#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 192 of 1
but when we take the vector norm isnt it only a unit vector if we take the norm with subscript 2?
oh right
because lets say i have a vector that is 3 across and 4 high
norm with subscript 2 would give us 5

but norm with subscript inifity would give us 4
what are you even speaking about
sorry i didnt know the terminology
l2 norm gives us 5 and l(infinity) norm gives us 4
does that mean v/4 and v/5 are both unit vectors?
Commander Vimes
$\frac{v}{\norm{v}}$ is unit vector for any norm
no it does not mean that
Commander Vimes
that was a quick think
why should we think slow
ill get back to you on that in a day 
🪓
seems ok
im not sure i follow the argument?
it seems circular
youre assuming that change of basis preserves rank
hold on
maybe we need to write this out more formally
maybe assert the existence of invertible square matrices P and Q such that B = PAQ
why not just use matrix equivalency to apply gauss on one matrix
then decompose P and Q into products of elementary matrices
then argue that rank is preserved under elementary row and col ops
change of bases matrices, being invertible, are just compositions of row and column operations
so it's the same argument if you break down what "the same linear map under appropriate bases" actually means
is there a way to check mid-way through Gram-Schmidt if you did something wrong?
check that all your vectors are unit norm and pairwise orthogonal to each other
yeah forgot to normalize my 2nd vector lol
if i have a characteristic equation of the form $\frac{1}{2}(\lambda^2+b\lambda+c) = 0$ is it incorrect to multiply the half off by 2 to compute the eigen values?
moar55
eigenvalues are the roots of the polynomial
so it doesn't matter if the scaling factor is there or not
$p(x)=a(x-r_1)(x-r_2)...(x-r_n)$ for polynomial p is the factorization, a doesn't determine any roots so it can be ignored
moshill1
hmm thing is when i did multiply the half of my solution was off from the correct one by a factor of 1/2
the exact polynomial (if it makes a difference) was this
moar55
@nocturne jewel
it should't change anything I don't think..
Finding the vector wasn't too hard but i have no idea to deduce the equality\
with the equality being this:
could anyone help
Is there easy way to calulate (A*A^t)^80
isn't it [1 2^80]?
I think all the numbers will be in relation to each other, namely (A' * A)
anyway, you can probably notice some pattern in (AA^t)^n via inductive argument
it's because it's rank 1
huh?
[1 4^80]
it's gonna be square, az
O, true
should it start to increase like this
where top left is 5^n and bottom right is 4x top left and others are 2x top left?
and after 80 the top left is 82718061255302767487140869206996285356581211090087890625
show that aA+bB+cC = 0 only when a=b=c=0
^
to elaborate, clearly c = 0 since the only matrix with a nonzero bottom-left entry is C
Or if easier figure out counterexample to prove contraindication
once making that observation, we have left to show aA + bB = 0 implies a = b = 0
but now you can repeat the reasoning i just used
to the bottom-right and top-right entries
how do you make the bottom left entry 0 if c isnt 0?
look at the bottom-left entries
the bottom-left entry of A and B is always 0
no matter what a, b are
so the only thing that affects it is cC
we want it to be 0
aaaaah, got it
$c \begin{pmatrix}1&1\1&1\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}c&c\c&c\end{pmatrix}$
Namington
but since the bottom-left is supposed to be 0, this means c must be 0
you can repeat this reasoning to get that a = 0 and b = 0 as well
which shows linear indepndence.
yes, this is what i was hinting at
try and figure out an expression for (AA^t)^n in terms of n
prove it inductively
plug in n = 80
az
I'm doing $(A \cdot A^\intercal)^n$ for $1 \leq n \leq 10$.
az
What I do wrong then
i calculated what is AA^t and then started to do standard potens calculation
(AA^t)^n = (AA^t)x(AA^t)x....x(AA^t)_n
az you told mathematica to take coordinatewise products
my course just said not to use computing software to do this.... and sure i wont be doing this 80 times
and 4*5^n
yes
yeah i got that far, but how im supposed to show that this works for any N
I don't even know what coordinatewise products are. Too much power without responsibility case, IG.
by induction, as Namington said
with great power comes big electricity bill 😉
you show that it is true for n=1, then you take it to be true for n=k and show that it is also true for n=k+1
yeah i know how iinduction works on normal math, but i have never used it on matrises
exactly as it normally does
prove your n=1 base case
then show the n+1th power of your matrix satisfies the formula
probably by breaking it into nth power * 1st power
and then applying the inductive hypothesis.
looking at some clear proofs by induction that you know from previous studies may help
you multiply coordinates together.
rather than doing the dot product of the row of the first and the column of the second
you just multiply the entries
same way you add matrices.
ahh, corresponding entries are just multiplied
coordinatewise product vs actual matrix product is .* vs * in matlab
If I have two vectors in two different bases, how to I find transformation matrix of that transformation?
what transformation
Could someone help me how to solve this?
I know how to find plane given a point, but not vector
You can find the normal from the line's direction vector and the vector v using a cross product
then, use the point the line (and the plane) goes through along with the normal and put them in the definition of a plane
Cross product of (6,1,0) x (0,1,7)?
mhm
Can I assume the point which is the same as the vector, be it (0,1,7)?
So it would be 7(x-0)-42(y-1)+6(z-7) = 0
And then I find the plane, right?
So what do I do step by step?
use the point on the line
looks ok
,w RREF {{-6,8,-1,7},{-4,-6,5,-1},{-2,14,-16,8},{4,6,-5,1}}
Interpret $\langle a,b \rangle$ as a.b\newline Let's say y-Ax is orthogonal to sigma.\newline
Then $|y-Ax|^2=\langle y-Ax, y-Ax \rangle = \langle y-Az,y-Ax \rangle + \langle Az-Ax,y-Ax \rangle = \langle y-Az,y-Az \rangle + \langle y-Az,Az-Ax \rangle +\langle Az-Ax,y-Ax \rangle=\langle y-Az,y-Az \rangle + \langle y-Ax,Az-Ax \rangle + \langle Ax-Az,Az-Ax \rangle + \langle Az-Ax,y-Ax \rangle$
Drunknarwhal
I have this set D={10n/n exists in Z} with the addition operation, and I want to check if this operation is asociative, is this valid?:
$(10n+10m)+(10p) = 10n+(10m+10p)\newline
10(n+m+p) = 10(n+m+p)$
F for my latex
Jackieto
that is not a valid proof, no
for one, you cant just start with the statement you want to prove; youd have to go the other way
more pressingly, do you not know that integer addition associates?
if you dont have that fact, you have to do a fair bit of work to prove it
but most linear algebra courses will let you just assume it
in which case, associativity is inherited from ℤ.
This big brain time
do you plan on contributing anything?
I m to smart for this Server
yeah I know that but I don't know if I can just state that and move on
where should I start then?
again, in 99.9% of courses, you're allowed to just assume integer addition associates and then say "because the elements of D are integers under standard addition, and integer addition associates, this set's operation is associative"
a similar thing holds for commutativity and distributivity
if youre NOT allowed to assume this then
- define the natural numbers via some axiomatization (typically peano axioms)
- demonstrate that the natural numbers (with 0) are associative via induction
- extend the naturals to a group under + by appending additive inverses
- show that this structure coincides with the integers we're familiar with.
alternatively, you could:
- define the natural numbers (with 0) via the peano axioms
- append negatives
- prove associativity through 2-directional induction
this is typically not really relevant content for a linear algebra course
hence why the vast majority just allow you to claim integer arithmetic associates without proof
but if you wanted to justify that fact, the above is how you'd do it.
yeah, but seems really cool to be able to do that
I dont think I'm going to do that for this exercise but seems interesting enough to try that in my own
If I know a vector v in base S, and a vector of displacement d, how do I calculate vector w in base G??
is it just the formula: d = v + (-w)
so w = v - d???
Hey guy,
Here i think equation 8.23 is looking off to me can someone explain why is it not like
$$\vb A e_{j}=\sum_{i=0}^N A_{ji}e_i$$
vampy
what's the difference?
A_ji vs A_ij
yea
ah
e_j is a column vector right
yes
then this is just by definition of matrix multiplication
That's just convention
but what they have given is not matrix multiplication
ah so curly A is a linear transform with A as its matrix w.r.t standard basis?
???
Well not standard basis
oh yea it didnt specify
A is the transformation matrix and e is the vector
If you collect those A_ij and arrange them,You get a matrix called "matrix wrt basis {e_1,e_2...}"
yo drake what you say?
Let's say we have {e_1,e_2} as a basis and Ae_1=e_1+e_2 and Ae_2=e_2
okay
Then the corresponding matrix will be
$\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
1 & 1
\end{bmatrix}$
Drunknarwhal
yes
That's what they have written
That's a representation
ahh
thanks
so there is difference between the two right?
meaning linear tranformation =/= matrix multiplication
This representation will give you
$\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \
0 & 1
\end{bmatrix}$
Drunknarwhal
yea i got that
this ^?
Composition of linear transforms=matrix multiplication
Linear transforms = matrices
got it
ill just write this if it makes sense, let T be some linear transform and B a ordered basis then $[T\alpha]_B = [T]_B\cdot [\alpha]_B$ where say u wanna see how each vector in a basis gets transforms then $[e_1]_B = (1,0,...,0)^T$ and $[Te_1]_B$ will be the transformed $e_1$ in the coordinate given by B
Anticipation
can you give an example?
i hope questions like this is okay in this channel
Home page: https://www.3blue1brown.com/
Multiplying two matrices represents applying one transformation after another. Many facts about matrix multiplication become much clearer once you digest this fact.
Full series: http://3b1b.co/eola
Future series like this are funded by the community, through Patreon, where supporters get early access as...
[T]_B here is the encoding of transform T as a matrix in the basis B.
This video is literally about that isomorphism
ahhh i was thinking the same then
$$\vb A \vb T \vb A^{-1}$$
vampy
this is like a multiplication?
I mean It's (AT)A^-1
that's what i meant lol
hi drunk are you cow
No
why
Because I am not cow
why
i got very stupid q

where in this pf is it clear that if not lin combo then strict inequality
sorry this is not really readable anti
Yea,That part is just | \gamma|^2 being 0 only when gamma is 0
is that riely?
Hoffman Kunze
oh
yo drake they have written the 8.24 in form of matrix multiplication
i think now i understand
Can anyone help with question 2?
How can elements even commute I thought only functions and operators could
you might find it easier to get help if you rotate the problem set so that people can read it, because otherwise people have to do this with their laptops
just a suggestion 🙂
Ahh I see I’m sorry I’m new
don't worry about it, you're fine 🙂
@nocturne jewel are you sure this is what you wanted
I was showing the rotate command Vimes >.>
ideally yes, rotate the actual question that got multiposted
I feel like it’s a really easy question I’m just having trouble understanding what it’s asking
ig it just wants you to show xy = yx, xz=zx and x(yz)=yzx
and this is not linear algebra tho
Yes because commutes is defined in this book in the context of functions
Theyve been very vague too
And this is my first exposure to linear algebra
so remember the difference between commutative and associative
do you know what they each do ?
Yes
If * is a binary operation on a set S and x,y belong to S
Then if * is commutative, xy=yx
If * is associative (xy)z=x(yz)
yes, right on, you got it
I can’t solve the question though
Well I'm a little confused about what 'Suppose x commutes with y and z' means
it could mean x + z = z + x and x + y = y + x
or it could mean x + y + z = z + y + x, etc
Exactly
I have no idea what they mean by that and unfortunately the solutions aren’t available anywhere
have you tried emailing your teacher?
you don't want to make assumptions about the problem that turn out to be wrong
and im sure they would totally glad to clarify the ambiguity
I don’t have a teacher I’m self studying just because I’m curious and have a lot of free time
I’m in 10th grade lmao
ah i see, well good on you for getting ahead!
in that case you can try proving it both ways
assuming both versions
and see which one makes more sense
Thank you 😊yes ill try that
good luck, let us know how it goes 🙂
I mean S has a defined operation.. so use that operation..
No I don’t know what the operation rlly is it’s just called o it could be + it could be - I just know that there are three elements in a set S and one of them “commutes” with the other two whatever that means
if associativity = distributivity, then the proof is trivial
yes
this might be a dumb question but I just realized I'm not sure
when you multiply a matrix 1xn * mx1, I know you get a single number, but is that number a matrix 1x1 or a scalar?
is n=m?
Do you guys have any suggestions for me? Like a suggested book for linear algebra or prerequisites?
yes, but you didn't specifiy that so start with the basics 
but you get a 1x1 which pretty much is a number
but it isn't the same when you think about it
yeah hence the pretty much
1x1 matrix * nxn is an illegal operation
it's not a scalar in the sense of scaling a matrix
but a scalar isn't an illegal operation
since you'd need a row matrix for the multiplication to work
however things like the determiniant / inverse are the same as the entry/matrix itself
(1 x n)* (n x 1) * (n x n) < is this legal?
have you taken any LA course before?
I’m from india so I’m not familiar with foreign terms
However I can tell you that I’m in 10th grade
no, since you'd get (1x1) by (nxn)
does image and span are the same ?
i recommend strang intro to linear algebra then its pretty friendly and not bad
what about ( (1 x n) * (n x 1) ) * (n x n)?
I’ve taught myself calculus 1 2 3 and physics until now
that's the same thing
no
alright, so the number you get from 1 x n and n x 1 is a 1x1 matrix, not a number
Oh I’ll definitely look for it in the library
image of a transform is what vectors do you "hit" by applying the transformation
span is just every linear combination of vectors in a set
Image is a span, but not all spans are images
am I being accurate here?
Free Pre-Algebra, Algebra, Trigonometry, Calculus, Geometry, Statistics and Chemistry calculators step-by-step
this for example
gives an answer
despite it being "illegal"
so can u example that spans are not images ?
oh I did it wrong
disregard
what does it mean for a vector space to be of dimesion MN?
a (hence every) basis for the space has mn elements
oooo
they defined it
E^{(p, q)} is the matrix with a 1 in the (p, q) slot and 0 everywhere else
this means that the basis has rows and columns both
instead of being like a column matrix
Is it mn elements in just one column or it's in form m×n
the basis doesn't have rows or columns
a basis is a set, rows and columns mean nothing
the elements of the basis are matricies, which indeed have rows and columns
but the basis itself doesn't have rows or columns
Hey, im working on a tough problem and cant figure it out. Using this information, its asking to "State any limitations or constraints in the context and write inequalities that represent those constraints"... could anyone help?
ok, thank you
okay so that means the set of basis will have m*n elements in it
Thank you so much
,rotate
How is it clearly injective?
How is φ:{0,1}^N to R injective?
what does injective mean
If f(a)=f(b) then a=b for a,b belonging to X
One to one
ok so suppose that φ(n_1, n_2, ...) = φ(m_1, m_2, ...) for sequences (n_k) and (m_k) of 0s and 1s
write out what that means
and try to show the sequences agree
That’s what I haven’t been able to do
I don’t get why it should be injective
Why can’t I have two different mappings A and B from N to {0,1} and have them be equal
Ohhhhh nvm it was a very very stupid question
I got it I just wasn’t thinking
what exactly does it mean by homogeneous in:\\ $y'=Ay$ is a constant coefficient first order homogeneous linear system and has the solution $y=ce^{Ax}$
Researcher in Pre-algebra
a homogeneous function is one where if you multiply the inputs by a scalar then the output increases by a power of that scalar
and then a homogeneous differential equation is just a homogeneous function of something and its derivatives
hmm okay
ok that's a very top-down description, homogeneous functions don't have a +c on the end
2x^2 is homogeneous, 2x^2 + 3 is not
sorta
ok it turns out i had the definition wrong
but it's more intuitive now
x^2 + y^2 is homogeneous
x^2y + xy^2 is homogeneous
x^2 + y is not homogeneous
because doubling x and y, x^2 quadruples, y doubles, so overall it's just a mixed mess
so it's like constant degree
hmm interesting
This is quite an odd question, I'd suppose. Say you have a vehicle in 3D space driven by n thrusters at arbitrary angles, and you have a velocity vector you want to follow. How can you (and i know this is kinda subjective) sensibly distribute the load between them all?
This book who has only covered induction and a few proofs of linear algebra is suddenly asking me to prove Wilson’s theorem? How do I even go about it without using knowledge from outside?
have you covered lagrange's theorem (of number theory) and/or the fact that ℤ/pℤ forms a field for prime p? if not, im not sure what they have in mind
so i have an operator $A$ such that for a set of n vectors $(v_1, v_2, ..., v_n)$, for $i$ equal or larger than 2, $A(v_i) = v_i-1$; and for i=1, $A(v_1) = v_1$. How can i prove that it's not hermitian?
It's not showing how i want it to, but it should be v_(i-1)
ƃuɐlɐʇɐɔɹ
No not even close we just went over division algorithm and suddenly they decide to up the level
Oh crap did that ping you? I’m so sorry if it did
do you know how inverses work mod p?
no
<@&286206848099549185>
I do but this book hasn’t even covered it yet. I believe this book is self contained so every exercise can be done using knowledge acquired only by this book
wilson's theorem is the one that says (p-1)! = -1 mod p iff p is prime, right?
does F have to be a field here for R over F to be vector space?
That's part of the definition of a vector space?
i meant like the notes write R is a vector space over F
but it never said F is a field, just said its a subring
ok yes
If F were a commutative ring with identity but not a field,it would be smt called a module
maybe this is talking about modules?
Yes
I guess,You should get a better book
Wilson's theorem is usually not very useful in Linear Algebra
Thanks but just makes me wonder, what were we supposed to do here? Maybe there was a proof which could be created with only the knowledge acquired from the book
Guess we’ll never know
No access to fermats little theorem?
No
They make us prove fermat’s little theorem in the next exercise by using only the self contained knowledge of the reader and i did do it which only strengthens the assumption that Wilson’s theorem could’ve been done too
Mmh it can be proved relative easily with fermats
It's somewhat reasonable to think about inverses mod p and pair up numbers with their inverses to prove Wilson's
Ay ye for an odd prime p we have for each a in {2,3,...,p-2} has an inverse a’ in {2,3,...,p-2} mod p such that aa’\equiv 1 mod p. Such inverse is unique (mod p) so we can pair all those together.
Then you just need to show for p=2, p=3 and that 1*(p-1)\equiv -1 mod p
uneven 
Oh whoops
Hello, I need help with a topic of linear algebra and such. I am an IB student doing my mathematics IA on computer graphics, and I am modelling this specific situation in the game of portal 2. So basically I am doing what I believe is a perspective projection on a plane. This is done using vector equations and planes. Since, I feel that my situation is too simple, I was wondering how I would be able to look at my question in a more complex way. Therefore, I came up with what happens to each point when the player moves their mouse to the right, technically changing the angle of perspective of the observer on the different objects. Any ideas on how to do this?
what does moving the mouse do
So basically, moving your mouse changes the perspective, therefore I think its a rotation matrix based on z (since im doing it in R^3, and projecting it into R^2).
sounds about right
are you using ray tracing? that's one way of doing the projections
using homogeneous coordinates on rays shot from a "viewing" plane
No, I am not using ray tracing. What I am doing is basically, I have different points/vectors and then I make a line from the vector to the observer at the origin. I also have a projected plane, where I find the intersection between the line and the plane which gives me the desired projected point. So I am using normal coordinates
I just tried doing the rotation of z, and it gave me that x is 0. Which does not really make sense, since that means that x is in by the point of origin. Therefore, i am not able to find the point after a rotation of 45 degrees. I think I am just confused about what happens to the coordinates of each point after I move the angle 45 degrees to the right. What i am doing is timing each point by the rotation of z by 45 in R^3, is that not what i am supposed to do?
what do you mean by "timing"
once you have rotated that blue plane, to find what the image should look like, you'll have to convert the intersection of the plane and the lines to the coordinate system of the plane
you can describe the plane by a vector pointing toward z, and the cross product between that vector and the normal you drew in red, since the normal is known (you choose it yourself) and you're only rotating along xy
By timing i mean multiplication, also I thought I could just rotate the points. So what you are saying is, I rotate the plane and the find then new intersections?
you cannot just rotate
there is also an offset
since the plane doesn't go through the origin, you have to be more careful
this is also why i suggested homogeneous coords
I see
give me like 5 mins to dig up my old code
in your case, since you keep the focal point at the origin, what you actually want to do is rotate all of the 3D space in the opposite direction
that way the local coordinates on the plane don't change
(not the best option when you have a bunch of stuff in your scene)
What do you mean rotate the 3D space in the opposite direction? So instead of rotating the projected plane, i rotate the points and walls -45 degrees?
if you want to keep using the same coordinates on the plane, yes
the best solution is to find a new basis for the plane, though
Alright, i have enough time to do both methods. Therefore I will try both, thanks for your help!!! Saved my paper honestly
Why did they do σ inverse?
they reorder the a's by the first index, and if second index is i, then first is σ(i), so if first index is i then second index is σ⁻¹(i)
i started to think my proof but this 5^n does not seem to work nicely
i starts to work out nicely if N =! 1
yes but why? why cant they just interchange the i and j without putting the inverse
no, because they want to keep the same elements
a₂₁ =/= a₁₂
they first reindex them, then sort the a's by the first index
but they keep the same elements
I have this operation: (a*b) = a + b + p, in the Q set:
If I want to operate (a * b) * c, do I operate first the parenthesis and then operate its result with c?
so it would be: $(a+b+p)+c\newline -> (a+b+p+c+p)$
33583409
Yeah, but I think your first line should have a * instead of a +
true
somehow mine wont add up unless the righht side start from 0
Yeah no I got that what I don’t get is why bother putting the inverse instead of just plain sigma? After all sigma and sigma inverse both belong to Sn it doesn’t make sense to me
but if you do sigma then you get different pairs
you can also think of it as them applying the inverse to both indices, and it cancels on the left
I guess if read it a few times over again and I’ll get it thank you so much:)
np :)
Also is my pinging causing any trouble? I’m so sorry if it did
no, not at all :)
i'm on dnd cause i have something broken and if i get a notification discord crashes 
here b_ij = a_ji
Ohhhh
No wait isn’t that a given since it’s the transpose
No wait
Yea you’re right
OHHHHH MY GOD
I FINALLY GOT IT
I FEEL SO DUMB IT WAS SO OBVIOUS LMFAO
Wow goddamn it was so blatantly obvious I have one brain cell
Thanks for ur help:)
np
it's like that sometimes yea
Oh so apparently
The book WASNT self contained
Atleast part 1
It was meant for fricking graduate students😐
Always read the preliminaries
So it explains why Wilson’s theorem couldn’t have been proven like that
But it’s all good cos it’s only 3 chapters which were in part 1 and 2 of them I understood rlly well one of them I got it but the exercises are based on outside knowledge so I’ll study it from some undergraduate book it’s all good
hey guys this isnt really, advanced algebra? but whats the name of the heighest point something can reach in a quadratic formula, isnt it called a vertex or something?
“Maximum” is the common term
the "vertex" is the extremum of a quadratic in one variable
which is probably what youre asking about
but as you mentioned, this isnt really appropriate for this channel
or one of the ten #questions-_ channels
hey if the pivots for $A$ are $d_1 \dots d_i$ does that mean
$$\det(A - \lambda I) = \prod (d_i - \lambda_i)$$
I feel like it should be true, since eliminating doesn't seem to mingle/touch the $\lambda$'s (since they are on the diagonal)
ᴉln
@wind pasture what is $\mathbf u \cdot \text{(first row of A)}$ ?
ᴉln
0
what about the second row?
all 0
notice how taking the dot product with each row is the same as matrix multiplication
An interactive matrix multiplication calculator for educational purposes
so yes, its true
yep
so you can think of matrix multiplication in multiple ways
for this case the best way is the dot product way
try doing matrix-vector multiplication you'll see its the same as dot product with each row
ok that website helps
you can also think in terms of columns, for example
$$A\begin{bmatrix}1 \ 2\end{bmatrix}$$
means take 1 of the first column and 2 of the second column then add
ᴉln
(for 2x2 A)
yeah thats how i usually think of matrix vector multiplication
so it wasn't clear at first
yeah
theres different ways to see matrix multiplication too
3blue1brown has great visuals if you haven't seen them https://www.3blue1brown.com/essence-of-linear-algebra-page/
ᴉln
likewise if they're scaled
oh sorry bad notation
i mean the dot products
$u^T(v_1 + v_2) = u^Tv_1 + u^Tv_2 = 0 + 0 = 0$
might be more clear
ᴉln
remember $u^Tv$ is just the dot product
ᴉln
ah ok that makes sense
intuitively if you have two vectors in a plane, and u is orthogonal to both then all combinations will fill the plane, but u is still outside
@gritty swift is there any A matrix such that
A^2 = -4 a
b c
where a, b, c can be any real number
more specifically im trying to figure out this question
idk if this approach is right
nvm i got it
ok cool
i'd try thinking of $Ax = \lambda x$ then $A^2x = AAx = A\lambda x = \lambda Ax = \lambda^2 x$
ᴉln
and $\lambda^2 \ne -4$
ᴉln
this works for n by n and its easier
thats pretty simple lol
since $A$ is linear $A\lambda x = \lambda Ax$
ᴉln
you could have complex eigenvalues
no it specifies real
oh right
yeah i messed up
wait so is the question wrong?
oh nvm (i misread it as show it doesn't exist)
i was just about to evaluate A11 ^ 2 + (A12)A21 = -4
hello guys i have a problem, could i get some help, writin my problem...
so i have a joint J, it rotates around axis of rotation w (it's in 3D, it's perpendical to the plane here)
and p is attached to J by r
i want to know dp/dtheta, that is how much does p change when i change the angle of rotation
,rotate ccw
so i know how to get dp/dtheta but in the coordinates of J (maybe?)
what i need is dp/dtheta in world coordinates
and assume i know how to express any point in the local coordinates (drawn in black) in world coordinates (drawn in red)
now i'm not sure whether i should rotate dp/dtheta by -theta? or translate such that it relates to the local coordinates drawn in black instead of the local coordinates of the joint?
but i think it is invariant to translation
does anything that comes out of my keyboard make sense 😦 ?
its just
subspaces
but my teacher doesn't explain that well so I'm confused
well, im more like
how do i determine whether a set is a subspace or not
ye, could I DM it to you?
pick some c in F and a b in W, if ca+b in W then W is ubspace
We also need to check for the zero vector
no need cuz let b = a and c = -1
can somebody help me with this
find a way to add together the 3 given sets so that the coefficient of t^2 is 1, and the constant term is -10
you can view this as solving the linear system:
a + 2b + 3c = 1
2a + 2b - 4c = -10
for integers a, b, c
where did ur coefficients come from for the lin sys?
the first equation is solving for the coefficient of the t^2 term
the second is the coefficient of the constant term
gotcha
the most natural thing to do is to apply elimination
i.e. subtract the first equation from the second
giving us a - 7c = -11
and then we can pick any integer solution and solve for b
as long as b is an integer (which it should be), that solution works
i see, and ofc the last guess and check i did anyways worked lol
well, that works too, its just a bit less clever 😉
you could throw everything in a matrix and do row reduction mindlessly with a calculator
would span{1,1+x,1+x^2} be a subspace?
span is always a subspace
ur a god

uoᴉʇɐdᴉɔᴉʇu∀
then by FTA there is $b_1,...,b_m \in \bC$ solutions.
uoᴉʇɐdᴉɔᴉʇu∀
how do you show if $a_mT^mv+...+a_1Tv+a_0v = 0$, where $T$ on $\bC^n$
uoᴉʇɐdᴉɔᴉʇu∀
then u can write it as $(T-b_1I)...(T-b_mI)v = 0$
uoᴉʇɐdᴉɔᴉʇu∀
do u just expand it
Yes
if w is an element of span{u,v}, then would it be true that span{u,v,w} = span{u,v}?
try to prove it
posting before everyone goes to sleep
I have the obvious end of the double inequality I need to show equality, that is to say the less than side
I'm not really sure how to utilize the properties of B for the other side
nvm solved it lol
true? if X ring and F subset X a field, let c in F and a,b in X then acb = cab
ig nnot
wait minute
some people define rings to be commutative and some don't
if your ring is commutative then this is true, but it might not be if your ring isn't
ok so here it says
av = va
idk why thats the case
oh wait thats just becouse Hf is vecotr space over F
I don't think that's enough?
the ring here is not commute and how do u justify then va = av?
prove that the direct sum of the set of nxn skew-symmetric matrices and the set of nxn symmetric matrices is the set of all nxn matrices, all of which have entries from a field F.
you can do it by setting A=(X+X^T)/2 and B=(X-X^T)/2, from which A is symmetric and B is skew-symmetric (and their sum is X). But the question also states that F has characteristic other than 2 and I don't see why that's necessary? I looked up a soln online but it said that it allows us to divide by 2 when defining A,B, but I don't understand that.
has your book defined an algebra over a field
I mean, 2 = 0 when you have characteristic 2 and so you can't divide by 0
more rigorously, dividing by 2 is asserting that a multiplicative inverse of 2 exists, but since 2 = 0, a multiplicative inverse cannot exist
no
gave an example here
i mean i dont think i need commutative to show this
wait maybe i do
yeah it's weird
cause you're going to get terms like
(a_2 j)(a_4k)
and so you'd like to say that this is equal to (a_2 a_4)(jk)
i think i need to show ai = ia, aj = ja and ak = ka but idk how
yeah I don't think you can
So when people define an algebra over a field, which is what this is
the third axiom there is included as part of the definition so you can do the thing I just said
no it seemed they just said that H_F is a ring that has a field in it idk
probably just assume it
alright thanks they also said H_R is the hamiltonian quartornion whatever that is
if R is realnumber
yeah so for the quarternions, they usually require that
ok so all commutative rings over field is an algebra right
nice
i dont see how in same problem here letting F = C will mean there is no multiplicative inverse
since $v \bar v = a_1^2+...+a_4^2$, can't I just let $a^{-1}$ be $(a_1^2+...+a_4^2)^{-1} \cdot \bar v$ and it will work for complex?
uoᴉʇɐdᴉɔᴉʇu∀
yeah everything has an inverse
that is weird then
oh nvm
so i thought i proved multiplicative inverse work for every field
but yea somethings wrong
the problem is that a_1^2 + ... a_4^2 can be zero when these are complex numbers
oh right
the only way this can happen for real numbers is if they're all zero
nice thx
I don't see how I could be wrong, but I know for sure it can't be this simple
Instructions say to find A^n for n in |N and these A matrices
do you know what A^n means
what you found is $nA$, not $A^n$
uu∀
ah... whoops
So for example, for the first matrix it would be
1 1
0 (-1 or 1 if n is odd or even respectively)
?
no.
do you know what it means to multiply matrices?
bc it does NOT mean multiplying entries together
kA = k(whatever is inside A) though?
multiplying a matrix by a number is (strictly speaking) not the same as multiplying a matrix by a matrix
I'm aware that it's done differently
True
please tell me you aren't just memorizing this one formula
Its just simple multiplication with itself
like, this is true, but it sounds like you're ignorant of matrix multiplication more generally
ah no i know it's with the rows and columns
Then you should know the answer to this question lol
yeah, now I do
im gonna dip cause im getting low on energy
didn't realise matrix multiplication applied here as well, sorry for this being dumb, lol
thing is, I can keep going like this for ages, but that's not really answering the question
yeah.
to raise a matrix to the n'th power you need to do something more sophisticated
but it involves concepts like diagonalization and eigenvalues and characteristic polynomials
and given that you struggled with the basics (specifically matrix multiplication) i feel as if i would not be able to give you a full crash course
for F[t] basis is easy if char(F) = 0, what if char(F) ≠ 0?
how does char(F) matter?
you can still take the monomial basis {1, t, t^2, t^3, ...}
for example t+t^2
|F| = 2
wouldnt that be 0
ok so how would you show independence? i thought a 0 function was defined to be something that just evaluate everything to 0
that is weird
think of it more as a formal object
t is just some indeterminate, it could be something like a matrix even
ic, does t have to be some object that form a vector space over F? or on other hand can t be any vector space over F
it's nothing more than just an indeterminate t that you can add and multiply scalar multiples of
there's no concept of "plugging in" to consider, that's an extra thing you can add on later if you decide to
ok
in a textbook though the wrote
let F be subfield of complex, here to prove lin indep they used FTA, whats the difference of V here and F[t] in the problem
oh nvm i c
but why can't they argue the same way as you mentioned above? by treating as objects to prove linear independence
V is space of polynomial functions
Not polynomials
You could have f be a nonzero polynomial
But f could be a zero function
Take function f:F_2->F_2
f(x)=x^2+x
ok, so the vector space of polynomials is where t is indetermined, but to show its a linear independence how do you argue?
the monomials
just say you cannot get rid of the polynomials if any of the a_i is nonzero?
polynomials are actually just sequences of numbers (or elements of F) which are eventually zero
two polynomials are equal iff all their corresponding coefficients are equal, definitionally
ic thx
I mean for a field with infinite number of elements, that's kinda correct
anyone?
I understand that needs to prove det(a), det(b) = 0 but aside that I don't get how to get there
does the third line remind you of anything
(A+B)²=0
i have a feeling determinants arent gonna be useful here
and no, (A+B)^2 = A^2 + 2AB + B^2
you're missing an AB
this is correct now
personally i wonder why they specify n is odd
kind of suspicious that they say it like that
me too, I think it has to do maybe with |KA| = Kⁿ|A| , maybe something with K = -1 and ⁿ is odd
if you move it to other side
I meant maybe something like this but idk how does it help
A²+AB = -B²
|A²+AB| = (-1)ⁿ |B|²
what if we try to prove it just for n=3 first
maybe itll be easier
(though maybe not)
(but i'm out of ideas)
ok so i have a very harebrained idea
?
A²+AB = -B²
|A²+AB| = |-B²| = -|B|², so |A²+AB| <= 0
AB <= -A²
|AB| <= |-A²| = -|A|², so |AB| <= 0
Is there a way to show now that |AB| >= 0 ? to show that |AB| = 0, then |A|,|B| = 0
since they're square odd matrices, we know they have at least one real eigenvalue each, call the eigenvalues a and b and the eigenvectors x and y
cayley hamilton ??
A^2 + AB + B^2 = 0, so (A^2 + AB + B^2)x = A^2x + BAx + B^2x = a^2x + aBx + B^2x = (a^2I + aB + B^2)x = 0
assume a and x are not 0, then a^2I + aB + B^2 = 0; i feel like B has to have a real eigenvalue 0??
a^2x + aBx + B^2x = x(a^2I + aB + B^2) = 0
the x should be on the right tho
Maybe,Try smt like assume A or B is invertible and convert that equation to smt like (AB^-1)^2+(AB^-1)+I=0
And show this new equation has no solution
Also,we are talking about matrices over R,right?
oh well it would have to be surely
i think i have something tho
if a^2I + aB + B^2 = 0, then by using cayley-hamilton in reverse (is that a thing which can be done?) a^2 + ab + b^2 = 0, but this is true for no real b, contradiction?
on a scale from 1 to 10, how much nonsense am i talking
lol ok
but your solution might be right with that
have you done eigenvalues and eigenvectors
nope
oh
well i'm not sure how to involve the odd square matrix thing without talking about the characteristic polynomial so
i don't even know if my solution works tbf, someone who actually knows linalg vibe check me pls
oh when n is odd you have
Det(-A) = -Det(A)
I bet that has something to do with it
yes Det(-A) = (-1)ⁿ Det(A) = -Det(A) thats all I know haha
ohhh right that's what you meant
Using Jordan blocks,you can conclude if C^2+C+1=0 then C is of even dim
C is real matrix
oh bloody hell
that's too advanced for me
... wait
A^2 + AB + B^2 = 0; let |A| = a, |B| = b
a^2 + ab + b^2 = 0; this is true iff a, b = 0?
is
is it that easy
no wait
Why would that imply that
determinant isn't additive
Why would A^2+B^2+AB=0 imply a^2+ab+b^2=0
You could probably do this without Jordan blocks
nvm,You don't even need Jordan blocks
C has an eigenvector if C is of odd dimension
But,there are no Eigenvalues such that c^2+c+1=0
QED
yeah, i think that's sorta what i said further up
but their class hasn't done eigenvectors yet apparently
if A=B then A^2=0 so clearly not invertible, so assume A !=B then multiply A^2+AB+B^2=0 by (A-B) and it simplifies to A^3-B^3=0 which means A^3=B^3
ooh, lovely
Now?
A^2 + AB + B^2 = 0
A^2 + 2AB + B^2 = (A+B)^2 = AB
taking determinants, LHS >= 0 so |AB| >= 0
A^2 + AB + B^2 = 0
A^2 - 2AB + B^2 = (A-B)^2 = -3AB
taking determinants, LHS >= 0 so |AB| =< 0
so |AB| = 0 and done?
i think this is the way
That works too
can't help but feel it proves too much tbh, why does n have to be odd
did i use it implicitly somehow
So that |-AB|>=0 implies |AB|<=0
yes right
let R^infty be sequence with almost all 0, does L(R^infty,R) have a countable basis?
ye
this is it
think so
You can replace R^inf with polynomials then
i see so
im lost then
span S* is countable dimension but how does it not span L(R^infty,R), i know in infinite dimension then a certain argument dont work anymore, but
id like it if hint first before answer
wait lme think again
Let f_1 be a linear transform such that f_1(1,0,0,...)=1 and f_1(0,0,...1 at ith position,0,0..)=0
Show,This is not in that span
thanks, why is this so hard to imagine 😢
am i tripping or is this just pi_1
Wait,I think I am tripping
you could have f: R^infty -> R defined by f(alpha) = sum of all alpha_i
That need not be well defined,if say alpha_i are all greater than 1
almost all alpha_i are zero
i.e. all but finitely many
so no, this is actually well-defined always
Yea,That works I think
ah
i see so its well defined becuz only finitely many are nonzero
and it doesnt span because when you fix a lin combo and try to make it equal f then u could evaluate a sequence with term in higher index right
and it will collapse
frick my brain too small sometimes
always
is this fact equivalent to axiom of choice and if so how?
I is not a finite index set
idk plez explain
it is easy to see that aoc implies this fact
i only know its true in finite dimensional V
I don't see why you need aoc at all
the proof is the same as in the finite dimensional case
i am not really seeing how to apply aoc here at all
or i guess the other theorem needs aoc?
the one where every vector space has a basis
that's true yes
this needs
ok thx
well this needs transfinite induction
transfinite induction needs well ordering
well ordering is equivalent to AoC
oh ok nice
do you need transfinite induction here
(or you can do this by zorn lemma which is also equivalent)
well proofs i met used either zorn either transfinite induction
of that each vector space has basis
but youre given that V has a basis
???
how do i align a vector to a plane? aka make it point in the direction it'd look like its pointing in if you were to look at it straight from the normal of the plane in an orthographic view

