the same minimizer as Ax
what do you know about A's rank
under the constraints Bx =b, Cx = c
A has 1 zero eigenvalue, but is symmetric positive semi-definite, the constraints Bx=b, Cx=c guarantee that there is a unique solution
The logic behind the |Ax| minimisation
i don't think in general these have the same minimizer
Is that in both cases we want to enforce Ax= 0 weakly
It's clear that the latter enforces this in an L2 sense, but in what sense does kkt enforce this?
It'sstill in a weak sense, but is it L2 or something else
i honestly don't see the Ax minimization here, not with the extra constraints
what do you mean?
i don't see why minimizing Ax should work if you have extra constraints
I still don't get what you mean
in kkt, you are minimizing the 2-norm of the whole thing
Ax + C^Tmu + B^T lambda, or whatever the order was
you can minimize the two norm of all of this together to look for a saddle point of the lagrangian
that's the gradient of the lagrangian
The Ax + C^Tmu + B^T lambda isthe gradient of the lagrangian
does this line go thru both x0 and x1?
yes, xoxo
how do u know that though?
substitute t = 0 and t = 1
but the bounds arent known right?
R
like patr a of the problem was
t is in R
how does that affect it though?
I think I am starting to grasp it. Generally A^TAx = A^Tb would have the same solution as Ax = b for a consistent system with a nonsingular matrix, but here I have the extra constraint terms, which would make this different
You can pick any t in (-infinity, infinity)
And since you get x0 for t =0 and x1 for t =1 the line passes through those
still, rn i'm tired and i can't think of a way to prove it, criver. but you would have to show the solutions to Ax +C^Tmu + B^T lambda = 0 and 2A^TAx +C^Tmu + B^T lambda = 0 are the same
what if u had x_0 + tx_1
then it doesn't pass thru x_1 in general
Yeah, I am not sure they are at this point, one minimises E and the other |\nabla E|
if t was 1 wouldnt it?
Then it's x_0 +x_1
If there is a t for which it is x_1
Then x_0 + t * x_1 = x_1
this does not have to hold though
It's an overdetermined system in anything higher than 1d
this would boil down to x_0 = (1-t)x_1 -> x_0 = cx_1, meaning the two vectors are actually scaled versions of each other, xoxo
And even then a 0 singularity
so whenever x0 and x1 are not linearly dependent, x0 + tx1 does not pass through x1
You'd basically need to be able to subtract out x0, which is what Edd mentions with the two being collinear
Either way, thank you for the help. That did help. I finally realized that at least in the general case those minimize L2, but wrt a different quantity. And even if the two minima are equal without constraints, that shouldn't necessarily be the case in general, since the level lines of E and |\nabla E| do not have to agree.
without constraints already Ax and A^TAx have different minima
A^TAx has minima at x = 0 + nullspace component
while Ax goes off to -inf
Ax = 0, A^TAx =0 would have the same minimum I think for A non-singular
ok cool so x_0 + tv would be through x_0 and parallel to v
The pseudo-inverse matches the inverse for invertible stuff
So they should agree as long as I modify A to make it non-singular (in my case I can do that by incorporating Bx=b into A, then I do know that the modified A is nonsingular, it's the Cx=c constraint that I needed the kkt for)
why is this parallel to v but the other one goes thru x_0 and x_1?
so when x0 and x1 are linearly independent, it isnt going thru x1 but how do u know if they're linearly independent or not?
you test the definition
i think its just when they can equal to zero?
when c1v1 + c2v2 = 0 for nonzero ci
so here , if there is a t such that (1-t)x0 + tx1 = 0
then it wouldnt go thru x1
but idt there is such t so therefore, thats why it goes thru x1
(1-t) x0 + t x1 = x0 + t (x1-x0)
when does this pass through some point p?
when there is a t such that x0 + t(x1-x0) = p
or
t(x1-x0) = (p-x0)
now if you plug in p = x1, it's clear that t = 1 works
or if p = x0, then it's clear that 0 works
if you plug in p = (x1+x0)/2 -> you get t (x1-x0) = (x1-x0)/2
so t=1/2 works
and so on
in practice
if you have 2 vectors
u and v
and you want to check
t u = v
then you would check that v[i]/u[i] = v[j]/u[j] for all i,j
and the t would be
t = v[i]/u[i]
v[i] denoting the i-th component of v
hmm ok that somewhat makes sense
i feel this is some easy concept that is just completely going over my head haha 😭
it's membership of a point from a parametric curve
let's say you have the curve
r(t)
and you want to check that the point p is from it
then there must exist a t
such that r(t) = p
for linear stuff this is easy, because you can invert along each coordinate
e.g.
(x0,y0) + t * (x1,y1) = (px, py) <-> t = (px-x0)/x1 = (py-y0)/y1, provided that (x1,y1) != (0,0), if the equalities don't hold, e.g. (px-x0)/x1!=(py-y0)/y1 then the point is not from the line
if (x1,y1) = (0,0) then if (x0,y0) = (px,py) it;s from the set, otherwise not
Let M and M' be $m \times n$ and $n \times p$ matrices respectively and let r be a integer less than n. Suppose we have decompose the two matrices into these following blocks $M = [A | B]$ and $M' = [\frac{A'}{B'}]$ where A, A', B, B' are $m \times r, r \times n, m \times (n-r), (n-r) \times p$ matrices respectively. \I am having trouble showing MM' = AA' + BB'.\ \ Letting $w_{ij}$, $w'{ij}$, $p{ij}$, and $s_{ij}$ denote the entries for M, M', MM', and AA' + BB' respectively. We have \ $p_{ij} = \sum_{v=1}^{n}w_{iv}w'{vj}$, \ $s{ij} = \sum_{v=1}^{r}a_{iv}a'{vk} + \sum{k = r+1}^{n-r}b_{ik}b'_{kj}$
Plegasus
I am now having troubling showing p_{ij} = s_{ij}.
expressing that form p_ij using A, A', B, and B' instead of M and M' is what I am struggling with it right now.
you could try
Note I know s_ij = p_ij since that is how I computed s_ij. Any entry p_ij in MM' is just the sum of the corresponding entry in AA' and BB'. But I don't know if that rigorous enough for the proof.
Wait, I did it wrong.
$M = \begin{bmatrix} C_{11} & C_{12} \ C_{21} & C_{22} \end{bmatrix}$
criver
Then split A = [c11; c21], B = [c12; c22]
etc
actually nevermind, you don't need that
I misread your question
what you wrote is trivial afaik
$(MM^T){ij} = (A_i, B_i) \cdot (A_j,B_j) = A_i\cdot A_j + B_i\cdot B_j = (AA^T){ij} + (BB^T)_{ij}$
did I write this out correctly
I am currently multitasking so it's a bit hard
point is element ij is row_i dot col_j
but row_i is two parts and col_j is two parts
then split it into (v1,v2)
I think it should read A_j, B_j in the second
since it's columns of the tranpose
Sorry not following what your trying to do here but I have the right argument in my head now. Thanks anyway.
A_i denotes row i of A
$(MM^T){ij} = M_i\cdot M_j = (A_i, B_i) \cdot (A_j,B_j) = A_i\cdot A_j + B_i\cdot Bj = (AA^T){ij} + (BB^T){ij}$
criver
can someone tell me what the hell I'm looking at in (5)
how did they get that?
what do you even call that
which part
(5)
why would x = Gamma^-(1/2)z minimize v(x)
and why is z the smalles eigenvector of (5)
how on earth did they get that stuff
seems like some generalization to
$\inf_x \frac{x^TA^TAx}{x^Tx}$
which you know is minimized for lambda_min * z_min
criver
indeed decompose x
as a linear combination of the eigenvectors
$x = \sum_i \alpha_i z_i \implies |Ax|^2 = |A(\sum_i \alpha_i z_i)|^2 = |\sum_i \lambda_i \alpha_i z_i|^2$
criver
then if you choose a x that has a component only in the direction z_min
then you get the minimum
the above seems to be something like that
but with respect to an inner product with metric tensor Gamma
so
$\langle u, v\rangle_{\Gamma} = u^T\Gamma v \implies |u|^2 = u^T\Gamma u$
criver
ok I think I got it
someone told me to look up "Schur decomposition"
that's what I've been doing so far lol
I think the idea with the generalized eigenvalue
is that you have A^TGAy = \lambda G
if y is a generalized eigenvector A^TGA wrt to G or something like that
then decompose x
$x = \sum_i \alpha_i y_i \implies \frac{x^TA^T\Gamma Ax}{x^T\Gamma x} = \frac{(\sum_i\alpha_i y_i)^T\Gamma(\sum_i\lambda_i\alpha_i y_i)}{x^T\Gamma x}$
this is the part before that btw
so you got a VAR(1) model with assumption E[S] = 0
criver
nvm
it's actually simpler
they do the substitution
$x = \Gamma^{-\frac{1}{2}}y$
criver
then rewrite v

wrt y
this is a little above my head lol
it's simple you'll see
I managed to get all the way here
but I'm completely stuck now
x is a nx1 matrix of portfolio weights btw
gamma the covariance matrix
$v(y) = \frac{x^TA^T\Gamma A x}{x^T\Gamma x} = \frac{y^T\Gamma^{-1/2}A^T\Gamma A \Gamma^{-1/2} y}{y^Ty}$
criver
you follow until here?
A just some factors
is this "Schur decomposition"
I just substituted x = Gamma^{-1/2} y
it is not
but do you follow until this point?
mhm
Now you apply the same trick I mentioned before
Denote
$C = \Gamma^{-1/2}A^T\Gamma A\Gamma^{-1/2}$
criver
and let $z_i$ are the eigenvectors of $C$ and $\lambda_i$ be the corresponding eigenvalues:
$Cz_i = \lambda z_i$
criver
Now decompose y as a linear combination of the eigenvectors
which one do you mean exactly?
criver
oooooh yeah I got it
if you choose C to be that
finding the eigenvector corresponding to the smallest eigenvalue will minimize v(x)
the only trick was getting rid of the denominator
which they do through the substitution
idk why you'd need schur here
he said you'd need that to get to the gamma^(-1/2)
Gamma is symmetric psd
it is
then \Gamma^{-1/2} is just taking Q^T \Lambda^{-1/2} Q
i.e. do the eigendecomposition and then take the square root and reciprocal
so I got the smallest eigenvector z of C now, let me see if I can figure out why x = \Gamma^(-1/2)z will minimize v(x)
really appreciate the help!
actually, what exactly is y in this case?
just some undefined vector?
$v(x) = \frac{z^T\Gamma^{-1/2}A^T\Gamma A \Gamma^{-1/2} z}{z^Tz}$
Vertox
x = \Gamma^{-1/2}y
I reserved z for the eigenvectors
yeah it's from that formula but what does it stand for
you can use the opposite of this, i.e. for the minimum
it's just a substitution required to get rid of the Gamma in the denominator
okay I why x = Gamma^(-1/2)z minimizes v(x)
denominator cancels out
numerator is minimum
see this
so you get the smallest possible v(x)
and set A = \Gamma^{1/2}A\Gamma{-1/2}
yep got it open
the A from there corresponds to \Gamma^{1/2}A\Gamma{-1/2}
then you can check that
$|A^{theirs}z|^2 = z^T\Gamma^{-1/2}A^T\Gamma A\Gamma^{-1/2}z$
criver
then by the logic there, but applied for the minimum
you get that it is minimized when you choose z_{min}
mhm
that was so much simpler than I imagined
I thought they were doing some absolutely fancy shit
basically if you pick a vector in the direction that the matrix scales the least
then you minimize the L2
the only trick is the substitution to get rid of the Gamma in the denominator
I learned something new
would this be valid
That's fine yes, though it depends on your tutor whether they'll accept it
You can trivially show T [x, ...] + T[z, ...] = [..., x-1] + [..., z-1] != [..., x + z - 1] = T [x+z,...]
ahhh I get where schur get's into play @spare widget
you use it to actually compute Gamma^{-1/2}
when you implement it
If I have the set {0, 3, 6, 9, 12}
how do I write it in builder set notation?
I know that each time it goes up by 3.
{0, 3, 6, 9, 12}
{n | n ≤ 0}
{2n | n = 1, 2, 3, 4}
{3n | n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
{3n | n ≤ 2}
{3n | n ∉ Z}
I also noticed that the proof I linked you is only applicable to the Gamma^{1/2}A Gamma^{-1/2} matrix, although you can probably show it for the whole thing, but not in the way using the derivative and lagrange multiplier
I actually found a presentation for this paper where they do it a little bit differently
I think they cancel out the numerator here
and then maximize the denominator
to minimize v(x)
a lot more elegant
don't need to do Schur or anything
and you need to figure out A in the other method anyway
I'll see if that cancels out the numerator tomorrow lol
I'm so tired
ah nvm
they get rid of the x^Tx
$v(x) = \frac{A^TΓA}{Γ} = Γ^{-1}A^TΓA$
Vertox
getting rid of x is bad tho
That looks like nonsense
Not sure if this is right channel for this
anyone able to help me understand this better
i dont really understand the examples it gives either
Would someone be able to walk me through how to obtain the Laplace transform of 2e^-4t*u(t-1)? I'm not sure how to go about it and I believe that solving it has something to do with shifting but I wasn't quite sure but I could also show what I have
det(A) = 1 means that the basis vectors dont flip after the linear transformation described by A is applied right
yes
epic
with regards to this problem, how would i find something parallel to this line?
Can you clarify exactly what you mean by “something”?
a vector parallel to the line
v = x_1 - x_0 is one, you can take any two point on that line, take the difference to get a vector parallel to that line.
how do u know x1-x0 is 1?
I meant v = x_1 - x_0 is one vector parallel to that line.
You can't get rid of x as you did
Do (1-t)x0 + t x1 = x0 -t x0 + t x1 = x0 + t (x1-x0)
Potato
Because Y^TAX is a scalar
A scalar transposed is still the same scalar
Though this notation keeps getting worse
what book is this
I hope I don't get to see
wth
$_{-1}Z$ next
criver
lol
Supposedly Serge Lang
RokabeJintaro
Or capital T, also vectors are typically lowercase
Potato
Beautiful
$\tau^{-1}{M}$ represents a matrix that has not been transposed
Edd
Is that actual notation?
no, i'm joking


how can i express a cartesian product $A_1\times A_2\times\dots A_n$ as a set of n-tuples ? i understand with examples but not how to write the generalized notation
DonutsenPLS
you mean like $A_1 \cross A_2 = {(a_1, a_2)|a_1 \in A_1, a_2 \in A_2}$
worm
like $A_1\times A_2 \times\dots A_n ={(a_1,(a_2,\dots,a_n))|a_i\in A_i, 1\leq i\ leq n}$
that would work i think
DonutsenPLS
why the parentheses?
$\prod_{i=1}^n A_i = {(a_1, \ldots, a_n) ,:, a_i \in A_i}$
probably a typo i'm assuming
criver
what criver wrote now is succinct
yes that's what i mean
if you wish you can add a $,,, 1 \leq i \leq n, i \in \mathbb{N}$
Edd
or i \in {1,2,...,n}
By the way, I did some numerical experiments and the L^TL vs L kkt formulations are indeed not equivalent.
not surprised
What book?
This again -,-
BY DEFINITION OF INNER PRODUCT, $\ip{v, v}$ IS NEVER ZERO UNLESS $v$ ITSELF IS 0
It could exist too, like how he provide the example ?
Tis magic
If you have the book too, it is at page 135
You sure you don't have some fake pirated copy 
he's using the definition $\ip{v, w} = v\cdot w$ but according to (modern) definition, $\ip{v, w} = v\cdot\overline{w}$
That's for C though
(1, i) is element of C
hadn't read that part mb
Guess Lang's a fan of nonstandard stuff
Im a bit confused rn 👁️
?
v,v never equals zero for some people because they want inducing norm to be easy
@grave garden follow other book, fr now
What easy book do you have in mind ?
LADR/LADW
physicists and engineers would be very confused if you feed them this definition of inner product
vector spaces over finite fields are cool
I would guess eveybody would be actually
LADR does not mesh well with determinants
Did not hear anything too bad about W so far
and inner product spaces over them are also
You typically learn standard stuff before nonstandard stuff
heyyyy im an engineer 
its whatever small detail
Find a better book
Did you get confused 
There's a huge choice
I thought engineers would begin with Strang's instead
there's also one by AMS society that deals with advanced matrices
i'm also an engineer, this book sux
🐒
Well i have no knowledge, so it feels okay wkwk
Dont worry
Do worry
its all just convention
wym changes the whole subject
from LA to abstract
Nobody's going to be explaining the standard conventions in an engineering paper
Ok true
I prefer sth straight forward, not like manual book
But they dont need to bring up norms if they dont want lol
I thought Strang would be straight forward
how else are you gonna prove Reisz Presentation theorem?
Axler, hoffman, insel, the done wrong one, halmos, there's plenty
It is convention in physics and engineering to assume one takes this inner product when it is not specified
though I've seen physicists swap the conjugation argument
As in bar{u} \cdot v = <u,v>
They do it sometimes

It's some convention so gotta be careful
if you mean $\ip{u, v} = v^*u$ then it's ok
but not u^*v
ik what you mean, but there are still people that flip it, so gotta be careful
Regarding the wiki:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sesquilinear_form#Hermitian_form
you can see that the wiki states that physics defines the inner product for complex vectors as:
$$\langle , \ma...
I like physicists better, don't shoot me

I definitely regret picking CS over physics
well I like all three of these
also in physics they seem to cover a broader range of mathematics than mathematicians in bsc in the unis I have been in
except these notational inconsistency
granted, not in the same depth
ya true, I've seen my friends cover more syllb in 1 sem than our entire course
I'm mostly interested in QM and Cosmology stuffs tho

would love to do my phd on these
they also do mathematically "illegal" stuff that "just works"
In mathematical physics, constructive quantum field theory is the field devoted to showing that quantum field theory can be defined in terms of precise mathematical structures. This demonstration requires new mathematics, in a sense analogous to classical real analysis putting calculus on a mathematically rigorous foundation. Weak, strong, and...
we do that in CS also
keep a mathematician to fit a model to the results 😂


are there infinite dimensional vector spaces which arent complex?
or does it always have to be a hilbert space or banach space
there are infinite dimensional spaces that are neither Hilbert nor Banach
ah
ex C[0,1] under L¹ norm
but are they complex vector spaces?
wait can you explain what C[0.1] is ive never seen this before
set of all continuous functions from [0,1] to ℝ
check it's a vector space
and a normed space under L² norm given by || f || = (∫ f² dx )^½
ohh, but is there a vector space that is just a set of vectors from [0,1] to R and is L^2 but not complex?
?
so not a set of all continuous functions
what? wym?
i mean this but instead of continuous functions you just have normal vectors
continuous functions are not vectors
yea so im asking if you have such space with vectors instead of continuous functions
they are more that vectors, they form an R algebra
in linear algebra the elements of a vector space are termed vectors
he means finite dimensional vectors, e.g. R^n
is Rⁿ the only vector space you are aware of?
,w vector space
if you are thinking vectors as arrows, don't.
I have a matrix of the form
$M = \begin{bmatrix} L & A_1^T & \ldots & A_m^T \ A_1 & 0 & \boldsymbol{0}^T & 0 \ \ldots & \boldsymbol{0} & \boldsymbol{0}\boldsymbol{0}^T & \boldsymbol{0} \ A_m & 0 & \boldsymbol{0}^T & 0 \end{bmatrix}$
criver
And I want to find the first k rows of M^{-1} where k is the number of rows of L
Then I believe I get the equations
$\begin{bmatrix} I_{k\times k} & O_{k\times (n-k)} \end{bmatrix} M^{-1}M = \begin{bmatrix} I_{k\times k} & O_{k\times (n-k)}\end{bmatrix}$
criver
L in the above is not full rank, but M is full rank
Then my guess is that this should have the form: [I O]M^{-1} = [L^{-1} O]
where L^{-1} is the specific pseudo-inverse, such that L^{-1}L = I, and L^{-1}A^T_k = O for all k
Is this correct for the [I O]M^{-1} = [L^{-1} O] or am I missing something
Yeah nvm, I think I am wrong
the general solution just requires that
$\begin{bmatrix} I_{k\times k} & O_{k\times (n-k)} \end{bmatrix}M^{-1} = \begin{bmatrix} R_0 & R_1 & \ldots & R_m\end{bmatrix}$
criver
criver
show that the transpose is equal to the matrix (use the property of transposition of matrix product and that A is symmetric)
then try to show that x^TMx > 0
well write out the symmetry first
that is
(V^TAV)^T =?= V^TAV <- prove this first
yes, I would use a decomposition since V is full rank
note
(AB)^T = B^TA^T
order changes
yes
also for inverse if the matrices are invertible
you usually have to be more detailed, e.g.
(V^TAV)^T = V^TA^T(V^T)^T = V^TAV
where A^T=A since A is symmetric
I am guessing you would do something like y = Vx
then y^TAy>0
the tricky part is showing that y^TAy=0 only for x = 0
so shouldn't it be m>=n?
i.e. V needs to compress x to a smaller space
ah, maybe I am wrong
V is n rows and m columns
nvm, I am probably just wrong
I have to think about it when I am not in a meeting
how about doing an EVD of A
since it's symmetric pos def, it's diagonalizable in some orthonormal basis
someone germam here?
so that you get V^T Q^T D Q V, and you can simply make a matrix D^(1/2) by taking the elementwise square root, as D is diagonal
this means V^T A V is of the form W^T W, which is symmetric positive semidefinite
then all that is left is to show that V^T Q^T D^(1/2) has rank m
what you can do is, knowing that Q is a full rank orthogonal matrix, the image of a set of linearly independent vectors is linearly independent
and so the rank of the m x m matrix is m (by grouping Q with V, and V^T with Q^T), so that the symmetric pos semi def matrix is symmetric definite
@slender frost
you can use what i wrote above
the direction BB^T -> M is SPD is easy. in the backwards direction, if you can use the existence of M's eigenvalue decomp, then you're just about done
So, M = X U X^T
Can I say B = (U^0.5) X
Then multiplying B B^T
oh no
am i going in the wrong direction?
you need to do both directions
Don't you mean D^{1/2}?
hmm?
Q is the matrix of the eigenvectors
I have a question related to that
In the above you have a map from a smaller space (m)
To a larger one (n)
doesn't this mean that I can take a vector that is nonzero from R^m
And Vx= 0?
Ok, so the opposite will break things then I guess
yes
Since if we go from R^n to R^m the kernel will be at least n-m
if m > n, then the null space is always nontrivial
hmm that's not what i mean
or is it
so with that only semidefinitness would be provable
right
Also if the rank of V was not full, I could nevertheless get a 0
yep
Since that would imply that the columns are linearly dependent
And I would just need to solve Vx = 0 in that case to find such a vector
yes
Great, thank you
you mean m<n for R^n -> R^m?
ok then it's fine
If you have a training set of five ordered pairs of xi,yi
And you’re told to find the k=1,2,3 nearest neighbors for x =1
Then you just wanna find the one closest x value ordered pair, then two closest x value ordered pairs, then three
Right?
sounds about right
I have the following augmented matrix
Which is from the following system of equations: ```
z = 30
2x+5y+3z = 121
4x+3y+6z = 207
I constructed the equations above and the answers are z = 30, x = 3 and y = 5
However, solving the above matrix gives z = 30, y = 5 and x = 12
I even checked the solution for the augmented matrix with a calculator, same invalid answer
I checked the solutions for the system of equaitons, which turned out to be the same as intended
Why is this happening?
nvm
It's x = 30 not z = 30
The transformation associated with A is surjective
Yeah, realized my mistake...... after 3 damn hours trying to finish my guass-jordan elimination assigment....
thank you
I just reasoned that after $[A|b]$ is reduced to $[\tilde{A}|\tilde{b}]$
DarQ
you can reverse the steps to get to the original
this is part of the proof of that statement lol
Alternatively just apply rank-nullity 
but the equation $A\vec{x}=b$ only has solutions if $\tilde{b}$ has non-pivotal 1s
haven't reached that yet
DarQ
is there a typo here?
given they're talking about inverses, I doubt it
They were just giving a counter example if injectivity did not hold
well
yeah
coz I can think of a non injective square matrix where the only vector such that Ax=x is the 0 vector
where is a good place to learn linear algebra
other than like khan academy
any good textbooks?
Oh sorry, I didn't see that channel.
can anyone help me for that prob?
the pic I just sent
what is confusing you
like what the true statements are
I know it cant be a cuz matrices with an inverse cannot be communative
but other than that idk
confused about what
like im not sure on how to answer it @quartz compass
you put a check in the boxes where the statement is true
go through them one at a time
tell me what you think about every single one of them
why you think they might be true or false, give a reason
give your best guess
and best reasons you can think of why
sounds good
and from there on im not sure
try looking at a special case when A is a 1x1 matrix
in other words, pretend they're just regular numbers
im not understanding how that coorelates to this prob
what do you think are the true statements because like this involves understanding the rulings regarding inverses
I dont think D is true
@quartz compass
can you just give me the answer and then explaii because this is due in 10 mins
no
bruh
I do some matrix math at work, and one thing that thought I proved to myself over the years is this (which might not actually be true in general):
Lets say you have 3 Euclidean coordinate systems: L1 (Local 1), L2 (Local 2), and W (World) (lets assume that all the matricies are 3x3 and are orthonormal)
You are given 2 transformation matrices. One that takes you from L1 -> W (lets call this matrix A) and the other takes you from L2 -> W (Lets call this matrix B).
Lets define T to be the total transform that goes from L1 -> L2: T = (B)^(-1) A (Im assuming column major matricies here.)
So my assumption is that R (which I will define here as the Rotation from L1 to L2) would be: R = (T)^(-1) = (A)^(-1) B
So my questions are:
1.) in general is the rotation L1 to L2 equal to the inverse of the transformation from L1 to L2
and if so
2.) under what contexts would this rotation work "as expected"... ie would this rotation only work in L1 space? or maybe L2? or maybe even W?
Any thoughts on this would be very helpful! Thanks all.
answer is 7
T is the rotation from L1 to L2 not T^{-1}
If what you are talking about is related to a CG API like opengl or directx be aware that they have a broken understanding of what column majority means and what an mxn matrix means.
To be precise I understood your formulation as
$[v]{W} = A [v]{L_1}, , [v]{W} = B [v]{L_2} \implies [v]{L_2} = B^{-1} [v]{W} = B^{-1}A [v]_{L_1}$
criver
Note that this matrix is a rotation only if A and B are rotations
To answer your question, this isnt related to opengl or directx (so i dont think I have learned there broken understanding)
one could be a rotation + reflection for instance, in which case you will not get a rotation
The TeXit you have seems accurate to how I was defining A and B
So what is it related to that involves column majority
I just mentioned column major as opposed to row major (in which the code I work in uses)
Back to the REAL details tho! Im kinda confused how my defined T is actually the rotation (as opposed to the inverse of T)
but as I said, provided all 3 are orthonormal bases that do not change handedness/orientation, the B^{-1}A is the rotation matrix
Both T and T^{-1} are rotation matrices provided the bases are orthonormal and don't change handedness
But T by definition takes a vector from L1 to L2
T^{-1} by definition takes a vector from L2 to L1
Right, so T would show how the components of a vector in L1 would "look" in L2
The code you're working with could have the same issue, gotta be careful when someone mentions column/row majority, it is not a mathematical concept, it is a memory layout one
But if I wanted a rotation vector (which rotated all of the basis vectors of L1 to match the basis vectors of L2), wouldnt that rotations vector be T^(-1)?
A matrix is not a vector
I will definitely double check this @spare widget, you could be onto the source of my issue.
Also the basis vectors transform differently than contravariant vectors
Your matrices transform contravariant vectors here
covariant vs contravariant isnt something ive ever been able to nail down 😦 ... someday tho!
basis vectors are covariant and transform in the opposite way
it sounds like i need to explore how/why basis vectors would transform differently than just "regular" vectors
I really don't like video editing.
cool, I'll look into this.
But to recap, your answer is that T would be the rotation matrix that rotates the basis vectors of the L1 to L2, correct?
Yes
Both T and T^{-1}=transpose(T) are rotation matrices
But T by definition transforms from L1 to L2
Whether this matrix rotates counterclockwise is irrelevant
So for a specific choice of L1 and L2 it may turn out that for your "setting" it looks like it rotates in the "negative" direction, for other choices it may rotate in the "positive" direction
In the general cases I was looking at, when applying my rotation matrix to L1, it either perfectly matched L2's basis, or it was completely wrong
(In my case it turned out that the inverse of the rotation matrix yielded my desired result... which might be explained by the difference between covariant and contravariant)
Because basis vectors transform in the opposite way
Thanks so much for your time @spare widget! I really appreciate your help
A, B are vectors. If |A + B|= |A- B| , then vector A,B are
- AxB
- A.B
- A=B
Can anyone help me understand this ??
try expanding the expressions using dot products
Try 3) then |A+B| = |A-B| = |0| then it holds only for A=B = 0




it's real
