#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 164 of 1
phi(ax^4 + bx^3 + P_2(R)) = (a, b) could work
just make sure it's well-defined and what not
or, if you know the first isomorphism theorem, this is immediate
TTerra
sry just wanted to see how convoluted i could make that 
im so confused now
.
your map works
i just proved its an iso
yes, because you're supposed to define a map from the quotient
not from P_4(R)
ax^4 + bx^3 is not an element of P_4(R)/P_2(R)
ax^4 + bx^3 + P_4(R) is
i assumed you made a typo, but i think this clarification should be made now
How do you prove a linear transformation is isomorphic?
for injectivity, you can show that if Tx = 0, then x = 0
because idk how to show every element is onto and one to one
you mean the linear transformation is onto and one to one
yes
in general, checking that the only x satisfying Tx = 0 is x = 0 is easy
now, if the spaces you're working with are finite dimensional and of the same dimension, this is actually sufficient
since in that case, the rank-nullity formula tells you that rank T = dim domain = dim codomain, and that implies that your linear transformation is onto
if you're working with infinite-dimensional spaces, though, you'll have to manually check that
which just boils down to the definition or surjectivity, there isn't really a nice trick involved
Alright that helps a bit, thanks.
seems fine to me
By the way my name is Skylar .
I graduated with Mathematics and computer Science majors.
I can help with maths and computer science if needed blush
I was wondering if anyone could help me how to prove the second part. I’m thinking proof by contradiction?
yeah, a contradictive argument is probably a good approach here
Seems kind of long, but I’ll give it a shot and come back with more questions
suppose (WLOG) that U_1 is not a subset of U_2, and U_2 is not a subset of U_1. this means we can take u in U_1 \ U_2, and v in U_2 \ U_1. what's u + v?
[here \ is the set difference, so U_1 \ U_2 is the set of all vectors in U_1 that arent in U_2]
hint: u + v cant be in U_1, since otherwise (u + v) - u = v would be in U_1
which is impossible
and by a similar argument u + v cant be in U_2
yes, but think of how you might modify it for 3.
[a hint: either u+v is in U_3 or it isn't, but if ALL such u + v are in U_3, then U_1 and U_2 are contained in U_3. so when picking u, v, we should also make sure that they're not in U_3 - but can you justify why we can do that?]
Of U1 and U2
Oh lol
but if we assume that the union of all three sets is a subspace
that means u + v must be in it
since subspaces are closed under vector addition
but u + v aint in U_1 or U_2, so it must be in U_3
what can you reason from there?
[you might want to consider, say, 2u + v as well]
If its in U3 then it must be in U1 union U2 union U3
well yes, we established that prior since u is in that union, and v is in that union
and if we're assuming (for contradiction) that it's a subspace
that means u + v must be in it as well
let me lay out what i've deduced so far:
Yeah I was scrolling back up to read sorry
I wish I can do these proofs as quickly as you guys
- We're assuming (WLOG) that U_1 is NOT contained in U_2 or U_3, and U_2 is NOT contained in U_1 or U_3.
- So take a u in U_1 that's not in U_2, which we can do because we know U_1 is not contained in U_2. Similarly, take a v in U_2 that's not in U_1.
- Now assume for contradiction that the union of the three subsets is a subspace. This means it's closed under vector addition, so u + v must be in the union. But:
--- u + v can't be in U_1, since otherwise (u + v) - u would be in U_1, but we know v isn't in U_1.
--- u + v can't be in U_2, since otherwise (u + v) - v would be in U_2, but we know u isn't in U_2. - So we can conclude that u + v must be in U_3, since it's in the union but not in either of the other two sets.
there are a bunch of ways to proceed from here
one of them is to apply the same argument to 2u + v that we did to u + v
to reason that it must be in U_3, but not in U_1 or U_2
but then (2u + v) - (u + v) = u must be in U_3 as well
and we can repeat this argument for u + 2v instead to reason that v is in U_3 also
so U_3 contains u and v for any choice of u, v
which means U_1 and U_2 are contained in U_3
uh oh
contradiction
I see
since we were assuming that none of these sets were contained in the other
there is a slight catch here: its possible that the scalar "2" doesn't exist in your underlying scalar field
can you see a way to amend the argument in that case?
Can we just let it be an arbitrary scalar
not quite, unfortunately
what we can do is drop the scalar entirely
instead of 2u + v
just write u + u + v
and similarly write u + v + v instead of u + 2v
Ahhhh, I see where the little disclaimer under the problem comes from now
so yeah, i'd recommend replacing "2u + v" with "u + u + v" in my above argument
and similar for u + 2v -> u + v + v
do you see why it works now?
obviously the scalar field doesnt really matter anymore since we're not multiplying by scalars
but the algebra is the same
anyway, that argument can be polished up a bit
but hopefully it gives you the idea of whats going on
Yes, I think I’ll understand it better once I write down the proof and get a chance to think about it
there might be a cleaner approach but this is what came to mind first for me
Thank you
I’m always impressed at how fast everyone is with figuring this stuff out. Im in my undergrad and I feel like I know nothing when Im doing exercises in the book
well in this case it's kind of just "looking for where we might expect problems to arise"
which is admittedly partially an intuition thing
but like
the way i approached this was "in order to prove something isn't a subspace, we need to show its not closed under vector addition or under scalar multiplication"
"obviously doing this unioning wont mess with scalar multiplication, so we care about vector addition"
"and we want this to go wrong SPECIFICALLY WHEN the sets arent contained in each other"
"so lets say two sets aren't contained in each other. that means we can pick an element from one that isn't in the other, and vice versa. we care about what happens when we add vectors - so let's try adding them and seeing if we run into problems"
and then it kind of just follows from algebra on there
i wouldnt call this an "easy" process, but it's one that becomes more "natural" as you get more practice
Wow, thanks for that
I hope I can be as helpful as everyone else is here someday. But for now, I'll keep on working on my books.
i dont seem to understand how he deduced that atleast one T-lambdaI is not injective
There
oh this proof
priyet tterra
The current time for TTerra is 08:42 AM (EST) on Tue, 12/01/2021.
,ti vimes
The current time for Commander Vimes is 07:42 PM (+06) on Tue, 12/01/2021.
TTerra is 11 hours behind, at 08:42 AM (EST) on Tue, 12/01/2021.
@wintry steppe kak dela
не плохо 
i still have the russian keyboard on my phone despite not being in russian for two semesters
learn russian
Any idea how I should do this?
Was thinking of trying individual challenge subtract/add to other challenge until I get the binary vector value for ca and cb
Any hints would be greatly appreciated, have been stuck for hours
help finding the kernel of $f(x,y,z,t) = (x-y+t, 2x+z+t, x+y+z)$?
i'm having trouble with it
rcatalang
it's an R4 to R3 map
What's good team
How does multiplying a vector by D, keep it on the hyperbola xy = C
whats good team
whats up my swag squad
whats up my linear algebra ppl
whats up my mathematical muchachos
I think you're right lol
The first explanation made sense thank you
https://textbooks.math.gatech.edu/ila/diagonalization.html, it's an online textbook
Rigth after the geometry of diagonalizable matricies
first example in that section
Yeah its a pretty good textbook besides the C thing, the visualizations are nice
Diagonilization, or the multiplication by D is a hyperbola
Yeah its weird to see the hyperbola because everything so far has been linear
yeah that's what i was doing but it ain't working
Thank you I appreciate that! It is quite pretty to look at
i simply tried solving it by substitution but i end up with the same equations
I have two computing problems I think could be solved nicely via linear algebra (since they're about matrices) but I'm not sure how I'd actually do it (I feel like some matrix multiplication magic but idk)
I'll post the first one below:
1.) find if a chain of 3 exists of any symbol in the tic tac toe grid
e.g.
[X][O][ ]
[O][X][O]
[ ][O][X]
this is a valid sequence since a chain of 3 exists (3 A's diagonal)
while this isn't
[X][X][ ]
[O][X][O]
[O][ ][O]
what's it mean to be a chain exactly
have you played tic tac toe before? it's any of the same symbol joined horizontally or diagonally
3 of them
so the top example the three x's form a chain
so youre just asked to determine if a given game of tic-tac-toe is won?
effectively yes
Quick question: if you have a matrix A which is symmetric, is every congruent matrix with A then also symmetric?
if this is at me to make me realize something I'm way below this level of maths lol
not sure there'd be a great linear algebraic approach there, its hard to express notions such as "diagonal" through LA operations
I am going to try squaring the matrix since that helps find relations but idk
at least without row-reducing
I was kind of thinking the determinant might have some properties we could use
yeah I thought not, it just seems like there should be some nice way to do it
like you could view it as a matrix in $(\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z})^{3\times 3}$
Namington
if we imagine the x,0, or blank as separate primes
and then take the determinant yeah
then check the prime factorization
but im still not sure that gets you anywhere
like any prime in all the same row or column would factor out
ah hm
but that wouldn't get diagonals, but diagonals might still have some info
that still leaves problems with the diagonal though
if you give me a minute I could try programming that
you could do fixed-in-place row reduction i guess
how's a diagonal behave, we might have some kind of thing we can derive
but this seems way more common than just a couple foor loops
problem is we might get false positives too
for a diagonal to exist the middle must be containing the symbol if that helps
because it's only 3x3
it's the middle is a symbol and so are either of the corners
that's a useful observation to make from a computing perspective but im not so sure it helps linear algebraically
yeah that doesn't really help find an elegant solution
Oh okay, but a symmetric matrix has only real eigenvalues so every similar matrix too?
and that's the main goal
I could combine that method and the row checking
if you could explain that to me
as in it might be the best if I combine finding the determinant and that check its sorta a clean way
but idk how the prime determinant thing works
I don't know how useful the prime determinant trick is
yeah i dont really think it helps here
if there is a row or column of the same thing, then it is divisible by some specific prime used to denote that symbol
unfortunately
this is unfortunate
but it's not necessarily true the reverse direction, but maybe it could be done to work out primes that would make it for 3x3 since it's small
there is a more elegant method than just for-looping 6 times for whatever its worth
if it helps I could simplify the problem to 1 symbol at a time
I'd like to know what you mean namington
yeah I wouldn't use linear algebra at all lol
but i dont think theres a linear algebraic one
what solution would you suggest
fair enough, idk just seemed prime for some matrix tricks but guess not
so for looping is gratuitous
I guess I'll go and think on it some more
at least in the crazy manner
the naive method is to loop through each row and each column
yeah I have it as vectors because cpp is angry about functions and arrays lol
in any case theres a cuter way to organize the data
convert the board state to a 9-bit binary number
there might be some bitwise operation you can do from there? let me think
well if youre gonna do that youd probably have 2 of them
and o = 2
one for each player
yeah I could
since you dont care about player 2 when looking at whether player 1 has won
a player 2 entry is the same as "empty"
yeah
I agree that bit arrays might present some opportunities
and would be nice
idk if that really fixes the diagonal problem though
what would multiplying a bit matrix by itself do
well multiplying matrices is computationally kinda slow
theres a reason your GPU has an entire part of its board dedicated to it
i'd be very surprised if a solution involving matrix mult turns out faster than the naive one
an observation to speed up computation: a win is only possible if (at least) one of these 5 "blue spots" is filled in by that player
if I was programming the fastest tic tac toe then I'd be really good now lol
in fact, of the 9 possible ways to win, 5 of them require the centre
if you really wanna multiply matrices though
hm
hmm
i guess we could view the matrix as from $((\bZ/2\bZ) \times (\bZ/2\bZ))^{3 \times 3}$
Namington
maybe using the middle check is a good idea
eh thats clunkier than just viewing it as 2 matrices
is there a way to find just columns and rows via matrices
because if so I could do that cleanly
then just do a dirty corner check at the end
by multiplying by the right matrix, sure
but its much easier to do that with more standard programming methods
and cleaner
$\mathbb{T} = \mathbb{R} \cup {\infty} \ v \oplus w = \min(v,w) \ c \otimes v = c+v$
moshill1
T isnt a R-vector space b/c: (cd) * v != c * (dv), not all elements have an additive identity, and (c+d) * v != cv + d*v
Is that right?
@nocturne jewel we just need to show T fails one of the vector space axioms. any more is excessive. also give actual values of c,d,v that show T fails an axiom. just one set of values suffices. now T actually has an additive identity and you recited the additive identity axiom in an odd way. it doesn't say the elements can each have their own possibly different additive identities; T must have a single element that acts as such for ALL elements
why is Ax=b equivalent to x=A^(-1)b
is it just when you a matrix to the other side it turns into its inverse?
Multiply both sides by $A^{-1}$ on the left:
\begin{align*}Ax &= b\ A^{-1}Ax &= A^{-1}b\end{align*}
but of course $A^{-1}Ax = Ix = x$, so $A^{-1}Ax = x = A^{-1}b$
Namington
it's just algebra.
yeah, the question is show which properties fail if the set and operations isnt a vector space. and I meant additive inverse, since inf is the additive identity
anyone? it's fairly simple, but i dont see it
anyone got this
anything
i cant do this
they can be infinite
anything
i have no idea
not sure
im would say no
alright
no
R[x]
i just dont know an injective one
i mean sujective one that is not injective
then i do
i dont know
differentiate
this is surjective
its linear
its not injective becuase all constants go to zero
yes
thank you brother
wait
one more
This must be infinite
vector space
yews
So its inf dimensional
yes
didn't we just do this one the other day 
cant remember lol

yeah but i just need an example
what are some linear operators you can think of on the space of sequences?
just throw a few non trivial examples out there
maybe you'll get one 
cant think of one for infinite vector space
can you write down what the space of sequences is?
not sure what it is
it's the space of sequences,
[
\bR^\bN = {(a_1,a_2,a_3,\dots,) : a_i \in \bR}
]
TTerra
this is, as you can check, a real vector space
yeah ok
but how does this help us find a linear map that is injective but not surjective
because there's a particularly simple injective, non-surjective linear operator on this space
not sure mate
can you come up with a few examples of non-trivial linear operators on this space?
maybe try to come up with some injective ones?
play around with it
what do you mean
adding on extra dimension component to the vector that is the sum of the other components
can you write it out explicitly
i have a feeling you're on the right track
you do, in some sense, want to add on an extra dimension
but what does the sum of the other components mean when there are infinitely many?
if your linear map is gonna stick another component on, why not make it particularly simple?
yes!
just, i think you should write the map down explicitly
it should look like ||the sequence is being shifted over to the right by one index||
if you did it right
perfect
will this do brother
i love you
it's good to have a few examples of infinite dimensional spaces in your pocket
R[x], continuous functions on some set, sequence spaces, etc.
@nocturne jewel if you must cite all axioms failed then fine. infty does serve as an additive identity, and it's true not every element has an additive inverse. but my point still stands for the other axioms you cited, we just need to pick one set of elements for which they don't hold
I gues that they mean the form ( A | B) , where A are the first two colums and B only the last column
Can anyone get me started with the next proof: If A is a square matrix which is diagonalisable (in IR) and has only eigenvalues 1 and -1, then A^2 = I (the identity matrix).
just diagonalize it
A is similar to a matrix whose square is I, so A^2 is similar to I, so A^2 = I
A = [1 1; 1 2; 1 3; 1 4; 1 5]
y = [2, 4, 3, 5, 8]
x = A[:, 2]
weights = inv(transpose(A) * A) * transpose(A) * y
b, m = weights
predicted = m .* x .+ b
What do you mean with A is similar to a matrix whose square is I? Thats what you need to prove
write out the definition of diagonalizability
for simplicity i'm going to take things to be in R^2 but the proof differs only by notation for the general case
TTerra
@tropic trail
Ohh thank you!
for real 2x2 matrices, are there any other cases than diagonalizable with two real eigenvalues, one real defective eigenvalue, and diagonalizable with complex eigenvalues?
just need to make sure my proof covers all cases
pancakehammer
This has no solutions right?
because column1 = -(column3*column2)?
so columns are not independent thus this have no solutions right?
not necessarily, the vector could be in the space spanned by the columns still
Ax=b has a solution if and only if b is in col(A). so even if A is not invertible (or square) the system can still have a solution
So even though det(A) = 0, this can have a solution?
thats right
if A is not square the determinant function isnt even defined, but Ax=b can still have a solution
Okay, if you don't mind I will send solution in just a sec
just now I was checking with wolframalpha over at #bots
in case you want to see that
yeah so b=column2-column3. that means right away we know (0,1,-1) is a solution by the column perspective of matrix multiplication
and because column1 is just a combination of columns 2 and 3, we can set a parameter such that column 1 cancels out with some other combination of columns2 and 3. specifically t*(1,1,1)
yeah you should get a dimension 1 space of possible solutions
geometrically you can think of it as the intersection of two planes since the matrix's column space has dimension 2 
Okay, thanks
Looks like there is a mistake at the last line
The third column should have -1 / -1
Yea, you're right
and going from the x= and y= to the vector is incorrect as well
it should be
x=1+z
y=2+z
z= 0+z
so the solution would be (1,2,0)+z(1,1,1)
there we go
sorry, but I don't understand how -1,-2 became 1,2
one thing to note is that when a square matrix is not invertible, if there is one solution there will actually be infinitely many of them. so in a way noninvertible matrices can have more solutions than invertible ones. you can actually think of invertible matrices as ones which always have exactly one solution.
you have
1 -1 0 -1
0 -1 1 -2
you multiply the second row by -1 to get a pivot in the second column and add -1 of the second row to the first to get a zero in the 12 entry.
so the first row becomes (1,-1,0,-1)-(0,-1,1,-2)=(1,0,-1,1) and the second row becomes -1(0,-1,1,-2)=(0,1,-1,2)

"Give an example of a nonempty subset U in R^2 st U is closed under scalar multiplication, but U is not a linear subspace of R^2"
Kinda just need a translation/explanation so I can give it an attempt.
Do I just need to find a set of 2D vectors where scalar multiplication maps to something in U, but adding 2 things in U doesnt?
Yeah, I believe so
Since a subspace is both closed under scalar multiplication and closed under vector addition right?
or if it somehow doesnt have the 0 vector
I'm not quite sure how if it doesn't have 0 vector would suffice the condition?
Naive Test fails?
it would have to have the zero vector because it has to be closed under scalar multiplication
and 0 is a scalar
Oh right, cause the condition is for all
mmmhmm
hi everyone could someone please help me with the following problem. I think I did the first part right but I'm stuck on converting it to a vector equation:
this is my best attempt at a solution for the second part
<@&286206848099549185>
Your z looks like a 2
is the work correct @empty copper
@pure tangle the cartesian eqn is correct, can't see the vector equation though mentioned in your work
the vectors youre using for your parametric solution are the same. that doesnt work
For the second part, all you need are two vectors orthogonal to the normal vector. So (4,1,0) and (0,1,2) would work (dont think too hard about it).
Then you just do (5,1,3)+s(4,1,0)+t(0,1,2)
I have a question regarding the proof of lemma 4.2.4 in Hersteins topic in algebra
basically it says that the cardinality of any linearly independent set is less than that of any basis set (Finite)
It can be done using Steinitz exchange lemma, but Herstein's proof is shorter, but I'm failing to grasp one step in it
Suppose v1,...,vn is a basis set and w1,...,wm is an LI set, he claims without proof that wm,vi1,..,vik is a basis (k<n)
Can you share the proof?
Feels like you are missing something
If w_m is not in span{v_i1,v_i2...v_ik} that's true
can you see the pic above?
I don't exactly get "Thus some proper subset of these .... forms a basis of V" part
Thats what he's assuming
Take {(1,0),(0,1)} as a basis of R^2
Now ,{(1,0),(0,1),(2,1)} is a dependent set
But if we remove (1,0) from this list, we end up with an independent set, which forms a basis
yeah, even i thougt so, but it seems a little hard to grasp without justification.
Let w=c1 e1+c2 e2... ck ek c_i all non zero {e1,e2...ek,...en} is a basis
i mean wm works as some vj which we're replacing right
Then {w,e1,e2,...en} is a linearly dependent set which becomes LI and spans the same space as {e1,e2..en}(making it a basis) if we remove say e_1
we know that wm is not zero, and that part is sufficient to show that it has some nonzero term of some basis element
yeah, if c1≠0
thanks
hello
can someone explain to me like i am 5
how my prof went from line 1 to 2 to 3
this is least squares btw
also i am very unfamiliar with the notation on line 2
someone said inner product, but i don't get it
are you not familiar with the euclidean norm/distance?
i am not familiar @limber sierra
so suppose i ignored the argmin
i understand how line 1 evaluates to a scalar
but nothing else after
so youve never seen $\norm{\mathbf{x}}$ before?
Namington
it's in my machine learning lecture .-.
the norm of a vector $\mathbf{x} = (x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n)$ is given by $\sqrt{x_1^2 + x_2^2 + \dots + x_n^2}$
Namington
Is this correct?
its a generalization of 2-dimensional distance, which of course follows the pythagorean theorem sqrt(a^2 + b^2) = c
anyway, if you manually compare that sum with this, you'll notice they're the same
ah i see
there are more versions of the euclidean norm
which we call "p-norms"
but they're using the standard one here
at least, that's what i'd assume
maybe ML uses a different notation since we usually dont bother to write the subscript 2 when we work with the standard norm
oh so is the computation inside the norm notation going to compute to a vector?
in which we take the norm then it is a scalar
Oh, sorry about that. I didn’t see someone was being helped, bc I just sent it from the notability app.
yes, y - Xw will be a vector
yes
"norm" and "magnitude" are the same thing here
sorry, bunch of different terms for the same thing
:/
anyway its probably a good idea to "convince yourself" that what they do between lines 1 and 2 is true
at least with some examples
Hi so I'm taking a proof based lin alg course starting in like a week
I have exactly 0 linear algebra knowledge past how to do dot and cross products
So my question is what is some good prep to do to get an overview of the subject
I feel like I shouldn't go in completely cold
Especially since it's a proof based course
I found axler's book really good
I guess try friedberg-insel-spence's book
Are there math courses that are not « proof-based » ?
Proof is the whole point of math
high school
engineer moment
Yes there's like 2 other lin alg courses here which are all computation
Yeah indeed, that's why everything you learn in HS will be obliterated in serious courses
One of them is based in python which is neat
But that's besides the point
I don't know what textbook (if there even is one) that we're using
ok tysm I'll start to take a look at this
I don't think it matters too much if you don't have any prior lin alg knowledge for your course, because you'll most likely just start from the beginnings in a proper way
but ofc it never hurts to look more into it beforehand
if all you know is the dot and cross product I'd say learn how to do RREF first and how to use that to solve a system of equations and invert a matrix
learn how to take a determinant, maybe learn a few examples with polynomial spaces, and learn how to get eigenvalues/eigenvectors to diagonalize a matrix
idk, depends on what 'proof based' really means here, but going into that with 0 knowledge sounds possibly bad to me
all this sorta stuff is covered in Lay, I second the recommendation
Ok cool
Yea that was my guess as well get a good computation background
I'll grab that book
so i'm taking like an applied linear algebra class (it's supposed to serve also as an introduction to linear algebra)
however i'm thinking of supplementing my learning with a more theoretical version, especially since this is my first time doing LA? any recs?
Friedberg
how does Friedberg compare to Strang/Axler?
It looks good
A lot better than Strang
Strang is just computations
Not sure about axler
I have a question that i hope a seasoned linear algebra master could easily answer
So in my book m = rows and n = columns right. Then why is a vector with multiple rows and 1 column notated as a nx1 vector ? Wouldn't that be a 1xm vector? In my opinion that makes no sense. Why bother with notation if you're not going to use it correctly? Or am I missing something
a x b usually refers to a rows and b columns

LOLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLL
I have a feeling its one of those things where the mathematicians realized it made no sense later on but made everyone do it anyway because fuck it
there are a bunch of reasons why $n$ might be used instead, like if youre studying a map $\bR^m \to \bR^n$ and the resulting vector is from the image
Namington
then itll certainly be n by 1
the symbol used doesnt really matter, what matters is what comes first and what comes second
Then they should say that, note it , explain that m and n are just any representational variable and it should really be called a rowx1 vector not explicitly a nx1 vector
i've seen some conventions default to mxn, and some default to nxm
Because they didn't explain that at all in the book and all the sudden its nx1 and 1xn which is really confusing when they just said that n is columns and m is rows
ya know what I mean
i mean, i cant see the book, but this seems more like a misunderstanding of how variables work than anything
Bruh
If i just told you x =5 and then all the sudden y = 5 thats pretty confusing
That would not fly in programming
It 100% will
Are you trying to construct a matrix?
If you have a macro defined as X = 5 and later on in the program it suddenly became Y = 5 something is wrong and im pretty sure thats not even possible unless you declared a new variable in memory denoted Y
anyway im not exactly sure what your textbook looks like
but it sounds like you saw a definition that used the variables m and n
and it said "where m denotes the number of rows and n denotes the number of columns"
Think of a function prototype
Matrix a(int i,int j);
but what we call variables doesnt really matter
what symbols we use is irrelevant
there are some conventions
but the variables arent the part of the definition thats important
when the definition was (presumably) referring to m and n, it means in the scope of the specific definition
to give a programming analogy:
But it does matter when you define certian areas of math. Try doing Trig but changing cos to sin and changing sin to cos. Thats going to get pretty confusing real fast. Sure they're just names we could have called it " big boobies" if we wanted but those names have mathematical meaning
func1()
x = 5
y = 6
return x + y
func2()
x = 6
y = 5
return x + y
theres nothing wrong with this
[well, besides the fact that these are stupid functions]
in one scope, x and y mean one thing
in another scope, x and y mean something else
similarly, in the scope of the definition, m meant the number of rows and n the number of columns
but when youre doing your work, the specific variable used might not matter - or it might be context sensitive
Right, its not that it changes the math. But why change the scope of the naming convention? That just adds unnecessary confusion
for example, if $T$ was a linear map from $\bR^n \to \bR^m$, then we'd call elements of $T$'s domain $n \times 1$ while elements of $T$'s image are $m \times 1$
Namington
for(int i=0;i<6272;i++)
cout<<i;
vs
for(int j=0;j<6272;j++)
cout<<j;
ew
Do you complain the second loop is different?
no im complaining about the fact that this seems to be C code but theres neither curly braces nor indentation
😠
You don't need curly braces for one line blocks
I don't know anymore. I mean if you guys are right its just variable names could be yx1 it doesn't matter. Just pretty shitty for a new person for them to change it randomly and not explain they just decided to name it nx1 and 1xn instead of mx1 like it should be
oh true
well i mean
if n is supposed to be the same
between n x 1 and 1 x n
theres not really anything that can be done?
i mean we could introduce a new variable m defined by m = n
i guess
but thats just an extra step for probably less clarity in the end
It should be mx1 and 1xn technically based on their original definition of what rows and columns are
for example, if $A$ is an $1 \times n$ matrix, then $A^T$ is $n \times 1$
they just decided not to use m for some random reason
Namington
if we wrote m x 1 instead, that would no longer be correct unless we explicitly say m = n
wut
in my above example
Yes that makes sense the way you defined it
A^t is just the reciprocal
I'm not talking about the way you defined it though
This does answer my question though
that basically, it doesn't matter and the person who wrote the book was just lazy and didn't care to explain that its rowsxcolumns and n represents either or
So I just realized they do explain it but not till after they already confused me later on in the chapter 😂 🙄
Then after numerous confusing examples and more definitions
THEY EXPLAIN IT JUST LIKE YOU DID
thank you 😂 @limber sierra apparently thats for nxn vectors only thats why I was so confused
Suppose $v$ is a norm on $R^n$, and A is an nxn matrix. How can I show that $v(Ax) $defines another norm on $R^n$
Problematic
it doesn't unless $\ker A={0}$.
derivada.schwarziana
assuming that as an additional hypothesis, it's easy to verify the axioms using the linearity of A
that is, A(x+y)=Ax+Ay for vectors x,y and A(ax)=aAx for an scalar a
ker(A)={0} is used to check that v(Ax)=0 iff x=0
this doesnt look like linear algebra.
looks like they're taking your blue graph and only looking at the positive x direction so they're putting f(|x|) then translating to the left by 1
If A has orthogonal but not necessarily orthonormal columns, will QA have orthogonal columns (where Q is an orthogonal matrix)?
What about AQ?
If A has [orthogonal but not necessarily orthonormal] columns,
ah mb
misread, thought it said orthogonal twice
QA has orthogonal columns if (QA)^T(QA) is diagonal, since each entry of the matrix product is the dot product of a row of (QA)^T with a column of QA
and the rows of (QA)^T are the columns of QA
now, writing this out...
Orthogonal matrix as in orthonormal columns. Q^TQ=QQ^T=I
Also that product would be I iff QA has orthonormal columns. Otherwise it'll just be diagonal
ree
But the principle still stands
ya
i'm too used to just normalizing everything 
but then, yes, this simplifies to A^T A, and since the columns of A are orthogonal, this will be diagonal
as for AQ, if the columns of A are orthogonal, (AQ)^T(AQ) = Q^T A^T A Q = Q^T (diagonal matrix) Q, and it might get funky probably
So we know A^TA is diagonal. If we do (QA)^T(QA) we get A^TQ^TQA=A^TA which is again diagonal meaning the columns are indeed orthogonal got it.
Qx dot Qy= x dot y too so that makes sense as well since the columns of QA are Q times each column of A preserving orthogonality.
Hm yeah what happens with Q^TDQ
It should be
$$\sum d_i;\vec{q}_i\vec{q}_i^T$$
nix
If all the d_i are equal it equals a scalar matrix so still diagonal but if they aren't the same no idea what'll happen
maybe, some kind of "weighted sum" interpretation is possible
i don't know, just throwing shit out there lol
nix
So a weighted sum inner product type thing
I don't see a reason for it to necessarily be zero if i≠j.
I have a potentially bad proof for the independence of polynomials
$∑_{i=0}^n σ_i x^i$
meow
I want to know if a polynomial of some degree n must have 0 for all coefficients if it is the zero polynomial
Yes,a polynomial is zero polynomial iff all coefficients are 0
well one potentially bad proof is to say that
groups have unique identity
and since you have identified one zero polynomial
that is the unique one
is that bad?
another idea is to induct on n
I don't think that's a bad proof
In the space of formal polynomials,there is a unique zero polynomial
woots thx
i don’t think that’s complete
You have to show that all polynomials with differeing coefficients correspond to different functions
Which is not very hard to show
How do you do that?
Without taking $\sum{a_i x^i}=0 \implies a_i=0$ as an axiom
MoonBears-D-
Well tbh this just avoids the whole use of “group identity is unique”
You want to show nonzero coefficients==> nonzero function
i.e , given the set of coefficients, find some x s.t its nonzero
Actually,you need to show nonzero coefficients==> Never zero polynomial
You can use FTA but that might be circular
Never zero as in not vanishing for any x? Because i don’t agree with that
Never zero as in if f(x) is a polynomial,there is a b such that f(b) is nonzero
Yeah thats what i meant
You can just take x large enough
For any x above some value, it has to be nonzero, because the magnitude of the last term is larger than the magnitude of all earlier terms
We are talking formal polynomials in general
So,You may not have a notion of magnitude or partial order
If the question was about formal polynomials, then I’m not sure it would make sense, cause there’s power series with radius of convergence 0
(Or, if we’re dealing with formal polynomials, then we’re identifying a polynomial with its sequence of coeffients, so its pretty much axiomatic)
x^q - x over F_q says hi
I'm trying to solve a multi DOF damped system for U. [M] and [K] are symmetric nxn matrices, but [C] is not symmetric. Can I use the following approach?
Put in block matrix form
Solve the 1st order differential using exponential matrices
Is it true that because [C] is not symmetrical then it can't have distinct eigenvalues/eigenvectors, making it not possible to diagonalize? But even if that's true, e[A]t can always be found without diagonalizing, right?
@true tiger it will be easier if you send the question
Like {2x + 3y + z = 0; x + y = 0}
or an axample
Something like this
Into one equation for a line
Should be something simple, but i can't remember
It's a line {2x + 3y + z = 0; x + y = 0} for exmaple
given with 2 systems
are you familiar with Gaussian elimination?
solve your 2 equations
I'll get x y z
Id on't need the intersection point
I need the line equation
Or I can just solve it and use it as equation?
I don't understand your question
can you explain? or give me an example you already solved
Find distance between LINE:{2x + 3y + z = 0; x + y = 0} and PANE:{some random equation}
The line is given with a system
it should be just one line equation
From what i remember this is not true, you don't find distance this way
I just need...
A line
from the system
Some kind of equation
I forgot how you get it
{2x + 3y + z = 0; x + y = 0} can be written in like a normalequation or something
ah..
f me..
Why do I need equaton if point is sufficient for me anyways
ahh -.-
I just get the intersection point and do point to plane distance formula
I have a question which is type true false
"Let A be an m × n matrix. If N(A)=0 (the null space of A) then A is invertible"
is this true ?
<@&286206848099549185>
you've been here for how long and you're still pinging helpers immediately 
If your question has not been answered for a minimum of 15 minutes, you may use the Helpers tag once. Please do not try to bump your question using this ping unnecessarily. Do not abuse this ping. Do not individually ping users with the Helpers tag without their express permission.
it's true if m = n.
oops sorry
but if m != n
can you even talk about invertibility?
are you @crimson pelican ?
regardless
yes
this is false in general, as you need m = n for it to follow
we can take invertible even if not a square matrix
No, they are polynomial's alt
been a while since i heard that name 
invertible means has a left inverse and a right inverse
depends on the matrix
if the matrix is injective then it's going to have a left inverse (compare with "a function is injective if and only if it has a left inverse")
i believe
but it need not have a right inverse
see if that's true for me, i have a lecture starting in 3 minutes 
A matrix with full row rank has a right inverse
A matrix with full column rank has a left inverse @wintry steppe
ya, and full column rank is equivalent to injectivity, by rank-nullity

okay, lecture starts
and full row rank is the same thing as injectivity of A^T, i.e. surjectivity of A (just use the properties of the dual map
)
cool
thx for confirming my suspicions for me
please don't ping helpers before 15 minutes, as per #❓how-to-get-help
anyway, no, it is false
if A is mxn then $\rho(A) \le min(m,n)$
easy counterexample: consider $\begin{pmatrix}1&0\1&0\end{pmatrix}$. then the row space is just the span of $\begin{pmatrix}1\0\end{pmatrix}$, which certainly does not span $\bR^2$
m = n
if you really want them to be distinct, though, you could use $\begin{pmatrix}1&0\1&0\1&0\end{pmatrix}$ instead
Namington
same idea
you're misreading.
note that it says _sub_space
ie it may not be the whole R^n
and as my counterexamples show, there are situations where it is not the whole R^n
(this is related to the notion of rank btw)
Hello, can somebody please check my solution?
@quasi frigate I will if I know the stuff
If you want, that'd be great
can you plug in the values in the equation?
Silly me, I just thought about that when I sent the message
but that's a weird technique tho
I mean I felt uncomfortable, how you were getting the echeleon form, don't we usually do it from left to right?
maybe hes from a country that reads right to left
Well, I did not calculate that correctly
I'm using method to have only one 1 in column
idk how it's called in English
yeah gaussian elimination
@quasi frigate can you send the original equatiton?
I was told to do that with method where you have a matrix with only values 1 in columns
Yea I’m gonna do that
@quasi frigate answer is x=-1,y=0,z=1, t=2
Maybe
if v1,v2,v3 are not null spaces
I am kinda confused rn, but are those linearly independent?
I think I am leaning more towards truw
thanks, I got the same answers.
See if you can try a few examples
also, you should probably re-read and review the section you're going over
Sorry
Let V be a vector space, and let v1,v2,v3∈V. Then any vector in the subspace W=Span(v1,v2,v3) can be written uniquely as a linear combination of v1,v2,v3. is it true?
why do you think a vector can be written uniquely?
Only if the vectors are linearly independent
I felt incomplete by definition. thanks for your answers
You can prove this by contradiction if you suppose
$c_1v_1+\ldots+c_nv_n=k_1v_1+\ldots+k_nv_n$
Where $c_i\neq k_i$.
nix
@quasi frigate this stuff used to give me nightmares...professor shoved it down our throats in Calc 3 and said we’d love him once we got to Linear Algebra and Differential Equations.
yea tell me about it, in 2 weeks I got an exam from 2 math subjects at uni
Yes for being incredibly well prepared..No for the night terrors
meh now I'm used to falling asleep at 5a.m. 🙂
I used to read math and algorithm books to fall asleep
now, they keep me awake
it's insane
you know how people tell you, good grades + sleep = no friends, friends + sleep = no good grades, good grades + friends = no sleep
I don't even have time for friends and sleep while studying CS wtff
24/7 working on projects and stuff
I switched my Major from CS this semester actually
what do you study rn?
I’m studying pure Maths right now
Went in thinking I’d want to be a software designer and found the math to be far more captivating
yeaa I got you
I'm not that much into strictly software engineering, but at my uni I have opportunity to study AI and robotic autonomy, which are a part of my course
That sounds a lot more exciting than my schools CS program!
Well yea, It's a new program that started a year ago.
Ok lemme know if this is a question I should ask after actually getting into linear algebra
So I learned that the kernal of a function f is the equivalence relation such that x_1 ker(f) x_2 <=> f(x_1) = f(x_2)
so like 0 ker(sin) 2pi for example
I'm watching the 3b1b linear algebra series
thats a weird way to define kernel, usually the kernel is a set and then the equivalence relation youre referring to is called "quotienting by the kernel"
and he says that the null space, which is the set of all vectors that get mapped to the zero vector after a transformation, is also called the kernal
hmm maybe I'm misremember the definition
yes, thats the usual definition (for linear maps)
$x_1 \ker(f) x_2$ is unusual notation/language, but $x_1 \sim_{\ker(f)} x_2$ is seen sometimes
Namington
huh, thats a bit nonstandard
Ok then what's the standard?
$\ker(f) = {x \mid f(x) = 0}$
Namington
and then the corresponding equivalence relation is $x_1 \sim x_2 \iff x_1 - x_2 \in \ker(f)$
Namington
you can establish equivalence between this definition and the one you're using
not sure what you mean by that?
its possible a linear map maps multiple distinct vectors to 0
for example, $T\begin{pmatrix}x_1\x_2\x_3\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}x_1+x_2\0\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington
(0, 0, 0) and (0, 0, 5) are both in the kernel
as are (1, -1, 0) and (7, -7, 35918593458)
etc
So in the video he defines that the null space of a transformation is the set of all vectors that get mapped to the origin (aka become zero vectors) after the transformation
and then he says that this is also called tke kernel
yes
that was my question, basically if that naming was related
ok cool
Also cool to see that other way of defining the kernel
anyway it seems the terminology your source is using follows a different convention
which i havent seen before
but theyre related in any case
which source, the video I'm talking about or the notes I posted
the notes
yea that's my teacher's notes he wrote up
I think I've asked a couple times about other concepts and people had similar remarks as to that was weird notation / weird definitions
yeah this one makes sense, like if someone said "the equivalence relation ker(f)"
i'd know exactly what they mean
but its still not really standard
gotcha
use it for your course though
Well I'm going to a new course in a couple weeks
new semester and all
so we shall see 
What kind of digital note taking system do you ya'll use?
I've been using markdown + latex + visual studio code
🤮
vim+latex+zathura #1
vs code is nice but after getting used to vim, i don't really use it anymore
im gonna get an ipad soon...
i like the idea of sharing screen often to do math like this
it also means i don't have to lug my Gamer™️ laptop around
A linear map can be between vector spaces over different fields, right?
$T: F_2^2 → F_3^2$
meow
no
T(cv) = cT(v). how do you make sense of c being in two different fields at once?
in order for cv to make sense, c needs to be in the domain field
in order for cT(v) to make sense, c needs to be in the codomain field
and it is
such as my example, right above, right?
no?
the elements of F_2 and the elements of F_3 correspond to different things
they have differnet addition, multiplication, etc
just because they use the same symbol doesnt make them the same thing
that's the same with R^2 → C
in fact, this is why youll sometimes see the notation $0_2$ or $0_3$ used when its ambiguous
Namington
or Q →R
sure, but R is a subfield of C
and Q a subfield of R
F_2 is not a subfield of F_3.
and yeah, we cant "naively" define a homomorphism in that case
but what we can do is "extend" Q into R
and then we can construct a linear map between our domain (now considered over R) and our codomain
alternatively, you could restrict the codomain to being a space over Q
it's not in most definitions of linearity that I see
hm?
here's wikipedia's
which is canonical
wikipedia later specifies this
which is kinda what i was trying to get at
i'm curious what definitions dont state that (unless the course legitimately hasnt covered vector spaces over different fields yet)
right before axler defines a linear map.
but it doesn't say the same F, right

theyre both over F the same field
when we say two things are the same variable
we mean they're the same
for example, if i said $3 + n = 2 \cdot n$, you'd assume both $n$s correspond to the same value
Namington
I see
same idea here; both Fs refer to the same field (interpreting that sentence as "V is over F and W is over F").
If $x$ is an eigenvector of $A$ associated with eigenvalue $\lambda$, where $A$ and $x$ are complex, what can we say about
$\overline{A}x$?
$\lambda$ is not necessarily complex but I'm not sure if that affects things anything.
This is so sad 
We can say that $\overline{A}\overline{x}=\overline{\lambda}\overline{x}$ though right?
nix
yup
