#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 203 of 1
right lol
(i don't)
it's just what I have so I have to make it do
with the solution I posted though, it seems to imply that it should equal to 1 + cf(-5)
why though
this is like going to a museum and trying to decode ancient egyptian artifacts
pulls out the Rosetta stone from my back pocket
so if f is any element of this set, and c is any scalar, then you have (cf)(3) = cf(3) = c + cf(-5) (because we assumed f in the space). now, you want to ask whether or not this equals 1 + (cf)(-5) = 1 + cf(-5); this will imply cf is in the set. this equality is true, iff c + cf(-5) = 1 + cf(-5), iff c = 1
so if you pick any c not equal to 1, this fails
so the space isn't closed under multiplication by scalars that aren't 1
that's what it's saying
it would have made more sense to just take c = 0 and write 0 \neq 1 + 0 but whatever floats your prof's boat
sorry, I'm typing up and then deleting messages as I think more hahaha
I think the issue still is that c + cf(-5) = 1 + cf(-5), why do we care about this
if that's true then cf is in the set
ya, that'd imply the set is closed under scalar multiplication, which is what you want
but this shows that if c is not equal to 1, then it's not closed under multiplication by c
yeaaaaa, cause we want the multiplied function to be equal to the multiple of its output? and here it's not?
we want the function cf to satisfy (cf)(3) = 1 + (cf)(-5) whenever f(-3) = 1 + f(-5), and if c isn't equal to 1 this isn't true
again, (cf)(3) isn't just multiplying the entire function by c?? it's just multiplying only the parts that have f?
i feel really really dumb now what
(cf)(3) is c*f(3)
then why do we not expect (cf)(3) = c(1 + f(-5))?
and instead the c is only distributed to f
thank you for your help and patience by the way, I really appreciate it
(cf)(3) = c(1 + f(-5)) is something that's true, since we're assuming f is in our set (i.e., that f(3) = 1 + f(-5)). the thing we want to prove isn't true is that (cf)(3) = 1 + (cf)(-5). so what we do is assume that it actually is true, and then we can write
c(1 + f(-5)) = 1 + cf(-5),
and if we subtract cf(-5) from both sides we get c = 1. so the equality (cf)(3) = 1 + (cf)(-5) is literally never true if c is not equal to 1
this is my take on your prof's solution
this could all have been avoided if they just took c = 0 from the start 
(cf)(3) = 1 + (cf)(-5)
yea i just don't understand god damn it, why would we ever think this though
I think I get the rest
just no idea about the whole, why do I want to show that when there's no reason to believe it? even by our definition that isn't right?
why can't I just very easily say let f(3) and g(3) be each a thing then (f+g)(3) = f(3) + g(3) = 1 + f(-5) + 1 + g(-5) = 2 + f(-5) + g(-5) and that doesn't equal to 1 + f(-5) + g(-5)
very confused, will 100% email the prof lol
ty for your efforts
even your approach just now is simpler than what your prof is trying LOL
like what you just wrote is basically correct, assuming you mean "let f and g be in the set" at the start

yea i did
tbh i don't think it's productive to try and figure out what your prof meant when you've already found a better solution yourself lol
you're probably right about that, thanks man I really appreciate it
I'm going through old homeworks for finals prep and this is the one thing that's just got me like what's going on
makes me think they pulled out a subspace condition from a hat and said "let's check it"
that's pretty much what a lot of math feels like to me at this point, lots of intuition and very little motivation behind solutions lol
what is their prof trying to do?
[this](#linear-algebra message) for [this](#linear-algebra message)
guess markdown doesn't work or i'm doing it wrong
which step?
you're welcome.
Row-reducing is so tedious
If you think row reducing is tedious, try doing SVD or eigen decomposition or Gram-Schmidt
yes, of course
Resources / book recs to self linalg?
i like the book by friedberg et al
how would you prove it?
define "orthogonal"
ok
is (v + u) dot w = 0?
why not?
(v + u) dot w = (v dot w) + (u dot w)
ANYONE PLEASE HELP ME
need to find a vector orthogonal to the span of these two vectors
im tryna find a basis for the orthogonal compliment
if anyone finds the solution id venmo them money
the money part is forbidden
ok sir sorry
im just supremely desperate ive been on this prob for a long time and havent been able to solve it
For this problem, the solutions just somehow jump to this
I don't understand where P is coming from here
off the top of my head, one can set up two equations based on the inner products. one will give you boundary conditions for the other. there might be some simple thinf i'm missing tho.
and for rohak, recall that a matrix-vector product yields a linear combination of the columns of the matrix
this is precisely what you want when you're look8ng for coordinates. to express some vector as a linear combo of other vectors
thanks 🙂
like so
e_i = Pv
P is the matrix with the alpha_i as columns
e_i is a canonival basis vec
v are its coordinates in the basis of the alphas
so this P performs a change of basis
gotcha, and it's because all vectors are the sum of alpha_i times some scalar
i think that makes sense, thank you so much
aight
I have a couple of proofs I have been working on for my linear algebra class, and I'm wondering if anyone here can check my work. They concern transition matrices, and reference material as stated in Otto Bretscher's Linear Algebra with Applications 5th Edtition. Even a small amount of input would be super appreciated 🙂
I am trying to answer the question: If A is an n by n regular transition matrix s.t. A^T is also a regular transition matrix, must the equilibrium distribution x_equ have all components equal to 1/n?
if A^n is positive for some n>1, where positive means that all entries of A are strictly greater than 0
if A is not regular, A^n always has at least one entry that is equal to zero
regularity implies that there exists an equilibrium distribution for the system
can this chat handle latex somehow? (for future reference)
yes
there's a latex bot
it's invoked simply by typing a message that contains at least one mathmode formula, be it inline: $x^2$ or on its own line $$e^{i \pi} + 1 = 0$$
Ann
thank you 🙂
yes, just by the identity (A^n)^T=(A^T)^n I think
yes exactly
BUT the sum of the coefficients of the row vectors must be equal to 1
which is the special part
in order for A^T to be a transition matrix yes
oh okay! I have seen that term before it's good to know that's probably the most common name
so, in other words, if A is doubly stochatic, must all the coefficients of x_equ be equal to 1/n?
That is the question that I am trying to answer
I have a tentative proof, but I am new to some of the linear algebra machinery
is stochastic matrix a more common term that transition matrix? It's just the term that my text uses
Transition matrix is probably just because it increments the time
Stochastic matrix is a requirement that row vectors sum to 1 I think
Doubly stochastic matrix is requirement both row and column vectors sum to 1
With your row requirement, probably better to call it a stochastic matrix
it is only that one eigenvalue that is fixed though
oop sry, I meant the eigenvector with eigenvalue 1 is the only eigenvector that is fixed
the others can be any orthogonal span of the complement of span(x_equ)
here's what I tried as a proof, but I'm new to some of the linear algebra techniques
oh! ok 🙂
I was just practicing different techniques
thanks for your input!
since {v, Tv, T^2v, T^3v} contains four elements, it is sufficient to require that it be linearly independent.
try running some simple vectors v through this
@teal totem have you made any progress so far or...
maybe try an arbitrary column vector v = [v_1 v_2 v_3 v_4]^T, then T(v) = [0 3v_1 -2v_1-v_2 v_1+2v_2-3v_3]
You can perform this operation on T(v) as well: T^2(v) = T(T(V))
if you find T^2(v) and T^3(v) this way you can then look for what values v_1, ..., v_4 must have in order for those vectors to be linearly independent
I don't know if that is the quickest way but it works
good luck!
is Gauss Elimination considered an iterative method? I know its an algorithm but I'm not sure if that counts as iterative methods too
hmm using this implementantion? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaussian_elimination
In mathematics, Gaussian elimination, also known as row reduction, is an algorithm for solving systems of linear equations. It consists of a sequence of operations performed on the corresponding matrix of coefficients. This method can also be used to compute the rank of a matrix, the determinant of a square matrix, and the inverse of an invertib...
this is the wikipedia article for gaussian elimination...
yeah, it's direct
iterative solution methods construct a sequence of approximate solutions & have a condition under which the sequence is stopped
so, no
What does (ST)^2 mean for linear maps S, T?
STST?
I don't know, I think so too but I am not sure
But this wasn't defined
We defined (ST)(u) = S(Tu)
But nothing about "squaring" linear maps
if T in L(V,V) we define T^n as T composed with itself n times
What if T in L(V,W)?
then composing T with itself doesn't necessarily make sense
so yep, you'd have (ST)((ST)(u)), which you can work backwards
at some point you have something of the form S(T(Sw)), and the inner term T(S(w)) is a 0 vector
How's this proof: Let v in V, where v in null T. Then STSTv = STS(Tv) = STS(0) = ST(S0) = S(T0) = S0 = 0, since for any linear map L, L(0) = 0
Now let v in V, v not in null T. bThen STSTv = STS(Tv). Since range S is a subset of null T, it follows that S(Tv) in V is some vector such that T(S(Tv)) = 0, as the S(Tv) will is in null T. Thus, T(S(Tv)) = 0, and then S0 = 0
I suppose the first part is redundant, we don't need it.
is anyone familiar with leontief closed model?
im pretty certain on what im reading til "this system is often referred to as X = AX. What do X A and I represent and how did they come up with the following matrix?
its just the matrix equation, A is your coefficient matrix
X is the vector [x y z]^T
A is the matrix given there, as the previous person said
it's the same system of equations written in matrix-vector form
If T: R^5 -> R^5 such that T(x1,...,x5) = (0,...,0)
Is this not a map such that range T = null T?
Uh so just to be clear T maps every vector to the 0 vector?
Yes?
Then obviously the answer to your question is no
yep
Give an example of a linear map T: R^4 to R^4 such that range T = null T
So by the fundamental theorem, we have that dim range T + dim null T = dim R^4 = 4
But range T = null T, which implies dim range T = dim null T (I would hope so)
And so 2 range T = 2 null T = 4 or range T = null T = 2
So how about define T(x1,...,x4) = (x1,x2,0,0)?
dim range T = 2, because (x1,x2,0,0) has two basis vectors
Not certain about null T...
Actually, I guess it works since T(0,0,x3,0) = T(0,0,0,x4) = (0,0,0,0)
So the null has two basis vectors as well?
Here's a hint: nilpotent matrix
ur close but not there
Well, let's think about it like this: if you want your range to be the same as your kernel, you'd want that $Tx$ is in the kernel for every $x$, i.e. $T(Tx)=T^2x=0$ for all $x\in\bR^4$
(aki R / I) / (J / I ra)
In other words, $T$ is a nilpotent linear transformation (with so-called index 2)
(aki R / I) / (J / I ra)
I can't prove this
Suppose V and W are finite-dimensional with 2 ≤ dim V ≤ dim W. Show that {T in L(V,W) : T is not injective} is not a subspace of L(V,W).
The T not injective condition I've rewritten as null T ≠ {0}
But I don't know what to do now
i think it's easiest to just... construct two transformations $T_1, T_2 \in \mathcal{L}(V,W)$ such that $T_1$ and $T_2$ are not injective individually but $T_1+T_2$ is
Ann
for convenience, you may want to take $n = \dim(V), m = \dim(W)$, fix some basis for each space, and consider the matrices of $T_1$ and $T_2$ wrt those bases
Ann
Is Friedberg considered to be an advanced undergraduate textbook?
oh dear.
well, the example i had in mind can be described explicitly...
ok fine
do you at least have the theorem that a linear map can be specified uniquely by what it does to a basis of the domain
"each linear map is unique" is a nonsensical statement
i really don't want to overload you with notation rn
but if you insist, i will
If v1,...,vn is a basis of V and w1,...,wn in W, then there exists a unique linear map T: V -> W such that Tvj = wj for each j = 1,...,n
yes that's what i was talking about.
Bruh wtf
a linear map can be specified uniquely by what it does to a basis of the domain
Yes we have that
great.
<@&268886789983436800> ?
beepbep77, if you aren't gonna contribute anything to this conversation, please stop spamming.
I wanna know what this is...
this is linear algebra
we can do without the emote spam
That was like 3 emotes...
knock it off
K
fix a basis ${v_1, v_2, \dots, v_n}$ of $V$ and a basis ${w_1, w_2, \dots, w_m}$ of $W$. define $T_1, T_2 \in \mathcal{L}(V,W)$ as follows: $$T_1 v_i = \begin{cases} w_1 & i=1 \ 0 & i \in 2:n \end{cases} \mbox{ and } T_2v_i = \begin{cases} 0 & i=1 \ w_i & i \in 2:n \end{cases}$$
this is by far \textbf{not} the only possible example of such a pair of linear maps, but it is the simplest possible as far as i am aware
Ann
What grade maths is this?
Oh that's y
consider also that this channel is in the early university category...
Ooohh
one sees immediately that $(T_1+T_2)v_i = w_i$ for all $i \in 1:n$, thus $\dim(\mathrm{im}(T_1+T_2)) = n = \dim(V)$, thus $T_1+T_2$ is injective. one also sees immediately that $v_1 \in \ker(T_1)$ and $v_2 \in \ker(T_2)$, thus neither $T_1$ nor $T_2$ is injective individually.
Ann
@wintry steppe does this make sense to you
I don't think I understand the 2 : n notation?
the set of all integers between 2 and n
you can write 2 ≤ i ≤ n instead if you want
the gist of it is that T1+T2 is actually what i constructed first, by having that map send v_i to w_i for all i
and then i had T1 send everything but v1 to zero, and had T2 send only v1 to zero (when looking at just the basis for V)
(the last two messages are NOT included in the answer to the exercise but are instead an attempt of mine to shed light on this potentially obscure construction i pulled out of my ass)
(i will not be surprised if your first reaction to this is to say "but how did you come up with this")
no?
How does it send v_i to w_i then?
$T_1v_1 = w_1$ though
Ann
That's not what you wrote or?
Ann
Okay
do you reject that this is the same as saying $T_1v_1 = w_1$
Ann
Never mind now I get it
I'm guessing you came up with this so quickly because you've done similar exercises before?
i guess so
several years of working with linalg in some form will inevitably lead you to become familiar with this kinda stuff too
Suppose v1,...,vm is a list of vectors in V. Define T in L(F^m, V) by T(z1,...,zm) = z1v1 + ... + zmvm
(a) What property of T corresponds to v1,...,vm spanning V?
I think if T is surjective, then that means v1,...,vm spans V, because that implies every value in the codomain is reached by T, which is all of V
(b) What property of T corresponds to v1,...,vm being linearly independent?
So if T is injective, then unique inputs result in unique outputs. That would mean T(0) = 0 is unique, and so there's only one way to write 0 which is the definition of linearly independent
Am I right?
a list of vectors in... what
in V? but the V didnt survive the copypaste
you are right though. wording has issues, but you are right.
T surjective <=> list spans V, and T injective <=> list linearly independent
How would I improve the wording?
"T(0) = 0 is unique" is the bit that caught my attention
you meant to say that T(z) = 0 only when z = 0
You're right yes
I meant to say that T(z) = 0 has a unique solution in z = 0 basically.
What about the wording in the other part?
it's fine
Can someone explain what it means by less numerical stability in solving normal equation $A^\top Ax = b$ and more stability in using QR decomposition to solve $Rx = Q^\top b$ in least squares?
Anticipation
and why it is more stable, quantitatively
The quadratic form is positive definite if the eigenvalues are all positive, positive semidefinite if they are all nonnegative, negative semidefinite if they are all nonpositive, negative definite if they are all negative, and indefinite if there are both positive and negative eigenvalues.
is there an example that explains the difference between positive semidefinite and positive definite
Ann
this is pos-semidef but not pos-def
it's given by the matrix $\bmqty{0&0&0\0&1&0\0&0&1}$
Ann
Show that {T in L(R^5, R^4 : dim null T > 2} is not a subspace of L(R^5, R^4)
What I did was let T1, T2 in that set, then define T1(x1,...,x5) = (0,0,0,x4) and T2(x1,...,x5) = (x1,0,0,0)
Then dim null T1 = 3 and dim null T2 = 3
But we defined (T1 + T2)(x) = T1x + T2x and T1x + T2x = (x1,0,0,x4), which has dim null 2
So it's not closed under addition?
this works as a counterexample yes
Thank you
Someone check my work for this please!
<2, -4, 1> is just 2<1, 0, 0> -4<0, 1, 0> + <0, 0, 1>
So T(<2, -4, 1>) is just gonna be 2T(<1, 0, 0> -4T(<0, 1, 0>) + T(<0, 0, 1>)
Which is 2<2, 4, -1> -4<1, 3, -2> + <0, -2, 2>
Which is <4-4+0, 8-12-2, -2+8+2> = <0, -6, 8>
yea that looks good
if I have the standard hermitian inner product on C^2 and V a vector space and <T(v),v>=0 for all v in V, T being a linear operator how do i show that T sends all elements to 0
If T in L(V,W) is injective and v1,...,vn is linearly independent in V. Prove that Tv1,...,Tvn is linearly independent in W.
Because v1,...,vn is linearly independent, we know that a1v1 + ... + anvn = 0 iff a_i = 0
Applying T to both sides, we get T(a1v1 + ... + anvn) = T(0) = 0
And then thats equal to Ta1v1 + ... + Tanvn = 0
So a1(Tv1) + ... + an(Tvn) = 0
I don't know how to finish it from here
I'm very close I can tell, but not 100% there
i kinda asked a question here :/
Oh sorry
but anyway u wanna start the other way round
ie with a linear combination of Tv1,...Tvn
then show the coefficients must be 0
ye
Thank you
amma repost the q
Yes
if I have the standard hermitian inner product on C^2 and V a vector space and <T(v),v>=0 for all v in V, T being a linear operator how do i show that T sends all elements to 0
Take v=(1,0) and (0,1) to conclude T(1,0)=(0,c) and T(0,1)=(d,0) via that condition
And then take do shenanigans with linear combinations
you have to use some fact about complex vector spaces, since this is false in the real case if you consider rotation by pi/2
The fact that c-c* is nonzero is probably relevant here
hm i dont see how to conclude that T(1,0)=(0,c)
since its C^2 T(1,0) is (a+bi,c+di) right
You know <(1,0),(0,1)>=0 right?
yea
Te_1=c_1e_1+c_2e_2 where e_1 is(1,0) and e_2 is (0,1)
<Te_1,e_1>=c_1 <e_1,e_1>+ 0=0
implies c_1=0
<u,u> is never zero except when u=0
oh im dumb nvm yea
read the condition wrong
actually shouldnt it be conjugate of c1 instead
it gives the same result tho
To do this, do I create a matrix of the coefficients of the polynomials then check for any nonzero solutions?
so like 120, 151, -2 -1 1
no need, just take a linear combination and use the properties of polynomials
what do i take linear combinations of tho?
so ik T(1,0) is a multiple of e2
and vice versa
Something like try v=e_1+e_2 in <Tv,v>
You get <Te_1,e_2>+<Te_2,e_1>=0
Which means Te_1=ce_2 implies Te_2=-ce_1
And then try v=e_1+ie_2
You get <Te_1,ie_2>+i<Te_2,e_1>=0
when we find the eigenvalue of a 2x2 matrix, how do we know which one is the first eigenvalue and the second?
doesn't matter which is which
but how to make the P?
yeh
yes
since a diagonal matrix scales the columns of another matrix when multiplying it from the right
e.g.
P D
D scales the columns of P
so if you flip the columns of P and the diagonal elements of D, you still get the same thing
P D P^-1 adds up rank 1 matrices made out of "outer products" of the eigenvectors scaled by the eigenvalue corresponding to them
the order in which you add things does not change the result
yes, for a diagonal mat
ok ty
can someone help
i would refer you to #prealg-and-algebra
oo sorry my bad
no problem
line algebra 
How do you show that the second derivative is self adjoint? I tried partial integration but I don't get anything (unless I am dumb, which I am)
what's the inner product?
It's the inner product used in a Hilbert space
So $\langle f, g \rangle = \int_a^b f(x) g(x) dx$
older sister
right right
integration by parts would've also been my first guess
yeah. I've tried it but I just can't get anywhere with it
you got any special conditions on the functions in the space?
Yeah if it's not IBP then 
Well I am looking at a L^2 space. That's it
square integrable?
yes
i'll try something on a piece of paper (and probably fail)
I am looking at the comment by lisyarus
can't think of any smart way rn :x i'll blame it on being tired
it's fine! It's not really something that I have do to right now, I was just curious
seems many people online do go for expressing f(x) and g(x) in an orthogonal basis
show that the eigenfunctions of the operator are orthogonal, then diagonalize
Okay! I might try that later
why does a pivot in each column of a matrix mean that the columns are linearly independent?
i guess i was wondering if there is some sort of proof for it
but now it seems obvious enough idk if i want to bother
It's like the same thing with row space. The pivot rows in the RREF correspond to the linearly independent rows
ahh i see thanks
these seem like really obvious answers, sorry ive just started learning linear algebra
I get that rank(T^2) = rank(T) implies that if Ta = 0 => TTa = 0, and so ker T is a subspace of kerTT. Can anyone tell me how to proceed from here?
Ahh, I finally finished my linear algebra homework on transition matrices and change of basis, ahhh
that's what i'm working on now lmao, great stuff except the book/notes we're using are just notation overload takes me a good bit to decipher it
oh, wow
Hey, would it be alright if I was to be able to ask for a better understanding on some questions on a past exam. Professor isn’t helping us and anything would help. I can also show the grade I got on the exam to show it’s already completed.
past exams are okay to post, yes
I understand it up to part d but then I get confused on what the later 2 parts are asking for.
The integral is a linear transform mapping vectors from P1 to P2 space, its asking you to write the integral as a matrix w.r.t the B and C basis given
it should be really fast once u get part c)
I really just don’t know what it’s asking. I’m really stuck on the terminology in this class. So I guess I’m still kinda confused.
do you know what is matrix of linear transformation wrt basis?
That’s like what’s it’s asking in part a right? [p(t)]b?
not exactly
in a) it asks you for coordinates of given vector wrt basis
in e) it asks you for matrix of linear map wrt basis
so, i guess you do not know it
No...
@dawn urchin agree?
Yes
Commander Vimes
and from here we basically arrive to matrix of linear transformation wrt to a basis
sorry this is occupied please move to #questions
my apologies
@dawn urchin
Commander Vimes
the TL;DR is: take the transformations from d) and put them as columns in a matrix
Okay, I think I understand it more
bwahaha
does anyone have time to help explain a concept for me?
is this matrix diagonalisable?
for a matrix to be diagonalisable it needs to have at least 2 distinct eigenvalue for a 2x2 matrix am i correct?
i?
why you doubt diagonal matrix is diagonalizable
I is identity matrix
anyway
matrix is diagonalizable if there is basis of eigenvectors of this matrix of space
eigenvectors can be independent but have the same eigenvalues
does identity matrix have eigenvectors?
when i put in λ = -1, it becomes this
into here
if lamba equals -1 wouldn't that make it -2 on the diagonals?
well you confirmed that -1 is eigenvalue of {{-1, 0}, {0, -1}}
why
{{-1, 0}, {0, -1}}-lambda I = 0 if lambda = -1
yeh, how bout the eigenvector though
well
find vectors x s.t Ax = -x
so each vector is eigenvector for this
yw
wait, why is 0 excepted
well
T0=0 for linear maps
and then T(0)=a0=0
if we allow 0 to be an eigenvector then the whole field becomes filled by eigenvalues
ahh ic
Krieg can you help me?
I was wondering what dot diagrams represent for JCF
and how to calculate them
sorry i do not know anything about the topic you asked
do you know what Jordan Canonical Form is?
vaguely
npnp
hmmm
oh can you explain what T* is?
I don't understand the relationship between T and T*
well
if you have inner product defined
and you have T: V->W
then take fixed vector w in W, and functional s.t v is mapped to <Tv, w>
we know that exist unique vector u in V s.t <Tv,w> = <v, u>
and we define u = T*w
so this is definition of T*
and you can show that matrix of T* is conjugate transpose of matrix of T
hmm I see
I understand the computation now but using the inner products always confuses me when it comes to understanding it conceptually
You wouldn't happen to have a diagram of what happens to a tranformation of a matrix in a field by this transpose would you?
what would that look like?
I just fail to see why it is useful
well you can define T* w/o inner product and it should be equivalent for at least finite dimensional cases ig
but i do not have diagram
well many theorems base on that T=T*
Yes I have noticed that indeed
like if T=T* then T guaranteed to have an orthonormal basis of eigenvecotrs
this portion of linear algebra just really stumps me. I can memorize the theorems but they still don't click with me intuitively :/
if that makes sense
ahh I see
well as another example prolly
consider gradient
gradient is defined to be unique vector s.t <grad f(x_0). v> = D_vf(x_0)
nvm
bad exampe
nah this example is bad anway
jordan chains i believe you are talking about
@ornate loom do you understand them?
are those different than Markov chains? I know what those are already
Here is my note on determinants. I have a weird kind of index.
do you have a specific question?
There's a section in my note where matrix A is laid out like a row vector. There are several lines of indices below. What pattern do you see?
How intuitive is my note?
in the particular order you wrote it as a vector, i can see that if you take I1, you ignore the position of I1 in the other partitions
but seeing it as a row vector gives no more intuition than the usual way of using minors and crossing out rows and columns from the larger matrix
hi @lavish jewel when you get a chance is there anyway you could explain the Gram-Schmidt orthogonalization procedure to me?
what troubles you about it
Thank you!
most of it is conceptual
how and why does it work?
sorry concepts like these are the hardest part of abstract linalg for me
it's an orthogonal projection done in several steps
the only requirements are knowing what "orthonormal bases" are and what scalar and vector projections are
so how would one go about solving a problem like this
lol
the idea, waving my hands wildly, is this
first, pick your favorite vector from the set, and keep it as it is
then, pick another vector from the set, and keep only the component that is ORTHOGONAL to the first vector you picked
this means we now have two orthogonal vectors
next, pick another vector from the set, and keep the component that is orthogonal to the previous two vectors you picked
now you have 3 orthogonal vectors
rinse and repeat
my instructor is not very good at explaining this rudementary steps so I get lost easily
he doesn't explain what he's doing well he just does it
I appreciate it
those terms you subtract are the projections of the vector you are currently working on, onto the vectors you have already orthogonalized
Spoon feeding will rust ur brain
I suppose so
sort of like, "if i project a vector onto another, i get a component parallel to that vector i projected onto. if i now subtract this, i am left only with the component that is orthogonal to that vector i projected onto"
but not understanding stuff will never allow me to advance my knowledge
I was taking shots in the dark :/
Learn it yourself
I thought this discord was for assistance just like this
Yeah
Use the Cartesian coordinate system if you must.
Perhaps, you haven't built your intuition well.
Yeah that's definitely something I struggle with, especially when it comes to Linalg
idk why but this kind of math just doesn't click for me :((
i would suggest a simple toy example, like so
take the vectors [1,0] and [1,1]
these are lin indep, so they for a basis for R^2
but we can gram-schmidt them to get an orthonormal basis
pick [1,0] and keep it as it is
then do gram-schmidt on [1,1]
and plot every single vector involved in the computation
draw them all, and see what is going on
what do you start with? what do you subtract from it? what do you end up with?
then try and do it the other way: keep [1,1] as is, then gram-schmidt [1,0] and plot all the vectors
okay thank you very much
It frustrates me greatly that I struggle with these obviously simple concepts
that's fine. everyone talks like they were born knowing how to wipe their asses, but everyone has to learn from somewhere
when explained this way it makes more sense and I can work on more complicated examples so I really do appreciate it
haha true
edd have you heard of Jordan Canonical form?
several times by now, but i've never used it nor done anything with it myself, so all i can say is that it exists
damn that's tough to hear
I recommend 3blue1brown YouTube channel. He has a playlist dedicated to build a good intuition on Linear Algebra.
Noted. I was already familiar with 3b1b but I never knew he had a linalg playlist. Thanks for the recommendation
@echo iron I must thank you. Those videos are EXACTLY what I needed. I watched just a couple videos and I've already learned so much. He makes it so clear conceptually how this stuff works that it feels like I'm cheating lol
the visuals are stunning
Suppose $\phi \in \mathcal{L}(V,F)$. Suppose $u \in V$ is not in $\null \phi$. Prove that $V = \null \phi \oplus { au : a \in F }$
n/c
So using addition of subspaces, we have that phi + {au} = {v + au : v in V, u in V, a in F, u not in null phi, v in null phi}
Then set this set equal to W, for notation purposes. We need to show W subset V and V subset W
W subset V is obvious, because v and u in V, and V is closed under addition and therefore v + au in V
But I don't know how to show V subset W
Can anyone help?
<@&286206848099549185>
@wintry steppe what do you man by u is not in phi?
Sorry, not in null phi.
\null is not recognized by TeXIt I guess
Suppose $\phi \in \mathcal{L}(V,F)$. Suppose $u \in V$ is not in $\mathrm{null} \phi$. Prove that $V = \mathrm{null} \phi \oplus { au : a \in F }$
n/c
There, this is the problem @dire thunder
Thanks for pointing it out, I didn't even realize the LaTeX was broken
well
Commander Vimes
Yes
It doesn't, because F has 0?
yeah they aren't markov chains. sorry for late reply I had an exam. essentially, the jordan chains are formed by computing the nullity of the matrix (A-lambda I)^i where lambda is the eigenvalues. i=1,...,n but you stop once you get that the matrix is the 0 matrix. The dots are then formed by putting the value of nullity number of dots corresponding to each level i. Its a little confusing to explain sorry, let me know how much of that you understood and I can try to clarify after- there are also some pretty useful yt vids i can dm you a link if you want?
@wintry steppe oh yes i got the proof
is it easy to see for you that dim V = dim null ф + dim {au: a in F}?
or do we need to elaborate at this
well {au: a in F} obviously have dimension 1
(u is nonzero obviously)
and range of ф as well has dimension 1
then by rank-nullity theorem we have dim V = dim null ф + dim range ф
and since equality holds we replace dim of range by dim of span of u
now @wintry steppe you want use this and to show that if au+bv = 0 where v is in null ф then a = b = 0
which is pretty easy
(argue what is image of au+bv)
Hmmm maybe that's similar to Jordan Canonical Form. Basically for JCF, you want to find a form of a matrix such that it's an upper triangle where the diagonal is eigenvalues and certain values in the superdiagonal are 1 for different cycles of a matrix. I don't really know how to explain it or what it is tbh, this is the best explanation I have for it.
also, what exactly is a cycle? or a T-cyclic space I see mentioned?
A vector space is T cyclic if there's a vector a such that {a,Ta,T^2a...} span the space
There's a theorem which states that any vector space can be written as a direct sum of T cyclic spaces
Okay that makes sense
sorry my question didn't really make sense lol
but that's what I was asking
The nice thing about T cyclic subspaces is that char and minimal polynomials are the same
So, Primary decomposition is easier to apply on a T cyclic space
A subspace of T cyclic space is also T cyclic
Buncho you wouldn't happen to have heard of Jordan Canonical Form would you?
Yes
sweet
patiently waiting for 10 minutes to ask a question but not wanting to interrupt your
what I don't understand about it is how the cycles affect the dot diagrams for JCF
Yeah it is exactly the process u do to find jcf, the dot things are just dots drawn based on that
I know what JCF is lol
okay so I've seen that before, but I don't quite understand the correlation between the dots and how they relate to the cycles
if that makes sense
Yeah I just answered that
oh wait ok let me reread your question
When you choose ur jordan blocks
Lets say u have nxn then you have a length n jordan chain corresponding to it
I thought the length depended on the multiplicity of the eigenvalues?
Yes
Each and every column here is a cycle
That is true
They are all the same
Hmm i dont think youre understanding
Let me show u the notes I made on it
One sec
would you mind zooming in near the middle of your notes? So I can see your example with the dots?
Cant you just zoom in yourself?
My cameras not great so you probs wont get any better than that
Maybe watch a video or something
Uh well as I said I cant do any better
My phone cam isnt great
hahaha @woeful perch
pain.
Those are all notes made from a youtube video
i love where its going
:/
yeah your notes are a bit hard to see
I'm just joshin ya lol
I appreciate your help
do you have the link to the YT video?
One sec let me see if i can find it
Hi. I'm struggling to know if I do it right or wrong. Need to find basis of U
Is this what i'm supposed to do at first?
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skip to 4.35
TYHASNK YOU
@heavy crown rewrite U as U = {(x1,x2,x3,x4) : x1 = -x2, x3 = 2x4}
Alrighty, like in the 2nd picture yes
Then you can say that any vector in U will be of the form (-x2, x2, 2x4, x4)
You can guess what a basis might be for this
Notice that (0,0,0,0) cannot be in a basis
All vectors in a basis must be linearly independent
So it should be all the others except of 0,0,0,0 right?
like this?
or it should be only one (-1, 1, 2 ,1)?
it should just be the 1 vector
Is there a difference between the two? Because I can show either way that {(-1, 1, 0 0), (0, 0, 2, 1)} is linearly independent or (-1, 1, 2, 1) is also independent
yeah there is, we would use 2 vectors if the set was of 4x2 matrices
okay I see hmm makes sense thank you 🙂
np
@heavy crown Yeah that's one basis
The thing is to realize is that you have two coordinates in (-x2,x2,2x4,x4) which are "free"
Once you have a x2, the first coordinate x1 is also fixed
Same thing with the third and fourth coordinates
I understand what you mean they're free.
But it's confusing because you can also show those 2 vectors are basis so it's technically also correct?
What do you mean also correct?
In my notebook I showed that {(-1, 1, 0 0), (0, 0, 2, 1)} is linearly independant and linear span so it is basis
But you can also show that only (-1, 1, 2, 1) is basis instead of those 2
No you can't
you cant?
For example, using (-1,1,0,0) and (0,0,2,1) as a basis, you can reach the vector 2(-1,1,0,0) + 1(0,0,2,1) = (-2,2,2,1)
How are you going to reach (-2,2,2,1) with using just (-1,1,2,1) as a basis?
so when you said one basis you meant?
If your basis (-1,1,2,1), then that'd be equivalent to this: {(x1,x2,x3,x4) : x1 = -x2, x3 = 2x2, x4 = x2}
You could have (-5,5,0,0) and (0,0,2,1)
or (-π,π,0,0), (0,0,90,45)
Or any other multiples of that
But usually we want to pick the simplest basis
yes
Which is the one you wrote
No problem
I have another problem with this 2nd part of the question if you want to help 😅
You should just post it. I don't want to say I will help if I'm unable to
okay sure, it's the same subject 🙂
Given this (Same U from previous question), need to find basis of U∩W
So I would guess that Sp means span
So this is what we know:
So what can you notice about W?
The 2nd vector is 2 times the first so its dependant
It doesn't make to say it is dependent, because W is a span of three vectors
When we take the span of a list of vectors, it doesn't matter if that list has one or more vectors that are linearly dependent on the other vectors
It just means the span will not change
For example, span( (0,1),(1,0) ) is the same as span( (0,1),(1,0),(0,5) )
That's right
okay I noticed a mistake I made, I'll try again everything thankyou)
Okay, I'm back. What mistake did you make?
I didn't find the correct basis of W. so I'm re-doing it
But this part isn't required for finding the basis of U∩W
but I figured out what to do I think 😄
Why do you think that was the wrong basis of W?
okay is this even more confusing for me now haha
sec
I was trying to find the basis of W so I compared the linear span to 0 to show it's independant, but it turned out its depenendant
You can do it just by eyeballing it
So you know that (1,-1,1,-1) and (4,-2,4,-2) are dependent, since one is 4 times the other one
yeah v_2 = 4v_1 + 2v_3
But you can clearly see that (1,-1,1,-1) and (1,1,1,1) are not multiples of each other
So that'll be the basis
no?
it isn't 4 times the other one
-1*4 isnt -2
refer here
this is why it was confusing for me I made a whole page saying it was 2 times the first one and that was the mistaek haaha
Oops
how did you come up with this
I looked at them
sounds natural haha
Yeah
you'd just do gauss jordan on the [A|0] matrix and see if you get 0,0,0 for the scalars or not
you mean this
yes, that's [A|0]
but there's a problem with this because
this is what I got after getting to the last stage
so λ3 can be anything and I was supposed to get singular solution no?
,w RREF{{1,4,1},{-1,-2,1},{1,4,1},{-1,-2,1}}
so how do I find the basis?
remove a vector so it's independent
I can choose?
yea it's independant it's what I did in my notebook. Then made a whole X on whole page because I thought it was incorrect to do it 😭 haha
okay I see
hmm thank you
right so W is just a 2Dplane in R4 space
yea dimW 2
do I need to show specifically it's also linear span of W? by comparing it to (x1, x2, x3, x4)?
or it's enough to say because it's subset of span(W)?
the span of the 3 vectors and the span of the 2 are equivalent
since the 3rd was already included in the span of the 2
okay so it's enough to say that
yes
thank you
Give an example of two linear maps T1 and T2 from R^5 to R^2 that have the same null space but are such that T1 is not a scalar multiple of T^2.
T1(x1,...,x5) = (x2 - x1, x1 - x2) and T2(x1,...,x5) = (x2 - x1, x2 - x1) is an example, right?
<@&286206848099549185>
Yea,That works
Thanks
If V, W are finite dimensional such that dim V > dim W, then no linear map from V to W is injective
Is the contrapositive of this statement that if there is a linear map from V to W that is injective, then dim V ≤ dim W?
Yes
Existence of injective linear map => dim V <= dim W
Thanks
Suppose V and W are both finite-dimensional. Prove that there exists a injective linear map from V to W iff dim V ≤ dim W.
The => way follows from a contrapositive of a previous theorem, so we will prove that dim V ≤ dim W implies the existance of a injective linear map from V to W
Let e1,...,en be the basis of W and f1,...,fm be the basis of W. We define T as follows: T(a1e1 + ... + anen) = a1f1 + ... + anfn + 0fn+1 + ... + 0fm
The right-hand side is a list of linearly independent vectors as they are a subspace of a basis, which implies that list is 0 iff a_i = 0.
This means that T(0) = 0 iff a_i = 0, so null T = {0}
Does this proof work?
Why are you proving null T = {0}
To show T is injective
Sorry I edited lol
Yeah, that works.
Thank you
Assuming you can show T is a linear map
?
It doesn't help to show T is injective if you haven't shown T is a linear map
I have a theorem that says there exists a unique linear map T: V to W where v1,...,vn is the basis of V, and w1,...,wm are vectors in W
Then there exists a unique linear map T(a1v1 + ... + anvn) = a1w1 + ... + amwm
This is a theorem proved at the very start of the chapter
So then I define T to be like that, except I set the extra ai equal to 0, past n
@marble lance
Also it doesn't really make sense to take the nullspace of a map that isn't linear?
nullspaces are defined for matrices, which represent linear transformations
@dawn fractal Okay?
since u defined T with the help of a previous theorem, u need to say that u used that theorem
otherwise u'd need to prove that T is a linear map

Suppose $U$ and $V$ are finite-dimensional vector spaces and $S \in \mathcal{L}(V,W)$ and $T \in \mathcal{L}(U,V)$. Prove that [ \mathrm{dim~null}~ST \le \mathrm{dim~null}~S + \mathrm{\dim~null}~T. ]
n/c
By the fundamental theorem of linear maps:
\begin{align*}
\mathrm{dim~null}~ST + \mathrm{dim~range}~ST &= \mathrm{dim}~U \
\mathrm{dim~null}~T + \mathrm{dim~range}~T &= \mathrm{dim}~U \
\mathrm{dim~null}~S + \mathrm{dim~range}~S &= \mathrm{dim}~V
\end{align*}
This implies that [ \mathrm{dim~null}~ST \le \mathrm{dim~null}~T + \mathrm{dim~range}~T ] Then notice that $\mathrm{dim~range}~T \le \mathrm{dim}~V$, so [ \mathrm{dim~null}~ST \le \mathrm{dim~null}~T + \mathrm{dim}~V = \mathrm{dim~null}~T + \mathrm{dim~null}~S ].
n/c
Does this work?
could you explain the very last equality
Yeah
So dim V = dim null S + dim range S
Oh sorry
That was a typo
It should've been an inequality
Not equality
rank nullity only needs the domain of the linear map to be finite dimensional
Yes, I meant to prove its a linear map first...
@marble lance Can I use the theorem that I wrote about?
@wintry steppe Does this work?
i still don't see it. if the last step is an inequality, then it would imply that dim V <= dim null S, i.e., S is the zero operator
so something went wrong there
I see the mistake, wait a moment.
Hmm
How do I prove this inequality...
<@&286206848099549185>
so my thinking is that c is either an eigenvalue of [A,B] with multiplicity dim H, or c = 0
how can I show that it's not the former of the two statements?
oh wait just came up with a really dumb proof
tr([A,B]) = c*dim H
but tr([A,B]) = tr(AB) - tr(BA) = tr(AB) - tr(AB) = 0
dim H is necessarily non-zero so c = 0
@wintry steppe please send a picture of the exact theorem statement
Sure, you can use this. But then you should also motivate why this is the same map you defined.
Do you still need help with this
can you say that one subspace of a vector space is the vector space itself?
yes
ok ty
for this question, i dont understand why q=3?
is it just because each column is 3 dimensional?
Preferably yes
i only see an equality 
is symmetry the same thing as automorphism?
?

an automorphism is a bijective endomorphism 
define "symmetry"
well just sound it out, right
sim-metry
it's just when you have a similar metric to the original one
obviously context dependent
If it's symmetrical, it has symmetry 
Mm, is the question more sensible if I ask symmetry group vs automorphism group?
It's that time of year again and I asked this question last semester but I'm still struggling
Any tips for getting quicker at proofs
All the proofs in my math quizzes I can do but I can't do them fast enough
And I lose points on time cause I'm just not fast enough
And like I do practice exercises from the text, I read and annotate the text, but I'm just not fast
Ok I also have another question
How is this middle step true
I thought there was some sort of inequality involved
I know |det(QQ*)| = |det(Q)det(Q*)|
and I know |det(Q)||det(Q*| = |det(Q)|^2
however that middle step from |det(Q)det(Q*)| to |det(Q)||det(Q*)| doesn't seem natural to me
det is multiplicative like you said yes, then the step that u said doesn't seem natural to u just comes from definition of absolute value
|ab| = |a||b| for any reals a,b
is ok
😌
i encourage proving the multiplicative property urself to convince urself
Oh I'm thinking of some shit with inner products
not even
but like
brain all over the place today on god
I have a QQ about span:
These are from Axler.
And all together, these three taken in combinations seems to suggest that the span of the empty set is equal to tier span of the singleton set containing only the zero vector:
span(Ø) = span({0}).
Is this correct?
That didn’t ping the channel.
We usually define span {} = 0
I don’t follow.
And also the span of the set containing only the zero vector is also zero??
span(Ø) = 0 = span({0})?
I can latex this out if it’s easier to read?
empty set is not span of {0}
@dreamy iron what you want is just that you define span of empty set containing only zero vector
and this is equal to span of {0} by definition of span
like a0 = 0
Also, just wondering, isn't the zero vector just considered as a point not technically not a vector?
@dire thunder
Like [3 4 5] is a vector, while [0 0 0] is a point because it's at the origin





