#linear-algebra
2 messages ยท Page 168 of 1
actually i don't wanna use that, and before examples, do you get everything this says?
every vector in the space is a linear combo of the vectors in the given set
wdym 'made in the vector space'
every vector in the set can be made from the vectors in the vector space using linear combinations
no you flipped it
every vector in the vector space can be obtained by a linear combo of the vectors in the given set
oh
does it matter how many vectors we can use for the linear combination from the given set?
nvm i just thought about it
here are some easy exercises. show span{(1,0),(0,1)}=R^2, span{(1,0),(0,1),(0,0)}=R^2, span{(7,0)}=x axis
okay, i'll see what i can do o:
the vectors are already made into RREF, so is it standard that the number of pivots = dimension of span?
from
[1 0
0 1]
can we conclude that it spans R^2?
no real need for rref. use the defn of span directly
take an arbitrary vector in R^2; it has a form (x,y) where x,y are in R. write (x,y) as a linear combo of (1,0) & (0,1)
so could i just say something like, let x, y in R.
x[1 0] + y[0 1] = [x y]
therefore the set spans R^2
we start with 'take an arbitrary vector in the vector space. depending on the vector space this vector will have some form ...' THEN show this vector is a linear combo of the vectors in the given set
note what we're really doing is showing the vector space is a subset of the span of the set (subset going the other way is given almost for free so we don't worry about it)
okay, i think i get it
the second question would be the same as the first question because the zero vector doesn't contribute to the dimension of the span right?
we can always make that [x y] vector through linear combination
there's a certain sense in which (0,0) doesn't 'contribute more' to the span. but you should go through it with the same process. directly use the definition of span
alrighty okay, thank you very very much i will continue to work ๐
you're welcome
So I had a problem that I'm trying to do and it essentially boils down to proving the following:
- Given $n$ unknowns and $n-1$ homogeneous equations, is the solution set exactly equal to a line?
Have a Banana, Bitch
- Say W is an $n-1$ dimensional subspace of $k^n$. Given a basis $S=w_1,\cdots, w_{n-1}$ define the matrix $M(S)$ as the matrix having $w_1$ for the first row (in standard basis representation of $w_1$), $w_2$ as second,..., $w_{n-1}$ as the $n-1^{th}$.
Have a Banana, Bitch
Is it true that if we look at the solution set of M(S)*x=0 then it will be the same as the solution set of M(S')*x=0 for some other basis S' of W?
If i solve and find x=2, y=1, and z=1/2 would the vector form just be [x,y,z] = [0,0,2] + t*[2,1,1/2]?
How do you determine if a matrix is consistent or inconsistent without RREF?
lmao can yall not ask questions while another one is posted
<@&286206848099549185>
@pure tangle wdym by vector form? I would interpret "the vector form of a solution" as (2,1,1/2) personally.
@covert trellis one way is by the number of rows and columns
How do you do that?
a consistent system has equal rows and columns
but I'm not sure how you can get all the information you'd get from RREF without doing it
because you still need to know more
is there a difference between a matrix in row reduced echlon form and just echlon form?
Echelon form isnt reduced
@hybrid charm rref requires being in ref. it further requires that each leading entry must be the only nonzero entry in its own column, and each leading entry must be 1. ref doesn't require these.
how do i prove that this is closed under scalar multiplication?
i already determined that it is not closed under addition
@still elbow i dont really follow how youre trying to construct this; would your addition be unions? whats your multiplication?
the operation is symmetric difference
ah
or exclusive or
yeah im not exactly sure about that part
if so i think that actually is a vector space
since distributivity holds
(Powerset(S), symmetricdiff) is definitely an abelian group
Yeah, definitely
Powerset(S), union and powerset(s), intersection aren't abelians though
right?
union and intersection arent invertible
so theyre not groups
they are commutative however
but yeah, any abelian group forms a vector space over F_2
by letting 0 * v = the zero element of the group
and 1 * v = v
Ty so much
its a bit of a weird construction though
Definitely
wait a bit
what about lets say
F8
F_8
im not sure how youd define multiplication between the field of 8 elements and power sets of a set
nonno
there might be a way to do it sensibly but i doubt it
i mean like you said that any abelian over F_2 forms a v space
but take F_8 over F_2 (usual operations)
what about it
whats 5
Z/8Z is an abelian group yes
But is Z/8Z a vector space over F2?
Isn't 1+1=0 in Z/2Z?
okay maybe this confusion would be cleared up by clarifying whether each element is from Z/2Z or Z/8Z
since the "1" in Z/2Z is different from the "1" in Z/8Z
I see that
oh i think i see what youre taking objection to
(1+1)5 where 1 is from the scalar field and 5 is a vector
hm
actually yeah youre right
my bad
i forgot that you need nilpotence
let me fix my statement:
every abelian group in which x + x = 0 for all x forms a vector space over F_2
@still elbow sorry, hopefully that clears this up
in any case, that does still work for your example
of (powerset, symmetricdifference) over F_2
since the symmetric difference of any set with itself is {}
Now this totally makes sense, thank you!
How annoying that symmetric difference and direct sum of spaces uses the same symbol
Yes, some people use โ for symmetric difference / XOR
@pure tangle as you see youve got 3 equations in the form of z = f(x,y) those are plains in 3d. The intersection of those 3 plains is the solutionand since there are all constants at the right hand side of the equations they dont go through the origin which means that at least 2 plains cant lay on each other, if that was the the case there would be no solutions. So the functions are not the same. Which means that it has one solution because each is a different function. To check if it really doesnt have one solution or non, you could check if the matrix A has a determinant of 0 and if the you consider the right hand side as a columnvector. If the columnvector is linear combination or of the columnvectors in A and the deterinant is 0 the sollytion would be a vector + nullspace ( which is an affine subspace ) which means that there are infinitely many solutions. But luckily in this case the determinant is not 0 which means theres only one solution.
go to #prealg-and-algebra, linear algebra is a whole other story
guys whats the requeriments to a A U B subspaces to be a vectorial subspace?
if I remember correctly the union of two subspace is a subspace iff A is a subset of B or B is a subset of A
u sure? not trying to be mean but rly didnt heard about that rule
it's not really a rule
it's a fairly standard exercise
Ok here
Let's say $A\cup B$ is a subspace and $A\not\subseteq B$ and $B\not\subseteq A$, then we can choose $x\in A-B$ and $y\in B-A$. Now since $A\cup B$ is a vector space $x+y\in A\cup B$. If $x+y\in A$, say $x+y=a\in A$, then $y=a-x\in A$ contrary to our choice of $y$. If $x+y\in B$, say $x+y=b$, then $x=b-y\in B$ contrary to our choice of $x$
Whoever
so we arrive at a contradiction either way
This shows that the union of two subspaces is a subspace only if one is a subset of the other
The other direction is obvious
okok
ty
but if it is a intersetion is it A is a subset of B AND B is a subset of A
well the intersection of two subspaces is always a subspace
!r3
- Stick to one channel and don't post the same question in multiple channels. Please don't ask for help in other channels if no one is responding in the one you have posted your question in.
Using the formula: a + bx + cx^2 + dx^3, for (a,b,c,d)
the 5 + x means (5,x ...) or (0,5+x ...)?
It means (5,1,0,0)
Since $a+bx+cx^2+dx^3$ is $(a,b,c,d)$, then $5+x=5+1\cdot x+0\cdot x^2+0\cdot x^3$ is $(5,1,0,0)$
Whoever
@dark valley
k, ty again
so you have a linear operator and a set of vectors such that the image of that set is independent. You need to prove that that means that the original set is also independent.
Prove by contradiction. Write down what it means for the original set to have a dependency, and prove that then the transformed set must also have one.
ohh
Also if you want to be direct you can just use proof by contrapositive
if the set is linearly dependent its gotta do that one of these v1.. vm can be written as a linear combination of the others, however that cant be because Tv1.. Tvm is linearly independent?
how would i go about doing that?
So the contrapositive statement of the problem is if $v_1,\dots,v_m$ is linearly dependent then $Tv_1,\dots,Tv_m$ is linearly dependent, then you use exactly what ConfusedReptile said
Whoever
no one asnwered :(
i need help with (ii)
how to prove it's closed uner scalar mult
i understand the concept
like if it's a scalar
it won't turn a real polynomial imaginary
but how to prove it
All the roots of $c f$ are the roots of $f$ if c is nonzero. If it's zero, that's a zero polynomial, which is still in the set.
ConfusedReptile
that's pretty much it
what have you tried?
well ive tried thinking of a function that gets reduced to R1 but we are still able to factor out a scalar yet additivity doesnt stand.. i cant rlly think of any
i wanted to say the derivative would be good but additivity would stand
here's the kind of trick I have in mind to make one, use the fact that x/y = (ax)/(ay)
a=1?
a is arbitrary
yeah and since $(x,y) \in \bR^2$ what I showed is like plugging in for $(ax,ay)$ but ending up with the same thing, see what I mean?
Merosity
ohh
so a function that kills off the y-dimension is enough?
because we're supposed to end up in R1
not sure what you mean by that
phi(x,y) = x won't work because it's linear for instance
a projection is linear
well with the example you used then how is addivity not defined?
I didn't give an example, I gave a hint
as a way to help you try to construct a function
$f(x,y) = \frac{x}{y}$ satisfies $f(ax,ay) = f(x,y)$
Merosity
that looks good to me
I think what I had in mind was a bit weirder
phi(x,y) = y sin(x/y) when y !=0 and =0 when y=0
wait youd get sin(x/0) tho
yeah that's what the second part is
that's when y !=0 , when y=0 it's just 0
it's piecewise
just plug it in and work it out, show me where you get stuck
your answer works just fine though so don't sweat it
x^2/y seems like it should work too (?)
sorry for interrupting , i have a simple question. Let A nxn matrix, if I find det(A) using the Laplace expansion (cofactor expansion? idk how you call it) for the 1st row it should be the same for the 2nd,3rd...i-th row too ? And what about the j-th column ?
Laplace/Cofactor expansion works for any row / any column
and should give the same result for all of them ?
yep
thanks
What are some interesting Linear Algebra project ideas?
Preferably either in the areas of pure mathematics or economics.
depends on your level but I would say SVD decomposition for image compression is an personal favorite
there's a book called "Linear Algebra in Action" which gives a lot of applications of linear algebra
discrete fourier transform also
Hey! I'm really struggling with this question, how am i supposed to determine the vector AT with the base AB, AC?
"Classify the point conglomerate in Rยฒ whose sum of distances tween A(3,0) and B(-3,0) equals 7"
oh yeah
forgot to explain this further
how am I supposed to calculate the distances between a conglomerate of points and a single point?
do I calculate from an average or the closest point?
and by "classify" the exercise asks if its a circumference/hiperbole/whathaveyou
this doesn't work because a could be negative
but we would have a^2 on the inside tho
a*sqrt(x^2+y^2)=sqrt(a^2 x^2 + a^2 y^2)
right?
well do it with a=-1
phi(-v)=-phi(v)
left side is always positive
so right side must be too, but -phi(v) is negative
$-\sqrt{x^2+y^2} \ne \sqrt{(-1)^2 x^2 + (-1)^2 y^2}$
Merosity
well you still have the solution I offered earlier at least
pick any function f(z)
that's defined for all z in R
then you can define $$\phi(x,y) = \begin{cases}y f(x/y) & y \ne 0 \ 0 & y = 0 \end{cases}$$
Merosity
I picked f(z) = sin(z) cause I liked it
how is scalar multiplication defined there tho? like how is y*sin(a(x/y))=a ysin(x/y)
a(x,y) = (ax,ay)
yeah
oh thats smart
cool ๐
yup you're welcome lol just randomly about to throw some paper away and just flashed in my mind about your problem earlier lmao
lmao
sort of part of a larger topic called homogeneous equations
thanks for the reply earlier, i have another problem
how do i start this question? a hint would be enough, as i still want to do it myself
take some elements from W_c and try to do stuff they should be able to do in a subspace with them
so i just invent some values and play with them?
well I would write f(x) and g(x) and say they're both in W_c
now like, add them, do you get another element in W_c?
ok, let me try
How do I know what kind of conical shape it is based only on the info of the distances between the shape and certain points?
Circumference/Ellipse/Hyperbole/Parable/degenerate conic
Has anyone encountered notation for the dual space like $A^{#}$?
meow
"Classify the shape in Rยฒ whose sum of distances to the point (3,0) and (-3,0) equals 7
I'm pretty sure that it's an ellipse
but how do I formally prove it?
I know that the sum of distances to 2 focal points in an ellipse equals 2a
but who's to say that this isn't, say, an hyperbole?
in a matrix, does changing the column order change the matrix?
like if I was told to make a matrix out of vectors a,b,c
and I made a matrix [a,b,c]
is it different from doing [b,c,a]
besides the obvious fact that the matrix is literally different, yes that has a noticeable effect
how?
so say A=[a b c] and B=[b c a]
the columns of A tell us that e1 gets mapped to a, e2 to b, and e3 to c.
the columns of B tell us that e1 gets mapped to b, e2 to c, and e3 to a. which is completely different
ok yeah
the way things are getting mapped is swapped
but would it make a difference for other stuff
...like?
inverse, independence, null space, Ax=0 homogenous stuff etc.........
Swapping columns is a permutation
So anything you'd expected to be preserved under permutation
well yeah all of those things are different
the inverse wont be very different but still different
Independence won't change with permutation
^
thus rank and nullity won't change
the determinant will only change by a sign
if at all. its possible it will be the same
meow
Probably the field in which the vector spaces V and W are over
hey guys I don't really get what is the purpose of non-trivial solution ?Is it like an infinity solution?
Because in high school, I've study that a system of solution that have n variable and m solution, such that n > m, then there will have an infinite solution
"non trivial" just means "not equal to 0"
if you take a homogenous system, say Av = 0
its obvious that the zero vector always solves this
thats not a very interesting observation
so one often asks for nontrivial solutions
we already know the zero vector solves it, but does it have any other solutions?
for this matrix why can't the bottom 2 rows (y and z) cancel, become free variables and end up with x = 1-s+t, y = s, z = t
is it because if I use combinations to get one row to zero the other wont be able to make the same operation because it's now a row of zeros?
I think each operation can be do once for each row
ex : if u subtract second row from third row you will get
(1 1 -1 1)
(0 -3 5 2)
(0 0 0 0)
thanks for the response. thats what my convulted last sentance was getting at. Thanks so much
Need a hand with this, not entirely sure how to start
try writing out a basis for kerT, expanding it to a basis of KerST and then finding a basis for KerS from that and comparing them the dimensions
How do you write a basis for a general subspace?
just let {v1,v2,...vn} be a basis?
and not quite sure i understand what you mean by expanding a basis
yea just write it out
kerS is a subspace of kerTS so u can expand its basis to a basis for KerTS
ok you lost me lol
kerS is the set of elements in U which map to 0, how is that a subspace of the elements of kerTS?
is T(S(u)) always 0 if S(u) = 0?
Ok right
@hoary osprey would you be able to give a hint for the image inequality?
For this, I would solve for all of the values of a_n with the coordinates (1, 0), (2, 0) etc right?
yes. since this is the linear algebra channel, i'm assuming you're supposed to do this using lagrange interpolation
this is not linear algebra and is more suited for #prealg-and-algebra or #precalculus
@wintry steppe I don't know what Lagrange interpolation is ๐ this is a question about curve fitting from my LA textbook
Solving for a_n with Gaussian elimination
you could gauss jordan but that's pain
that's another way to do it lol
yeah I hate g-j lol
assuming tterra's method is nicer
What is it? Is there any way you could explain it to someone new to LA or is it too complicated?
I'm really enjoying this subject so far, feels like doing a puzzle ๐
it's a way of finding the unique n-th degree polynomial taking on specified values at n + 1 distinct points
all you need to understand it is to know what a basis is
Is n here 3, then, because the amount of given points is 4?
I don't know what a basis is ๐

the wikipedia page is good imo https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrange_polynomial
it has a worked example too
two actually!
meh you don't even need to know what a basis is lol
So to perform Lagrange interpolation, none of the x coordinates can be the same?
well, you can't have a polynomial taking on two different values at one point
so yeah
product
Trying to wrap my head around this
side tangent: informally speaking, a basis is sort of the "least possible information you need" to entirely determine what linear functions to do a space
for example, to determine what a linear transformation in R^2 (the x-y plane) does, you only need to look at how it transforms the x axis and y axis
so the vectors (1 0) and (0 1)
so {(1 0), (0 1)} is a basis for R^2 [the "standard basis", and the formal interpretation of cartesian coordinates]
but it has many other bases; for example, {(4 2), (-1 -1)} would also be a basis
there's of course a more formal definition than that, but this property is why we "care" about bases
there are some cool facts about bases, such as the fact that every basis of a given space has the same size
which we call the space's "dimension"
R^2 is called 2-dimensional (or 2D) because all its bases have 2 vectors
Do I learn this later in the course too?
you should, yes
theyre one of the more important parts of linear algebra
in fact, a lot of mathematics in general can be boiled down to "in order to study [x transformation], we should look at what it does to [some special "part" of the structure]"
e.g. to determine group homomorphisms it suffices to look at a group's generators [assuming you know the map is a homomorphism in the first place]
obviously that's beyond the scope of linear algebra
but the point is that it's a common theme
R^2 is one structure - in fact, it's a specific type of structure, called a "vector space"
a "structure" is essentially something we can do mathematics on
slightly more formally, it's a set together with some operations
in the case of vector spaces, your set consists of vectors
ah yeah, linear algebra is the study of vector spaces right?
and your operations are being able to add vectors
and multiply vectors by scalars
right
well you cant multiply vectors "naively" but you can define cross and dot products
when you do so, youre adding additional "structure" because youre creating a new operation
well other types of vector spaces specifically might simply be where you take your elements from a different base field
so rather than working in R^n, you work in Q^n
the space of vectors consistng of rational numbers
(this is what computers do in practice)
or in C^n, the space of vectors consisting of complex numbers
you can get more... interesting than this though
are you familiar with modular arithmetic?
And Q^n has different properties than R^n
uhhh I know that 7 mod 3 is 1 ๐ that's about it
(right? LOL)
yes
Lagrange Polynomials was a pain to understand (at least the formula cause my prof had it not in big Pi notation at first)
you just need to have a basic notion of what "mod" means
essentially if you imagine that we take the integers
but then take them "modulo" the same number
we get a new structure, which we can then make vector spaces out of
let me be a bit more concrete
and say we're considering the field Z/3Z, the integers modulo 3
(the notation might seem weird, theres good reasons for it but you dont need to worry about it)
this structure has 3 elements
{0, 1, 2}
and addition and multiplication behave kinda like you'd expect
except if we "overflow", for example 2 + 2
we "loop back around"
so 2 + 2 = 4 = 1
since 4 = 1 mod 3
similarly, 2 + 1 = 3 = 0
besides that its not that weird of an object though
and then we can consider (Z/nZ)^k as a vector space
where the vectors consist of k entries from Z/nZ
[in my example, from Z/3Z]
this vector space, unlike examples such as R^n or C^n
is finite
there are only finitely many vectors in it
ooh.. finite vector space...
this gives it some weird behaviours
like the overflow thing?
for example, if youve worked with finding solutions to linear systems of equations in the past
i recently learned about the Z/nZ group but never considered it as a vector space that is very cool
you might know theres situations where you'll have infinitely many solutions to a system
Yes
but of course, that only makes sense if your vector space has infinitely many vectors!
in the case of finite vector spaces, we just end up with finitely many solutions
but with more than 1
so a vector isn't just a line in space? ๐
vectors in R^n are lines in space!
and this is useful intuition to have
but the notion of "vector" is more general than that
not all courses cover this in all its nuances
but its a very handy construction
another example of a vector space would be where your vectors are the real numbers R, but your scalars are the rational numbers Q
in other words, you can add real numbers together, but you can only multiply real numbers by rational numbers
this might seem like a small restriction, but it actually makes our space behave very... chaotically
i was talking about a "basis" earlier, but it turns out that the basis of R with scalars Q isn't very nice
in fact:
(1) it has infinitely many entries
(2) there's no way to make an algorithm that describes all those entries
we call R over Q "infinite dimensional" as a result
the vector space created by letting your vectors be real numbers and your scalars be rational numbers
obviously "normally" when we work with R
we take our scalars to also be from R
in which case you have no issues
and get a nice, simple, one-dimensional space
the "real numbers"
but if you "restrict" multiplication so that you cant multiply real numbers by real numbers, you get something much weirder
no, you can do 6pi since 6 is a scalar and pi is a vector
but you couldnt do say
pi * pi
anyway, this is a massive side tangent from the original question
R over Q specifically... isnt a very useful structure to work with
honestly
its mostly discussed as a way to sort of reinforce
"we take a lot of the 'niceness' of R^n for granted"
"if we remove something simple, we get something much weirder and harder to describe"
i think some irrationality arguments look at R over Q, like the proof that sin(x) is irrational whenever x is rational and not equal to 0
[taking sine to be from radians]
but in general its certainly not as useful as R^n or C^n
which are, like, the foundations of modern physics + computing
What courses do I have to take to learn all of this? It's so interesting but I feel like I'm just limited to ever learning it because I've ignored math most my life lol, maintaining formality and defining everything is so difficult for me :( feels like if I tried to learn all of this I'd fail anyways
well sometimes a linear algebra course will cover it
some do, some dont
failing that, an abstract algebra course or two
(which of course will require proficiency with proofs as well)
what do you learn in abstract algebra? all I know are groups (group theory), rings, and fields rofl
and idek what those mean
something to do with defining addition and multiplication
a first abstract algebra course will typically introduce the theory of finite groups
and maybe a bit of ring/field theory
is a finite vector space a type of finite group?
well kinda
if you take a vector space and only look at, say, vector addition
you get a group
(specifically an abelian group)
or you can go the other way, "extending" abelian groups into vector spaces by picking a field and defining multiplication
(the latter technique is a very common proof technique in group theory, actually, since vector spaces/linear algebra is so nice and well-understood)
but because vector multiplication isn't as "simple" (?? dunno the word) you can't call it a group with multiplication?
well formally groups only have one operation
oh
they have a set and a single operation on that set
if you start adding more operations, you get different structures
(most immediately rings, but eventually vector spaces if you pair it with a scalar field)
and this is why it's called abstract? because you can introduce weird things like only being able to multiply by rational scalars?
that was a vector space example but I just mean it like
defining things in ways that "normal" (!??!?!?!?!) math doesn't have
I don't even know how to say what I'm trying to say
LOL
I'm sorry
no i getcha
and yeah its called "abstract" since the constructions it looks at usually arent very... you know, concrete
like theyre often difficult or impossible to visualize
and the connections to "practical applications", if there are any, are usually a bit more contrived
oh I don't care about practicality, this is so interesting in its own right
e.g. its not immediately obvious how elliptic curve groups, for example, could possibly relate to encryption and decryption
since theyre just groups of points on a funky curve with weird addition
but elliptic curve cryptography is a thing
can you give an example of weird addition?
well the modular arithmetic structure i defined earlier is one example
One of my vector space questions from a problem set had the min function as addition
(also when you guys are done lmk cause i have a question lol)
and that structure was a group with elements {0, 1, 2}?
2 + 5 would be 1?
and the only defined operation is addition?
right
that's awesome
or you could give it more elements if you want
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} for example
makes total sense
and works the same way
except you "overflow" at 8 instead of 3
and if you extend the operations to addition, what does the group turn into?
thought experiment: what if we take {0, 1, 2, 3...} and have this set include all positive integers?
||you just get the standard natural numbersN with regular old addition||
not sure what you mean by that feather
uhh
wait
I said addition
LMAO
I meant multiplication
if you add multiplication how does that transform the structure?
oh, then you get the ring Z/nZ
or how we refer to it?
its a very nicely-behaved ring all things considered
and in that ring, 2*4 is defined to be 1 as well?
uh
in Z/3Z you mean?
2 * 4 = 8 = 2 modulo 3
so 2*4=2
or alternatively, 4 = 1, so 2*4 = 2*1 = 2
both of these get you the same result
uhh I meant in the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
yes
in fact, theres a stronger claim: a * b never equals 1 in this group of integers mod 8, unless a and b are both 1
hmm
2 * 5 = 10; 10 mod 8 = 2?
but there ARE elements a such that you cant multiply them by anything to get 1
is what i was trying to say
for example, no matter what you multiply 2 by
2 * b will never equal 1
in Z/8Z
because 9 is odd
this is a fairly important fact since it means Z/8Z is not a "field"
i.e. it doesnt always have multiplicative inverses
meaning division doesnt make sense in Z/8Z
i mean you can check this fact manually
that's the abstract part? it's hard to imagine not being able to divide
2 * 0 = 0
2 * 1 = 2
2 * 2 = 4
2 * 3 = 6
2 * 4 = 8 = 0
2 * 5 = 10 = 2
2 * 6 = 12 = 4
2 * 7 = 14 = 6
and as you might be able to expect
this pattern repeats
and yeah, as you correctly observed
its because anything congruent to 1 modulo 8
must be odd
1, 9, 17, 25
so on
all must be odd
in fact, theres an even stronger statement:
Z/nZ is only a field (i.e. division only makes sense) if n is prime
well when we talk about "division"
thanks for spending the time to explain, by the way
yes
like how multiplcation can be thought of as repeated addition, division can be thought of as repeated subtraction
and this "undoes" multiplication by 5
the way we express this is that
if a is in our field and not equal to 0
then we define a^-1 to be the number such that a * a^-1 = 1
so for example
in Z/5Z
this is a field, and division makes sense
to divide by 1, you just multiply by 1
since 1 * 1 = 1
but how do you divide by 2?
well, 2 * 3 = 6 = 1
sine we're working modulo 5
and 6 =1 mod 5
so division by 2 is the same thing as multiplying by 3
in Z/5Z
in other words, 2^-1 = 3
similarly 3^-1 = 2
brain going ouchie
and 4 * 4 = 16 = 1 modulo 5
so 4 is its own multiplicative inverse
ie dividing by 4 is the same thing as multiplying by 4
(this is comparable to -1 in the real numbers btw)
(and this should make sense; -1 = 4 modulo 5, after all!)
now lets say we took Z/nZ and assume n is not a prime number
if n isnt prime, that means n = a*b for some integers a, b in your ring Z/nZ
yes
and a and b are both > 1
(">" doesnt really make sense here but you know what i mean; theyre neither 1 nor 0)
the notation Z/nZ makes no sense to me because I keep wanting to cancel the Z LOL
yeah its weird notation, theres ring theoretic reasons for it
still wrapping my head around the "dividing by 2 by multiplying by 3" thing
but its kind of random until you see those
anyway
to finish my argument above
since n = a*b
and n = 0 in Z/nZ
this means 0 = a*b
so we should be able to "divide both sides by b"
that is, multiply by b^-1
to get 0 = a
but... thats a contradiction since we assumed a is not 0 or 1
yeah that's what I was about to say
so Z/nZ cant be a field (ie division cant make sense)
if n is composite
but it does make sense if n is prime!
one thing i can say that might clear this up a bit
when we study algebraic structures like groups, rings, fields, vector spaces, etc.
while of course the way we write things is important for communication
what we're really studying is how the operations behave
in the case of Z/nZ, we're studying how modular arithmetic behaves
not really how "2" and "3" behave
since the "2" and "3" in this structure are different from the regular ol' "2" and "3" in the real numbers
if you're familiar with boolean logic, for example
this is a system with two truth values, TRUE and FALSE, and the operations AND and XOR
and they follow these rules:
TRUE AND TRUE = TRUE
TRUE AND FALSE = FALSE
FALSE AND TRUE = FALSE
FALSE AND FALSE = FALSE
TRUE XOR TRUE = FALSE
TRUE XOR FALSE = TRUE
FALSE XOR TRUE = TRUE
FALSE XOR FALSE = FALSE
but what if i instead relabel this
so that "TRUE" is "1" and "FALSE" is "0"
and "AND" is *, "XOR" is +?
then we get:
I think I see it
1 * 1 = 1
1 * 0 = 0
0 * 1 = 0
0 * 0 = 0
1 + 1 = 0
1 + 0 = 1
0 + 1 = 1
0 + 0 = 0
hey
that's just Z/2Z!
oh actually
yeah that is z/2z
id idnt state that
quite right
let me use XOR instead
that makes more sense haha
I've seen XOR but idk what it is
XOR is just addition!
no seriously speaking
XOR is like
"is ONLY one of these true?"
so true xor true is false
since BOTH are true
ah
anyway the point is that
the way we "label" the elements of Z/2Z
or of boolean algebra or whatever
doesnt matter
what matters is how the operation behaves
so saying "division by 2 is the same thing as multiplying by 3" might not make sense
but what matters is that we're looking at how the operations behave
not the numbers
we could replace that with "division by Wombat is the same thing as multiplying by Germany" if we wanted
this... still wouldnt make much sense
LOL
but thats fine since we're looking at the structure of the operations
(in this case modular arithmetic)
rather than the elements themselves
this focus on the "operations" is expressed by the notion of an "isomorphism"
which is basically when we "relabel" elements of a group/ring/field/vector space/whatever
it's also a topology thing!
isomorphism is a nice concept since its a way of saying the structures are "the same" in how they "behave"
just "labelled" differently
for example, R^2 and C are isomorphic as vector spaces
(where here C has real number scalars)
this fact is what justifies us writing the complex number plane as a 2-dimensional x-y plane
where the "x axis" is the real line and the "y axis" is the imaginary line
of course, C can be given a bit more structure than R^2 - in particular, we have a standardized way to multiply complex numbers
whereas there isnt quite such a nice thing for vectors from R^2
(there's the dot product but it gives us a scalar, not a vector)
(so it's not as nice)
but if you look at C only as a vector space, it behaves like R^2
just with 4+2i relabelled as the vector (4 2)
or -3 + 7i relabelled as (-3 7)
or whatever
[also, if youre wondering: our choice to label a+bi as the vector (a b) is totally arbitrary]
[we could do (b a) instead and it wouldnt change anything - (a b) is just more common]
anyway
if you want a really whacky example of "addition"
which doesnt really feel like... addition
let me bring up my elliptic curve example from before
elliptic curves are a special type of curve; here's one example
you dont need to worry too much about the technical details, essentially theyre a specific class of 2-dimensional cubics with nice number theory properties
let's label two points on this elliptic curve, the green and purple
how do we "add" them?
well its a bit of a weird process:
how do you add points in general? add x coordinates and y coordinates?
well for common spaces
like R^2
yes
thats how you add vectorS!
but in this context
we're looking for a different group structure than that
so our addition is a bit weird
start by drawing a line, and label the point where it crosses the curve, here the light blue
then draw ANOTHER line, this one parallel to the y axis
.
the point where it crosses - the pink point here - is the sum of the green and the purple
that is weird
(now you might have concerns like 'what if the line between them never intersects the curve again?' for that reason our elliptic curve group has an additional "point at infinity")
anyway
as i said this may seem like a totally random and weird process
but it turns out that, despite the abstractness and bizarre behaviours
this actually has very deep number theoretic applications
and, in particular, that number theory can be applied to cryptography
a full explanation of this is beyond the scope of a discord discussion, i'm afraid
but hopefully this demonstrates that our group operations may not necessarily look like "regular ol'" addition or multiplication
yeah, I see it
abstract algebra seems like something I'd like
what courses do you recommend someone take before taking it?
besides a proofing course
proofs + linear algebra are enough honestly
oh sweet
examples from basic combinatorics sometimes come up
but like
those arent hard to learn on the fly TBH
(aside: if youre wondering why these curves are called "elliptic curves", theyre not actually related to ellipses)
(the terminology dates back to a certain type of integral that was originally used to study ellipses)
(so the integral was named after ellipses, then elliptic curves were named after the integral)
(but by that point we're pretty far from the original ellipse inspiration)
(a lot of names in mathematics have some... unfortunate overlappings)
Normal may refer to:
LOL
(it gets even worse when you try and translate from other languages - famously "variete" in French SOMETIMEs means "variety" but SOMETIMES means "manifold")
(and you have to figure it out from context, which is of course trickier for english speakers not used to french nuances)
I've got to get back to work but thank you very much for your time :) the abstract algebra group/ring thing was so cool LOL
part 2
you've shown that the dim of a subspace is <= that of the parent space right?
I think so?
alright well you can use that to show that dim(imTS)<= dim(T)
Like ik i need to get to dimImTS < dimImT or < dimImS
you need to show both for the result to hold
Yeah
dim(imTS)<= dim(T) is pretty straightforwaad, since im(TS) is clearly a subset of imT, and theyre both subspaces of W so the result follows
Ok
|x| โฅ 0, |x| = 0 if x = 0
|x+y| โค |x|+|y|
for real number x, y
this shows that this particular | | is a norm right
and R with |โข| is a normed space
Yes
And when they also said 4) |xโขy| = |x||y| only works for R, are they really saying that R is also an inner product space?
wayt no
No it's symplictic
yeah, that's cauchy-schwarz
symplictic space? It seems if I define <x,y> = xy then R is an inner product space, since it satisfies everything
in R, all pairs of vectors are linearly dependent, so equality holds here
ok yea thanks
(that the equality case for cauchy schwarz, i.e. |x dot y| <= |x||y| if and only if x and y are proportional)
it's not antisymmetric 



le antisymmetric inner product has arrived

Thanks for the great explanation to him! Very interesting, gives me more incentives to read this channel
I got set E and P(x) is all functions f:E->R, then defined p โ E for ฯp : E โ R such as x-> 1 if x=p and otherwise 0. I need to show that (Xp1...Xpn) is basis for space P(x) if E has n elements and {p1...pn}=E. I have gotten to point where i have fโ P(x) then i have f=a1X1+...anXn if and only if aj=f(pj), but im not sure on how to proceed from there.
Thank you altought im not sure what notation := means here and that lambada
:= means defined to be equal
i define f(x) to be equal to whatever i wrote on the right hand side
iirc lambada had something to do with eigenvalues?
lambda is just an arbitrary scalar here
i applied the definition of linear independence
i showed that if i take a linear combination of the vectors x_p1 ... x_pn that results in the 0 vector
then all scalars in that combination were 0
so lambda_1, lambda_2 and so on are just scalars from R
i think i understood that
and to show that the set is independent, i have to prove that all lambdas were 0
but thats easy since f is the zero function
yeah that seems logical
How can you make a non singular matrix into a singular matrix?
subtract it from itself 
What should p be if T(p)=0
(0,0) ?
p that is a subspace of P_2?
The set of such p forms s subspace
P_2 means Space of Polynomials of degree at most 2
An element of P_2,p will be of the form ax^2+bx+c
i have managed to get to dim(w+wยจ)=dim v, can is just take dim out of each side to get w+w'=v?
If w+w' is a subspace of V,yes
yes, but im not sure how to justify it
dim W โฅ (3/4) dim V , dim W0 โฅ (3/4) dim V and dim(W โฉ W0
) โค (1/2) dim V .
i got them defined like this
A basis of V consists of dim V elements
just slapped them to dimension rule and got that dim(w+wยจ)=dim v
was not sure if there exist some dim^-1(x)
ie. counter operator for dim
And any LI set of dim V elements is a basis
Implying a basis of W is a basis of V
Implying V =W
yeah i did it like that
but i changed it to w+w0=b and then showed that if b is subspace of V then dim b = dim V= B=v
so kinda sme but with extra steps
You are talking about lagrange interpolation?
whats that?
Hey everyone, I currently have this question on a homework assignment. I created a matrix and reduced it to (1 0 -3 2), (0 h 6 k-4). I'm a little confused on where to go from there. Since x3 is a free variable shouldnt the equations only have infinitely many solutions?
basically
only if the equations can be made inconsistent by adding them up will you get no solution
but there will never be a unique solution
the x_3 could be a typo
yeah thats what i was thinking to
the matrix i calculated from that is correct tho right?
Two vectors in Rn are always l.i if none of them is zero and they are not proportional ?
I know that this is a fact for R1, R2, R3, but... Can this be generalised for Rn ?
Oh this has to be true.. and can be proven..
a set ${v_i}$ of vectors is said to be linearly dependent if there exists a non-trivial linear combination $\sum_i c_i v_i = 0$ where not all $c_i = 0$
Ignore my msg
bacono
sorry I meant linearly dependent
Oh right hahaha
in other words, no vector in the set is in the span of any sub collection of other vectors (if they are linearly independent)
Yeah, if there is a solution, for a set of n vectors and that solution is {s1,s2...,sn}
and if all s_n are 0, then they are LI
that's the natural generalization not just for R^n, but any vector space
imo that's the most straightforward definition for proving things related to dimension
is this true?
not sure
i say false
because if you take a subset then it couldn't span a vector space ?
the subset doesn't have to be proper
the subset could very well be S
it's saying that there exists some subset that is a basis, not that a particular subset is
so my thinking is that when Tv=0 we have two cases that either v=0 or T=0. however v cant be equal to 0 because v isnt in subspace U which naturally must have the 0 vector for it to be a subspace. so that means that T=0. and then im not sure what to do
oh if Tv=Sv it says that v is in subspace U
so then T=S
and so for both cases T is just linear map S but S isnt in the map of V so neither is T??
why not
cuz v cant be in subspace U
and since its a subspace it must have the zero vector
am i just wrong about this
Sorry for ping but is this what you meant? (Only getting around to finishing the question now lol)
well that's why you would be able to invoke that argument
in general any subspace of a vector space has dimension less than or equal to the parent space
right, but how is Im(TS) a subspace of Im(S) or Im(T) is what im more confused about
wouldnt Im(TS) be bigger?
TSv = T(Sv), and so im(TS) subset im(T)
wait no, cause Im(TS) specifically needs S(u) vectors, where as Im(T) can be any vector from the input space
let me look at this a bit more carefully one sec
kk
ok
Let $v \in Im(TS)$. Then $v = TSx = T(Sx)$ for some $x \in U$. Since $Sx \in dom T = V$, then $v \in Im(T)$. Therefore $Im(TS) \subseteq Im(T)$.
bacono
what's domT?
domain of T
v in Im(T) is just from the def of image right?
I was just assuming that for the sake of proof
if you want to show that they are subspaces, you'll need to further show that they fulfill the vector space axioms
okay so TS is a composition of linear maps right, and so it's the same as multiplying their representative matrices
matrix multiplication is associative
I think it clicked but cant put it to words lol
you can view TSx as both (TS)x or T(Sx) = Tv
Im(TS) and Im(T) are both sets of vectors in W
yeah, so does a similar argument hold for Im(TS) subset Im(S)
yeah and dimension formula
okay that makes things easier
it turns out I am extremely rusty on basic linear algebra
I can't help you much here
rip no worries
want to learn LA then Terra? Lol
wait i think i got it
$dim(U) = dim(Ker(TS)) + dim(Im(TS)) = dim(Ker(S)) + dim(Im(S)) \ dim(Ker(TS)) = -dim(Im(TS)) + dim(Ker(S)) + dim(Im(S))$
moshill1
Got to: $$dim(Im(TS)) \geq dim(Im(S)) - dim(Ker(T))$$
moshill1
but then dk how to deal with the dim(ker(T)) part
bacono
$T : \Im (S) \to \Im (TS)$
bacono
now, what information can we gain from this using rank-nullity?
(which for arbitrary linear maps is written)
dim(ker(TS)) = dim(Ker(S)) + dim(Im(S)) <= dim(Ker(S)) + dim(Ker(T))
badabing
you got it
I'm not sure if that's the intended way of doing it but I thought it was a neat approach
did I say something incorrect
well when you do this it's just a couple of additional terms
Ok well I only know dim(Im(TS)) <= dim(Im(T)), so how am i suppose to relate dim(Im(TS)) with dim(Im(S))?
Ok, I tried dimension formula and you said it's wrong so....
slim, what is fishy about the argument above?
I see that it seems a bit off but I don't know how to correct it
ii
wait I see the problem
it's not null(S) + null(T), it's null(S restricted to ker(TS)) + null(T)
but null(S restriction) is less than null(S) so we get the inequality
Ok well im trying to solve ii
okay I have a solution
use the second relation to get
$\mathrm{null} (T \mid_{\Im(S)}) + \rank (TS) = \rank (S)$
bacono
then rank(TS) <= rank(S)
what's null and rank compared to im and ker?
and you get rank(TS) <= rank(T) from the subspace relation
null(T) = dim(kerT)
rank(T) = dim(Im T) = dim(Col T) = dim(ran T) = dim(Row T)
ok and what's the 2nd relation lol
Ok so define a map from ImS to ImTS?
no, just take T and restrict it to Im(S), and then consider rank-nullity on this map
ok but what do you mean restrict a map to a set?
this relation comes from the fact that if v in Im(S), then v = Sx for some x in dom(S), and so Tv = TSx, and Tv is in Im(TS)
it's literally just setting the domain to a subset
Right, so cant I just define a new map that does that?