#linear-algebra
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Write PA=B and P=BA^-1 and show P is orthogonal. (A and B are matrices with columns a1,a2.. and b1,b2..)
I don't follow how the statements PA = B and P = BA^-1 show P is orthogonal
You have to show that separately
Show (BA^-1) (BA^-1)t=I
Using B Bt=I and A At=I (which implies A^-1 (A^-1)t=I)
this is plenty to work with, I think I can show orthogonality
Yes
B Bt = A^-1 * (At)^-1
B At = A^-1 * (Bt)^-1
B At Bt A = I
(B At) * (B At)t = I
P * Pt = I
Pt = P^-1
therefore P is orthogonal
not sure if I did extra steps since matrix multiplication is not commutable
but in this case I think it is commutable
2nd step is not correct
You will get B=A^-1 (At)^-1 (Bt)^-1
B Bt = I
B = (Bt)^-1
B A^-1 = (Bt)^-1 A^-1
B A^-1 = (Bt A)^-1
(B A^-1) (Bt Att) = I (since (At)t = A)
(B A^-1) (B At)t = I
(B A^-1) (B A^-1)t = I (since A At = I and hence At = A^-1)
P Pt = I
Pt = P^-1
Does anyone have a good resource to explain the multilinearity of the determinant?
My professors explanation isn't making too much sense to me
You might like hoffman kunze
B Bt = I
B = (Bt)^-1
B A^-1 = (Bt)^-1 A^-1
B A^-1 = (Bt A)^-1
(B A^-1) (Bt Att) = I (since (At)t = A)
(B A^-1) (B At)t = I
(B A^-1) (B A^-1)t = I (since A At = I and hence At = A^-1)
P Pt = I
Pt = P^-1
@dim venture (ABt)^-1 in fourth step
wait what
But yea,(AB)t being Bt At compensates for that
Sorry for jumping in.
Have I applied the binomial formular correctly here: (from down to up)?
Yea,it's fine
Can someone help me with a)
someone help me please
my english is not good im sorry
For a) 1(v1)+(-1)(v2)+(-1)(v3)+1(v4)=0 ,i.e.,nonzero scalars exist such that c1v1+c2v2+c3v3+c4v4=0
could someone let me know why this justification holds? was just copying down notes and im not sure why this proves the set is linearly independent
You say c1 sin(x) + c2 (cos (x)) =0,where 0 here is the 0 function.(i.e,f(x)=0 for all x)
So rhs is 0 if you substitute x and lhs becomes c2
So,c2 has to be 0
Similarly c1 has to be 0
right but what does proving c2 = 0 for x =0 and c1 = 0 for x = pi/2 show?
Do you remember the definition of linear independence?
If c1 f1 +c2 f2=0 then li implies c1=c2=0
so if i can force c1 and c2 to be 0 for two different values of x then ive proved the set is li?
well,you are showing the function defined by c1 f1 +c2 f2 is the zero function
So if the resultant function gives 0 for all values of x,and if you get c1=c2=0 is the only case that can happen,you have shown li
ah okay thank you so much:D
hint: use absolute homogeneity
@strange dove did that help? :p
it just means that for norms you have $ \norm{\lambda x} = \abs{\lambda} \cdot \norm{x} $
Flow:
uh im still thinking
so for example if b = (1,0,0) and lambda = 3, the above statement would be false right?
yes
if you take any x such that |x| = 1, then x is in B but something like 2x is not in B because |2x| = 2 |x| = 2 * 1 = 2
is it really that simple?
damn, i just wrote the midterm for this course and it was one of the hardest tests i've ever written but they're giving me questions like these?
maybe it wasnt difficult :p
that's true, or maybe i'm just not confident enough
i guess i'll find out when i see my mark and the average
;)
thank you btw @spiral star
I think I asked this question but I didn't get a full answer
but when testing for linear independence why do we test if there exists only a unique / trivial solution to the linear combination of the vectors equal to the zero vector
and not just some abritrary vector?
Because that ultimately reduces to checking for the zero vector
Cuz I've seen a lot of definitions, define lienar independce with the zero vector in the definition
Let c1v1+c2v2=a and d1v1+d2v2=a be such that c1 is not d1 and c2 is not d2 simultaneously
This would imply c1v1+c2v2=0 has a non trivial solution
Correct
the only way that its true is if c1 and c2 is 0
which implies the zero vector
but why can't we extend this definition to any vector though?
You can
or am I missing the point
But that's too much work,rather than just doing it for zero
Ye thats what I thought
So linear indepence implies that there is a unique solution for any vector in its vector space
Yes
ok
*unique representation
but we just use the zero vector for simplicity ok
that makes me feel better lol
cuz it always felt weird why we just use zero, (I had the idea that its just ez to prove using zero but thx for validating me intution)
for example (a) is the vector space R3?
@weak patio
yes
is b and c the only one that is true?
I think c might be false
because u dont know if z is independent or dependint on x or y
I think B and D are true
but u might want someone else to check that
Ok ๐
for D if u know that x and y are dependent
no matter how many additional vectors u add
it will always be dependent because of the x and y vectors
@desert robin That should prolly be in #prealg-and-algebra move the question over there and I can answer it
whoops mb
let a and b be matrices. If ab = 0 and b =/= 0, does that imply a = 0?
where a and b are both nxn
no
Can anyone confirm that this will result in 7^n?
let a and b be matrices. If ab = 0 and b =/= 0, does that imply a = 0?
@dim venture
Imagine the matrix with $a_{1,1} = 1$, and $a_{i,j} = 0$ else. And the matrix with $a_{n,n} = 1$ and $0$ else
Enigsis:
Does anyone know of an example of a vector space with an infinite set of linearly independent vectors?
can someone help me with geomatry
@royal ore the vector space of polynomials
Any vector space of the form C([a,b])
There are a few. You won't be able to think of any for Euclidean space; all those spaces are finite dimensional.
Gotta branch out into more abstract spaces.
this is not linear algebra
try #prealg-and-algebra , #precalculus , or one of the ten questions-_ channels (as long as theyre not occupied)
my bad sorry
How do I find the dual of an optimization problem that isn't in standard form?
Like I know the dual of the problem
Subject to Ax >= b ```
Is
```Maximize b^{T}y
Subject to A^{T}y = c, y >= 0```
I've also seen specific examples of different cases, but I'm confused about how to do this where the problem doesn't "look like" Ax >= b and is in a more general form (no specific numbers, just vectors and matrices)
For example, what about something like
```Minimize c^{T}x subject to
Ay + x >= b
z^{T}y >= d
Or something like that, where you have extra variables - what do you do in that case?
<@&286206848099549185>
Does anyone know of an example of a vector space with an infinite set of linearly independent vectors?
@royal ore
$\mathbb{R}$ as a $\mathbb{Q}$ vector space
Enigsis:
I have a linear map T: Rn -> Rn. I need to show that if there's a nonempty open set S such that T(S) is also open, T is bijective. I get that you can get around the open set thing by just considering an open ball, but I don't know what to do past that.
@wintry steppe What do you know about the image of a linear map?
Well, I know that T is continuous so if T(S) is open then S is also open
Not really what I'm looking for, I'm only asking about the linear structure
The image of a linear map is....
I'm confused by what you're asking
Oh, yeah that's true
Okay
So you know that the image is a linear subspace, and also that it contains an open ball
Do you have a guess about which linear subspaces of R^n contain an open ball?
well, in order to contain an open ball of dimension n, it would have to be itself, right?
It will have to be all of R^n, yes
If you want to see why, just take the center of the ball v_0 and n vectors v_1,...,v_n that are also in the ball but in different directions from the center, and then since the image is a linear subspace it contains the n vectors v_j - v_0 which are linearly independent
Does that make sense?
Yeah, I get that
Okay good, so the image is all of R^n
Is that good enough to show that it's bijective?
We need to show it's injective and surjective, right?
If the image is R^n, that would mean it's surjective?
oh, yeah
ah
that's neat
wait hold on
is it injective
Wouldn't it have to be because it maps from R^n to R^n
Yes, there's a big famous theorem for this
what would that be?
Rank-nullity theorem? I assume this is what you were referring to with Wouldn't it have to be because it maps from R^n to R^n
oh fuck right
Right so you're done
that's cool
help im despo
despo?
despoceeto
Can someone explain what this notation means
is it just saying Ax is a linear transformation
it's a function that sends x to Ax
so the transformation is the function that transforms x to Ax
so it would mean x transforms to Ax via a function operation
another example, $x\mapsto x^2$ is a function that squares its inputs
RokettoJanpu:
okay interesting. Is there a name for that symbol
it's the same as saying "a function f defined by f(x)=x^2 for all x", i can just speak of the function w/o going through the trouble of naming it
don't focus on the name, this is a way to refer to a function without needing to name it, it's all about how the function maps inputs
the function is just Ax then right and the variable is just x
no Ax isn't the function
but in your example x --> x^2; wasn't x^2 the function
the whole thing "x |-> Ax" denotes a function that sends an arbitrary x to Ax
okay so its not a function. its denoting a function without saying a function explicitly
it denotes a function by giving a rule for how it acts on inputs, without giving it a name
and the rule is that the vector x is multipliced by the matrix A?
yes any arbitrary x is sent by the function to the product Ax
what do you mean by sent by the function?
is it that the arbritary x becomes Ax through operations from the function
the product Ax is the output of the function for any x you input into the function
oh okay, yeah that makes more sense
we phrase that as "the function maps x to Ax"
okay thanks for the explanations
you're welcome
can someone help me with latex
i wannna add a matrix here
We need to show that $S$ is a subring of $M(\R)$.First, we need to prove if $S$ is nonempty, such that
\begin{align*}
A\cdot \textbf{0} &=
\end{align*}```
use
\begin{pmatrix}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{pmatrix}
to get matrices in latex. separate the entries of each row by &, and go to a new column using \\
so put two matrices next to eachother
\begin{pmatrix}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}
e & f \\
g & h
\end{pmatrix}
$A \cdot \mathbf{0} = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 1\ 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}0 & 0\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$
Max Hetfield:
loll
google and stackexchange tend to be very good for latex-writing questions
that's how i learned all of the latex i know and it's how i learn more
well, first, you have to put it in \[\] or $$$$ or \begin{equation}\end{equation} or whatever you prefer
let me try it
can you do me the format code loll
oo nvm i got it loll
anyone know subrings?
How is S a subring? There is no multiplicative identity in S
How is S a subring? There is no multiplicative identity in S
@native rampart A ring without Identity
@half forge , You just have to prove that S is close under sustraction and close under product
And S not empty set
heres the original problem
i read my textbook that that it has to satisfy four things but my teacher said that we have to show if its a subset ?
A subring of a ring is a subset of a ring that is a ring
But, S is inside the ring M(R), then, it already have the associativity and Distributivity Property
You need to prove that is closed under adittion and exists inverses (Or equivalent closed under sustraction) and prove that is closed under multiplication
See that if you prove that, if B, C belongs to S then B - C belongs to S. That's closed under sustraction, you csn get 0 taking C = B
Is it possible to achieve reduced row echelon form on a matrix that doesn't have equal dimensions (e.g. 2x3 Matrix)
Ah, in my example, there would just be a column of zeros?
Enigsis:
In this format, how would I know if the matrix is dependent/independent based on the values in reduced echelon form?
Column vectors
Well, I think if you're working in Rยฒ, they're dependent, because is a set of three vectors, and Rยฒ have dimension 2
Rยฒ or Fยฒ for any Field F
What about row vectors then?
If you get the last row 0, I think they're dependent
Ah, great. That's helpful. Thank you ๐
Returning to earlier, how could I tell by looking at the reduced row echelon form if the row vectors are dependent/independent if there are 4 3d vectors?
four 3D vectors are always LD
If the space have dimension n then, every set with k > n elements is linear dependent
In this case 4 > 3
Then, they're linear dependent
Thanks guys ๐
If you have n eigenvectors corresponding to some eigenvalue, does this imply that the eigenvalue is of multiplicity n?
or can the multiplicity be lower/higher than the number of eigenvectors?
Yea, if the n vectors are linearly independent
am scared to ask
but here it goes
i gag when i look at this
can someone help me
what even is P(R)
is that powerset of R?

P(R) seems to be the space of all real polynomials
at my uni at least that is the notation for the polynomial space with real-valued coefficients
so just evaluate the transformation for linearity
Yea, That's a weird proof
yeah I started with the hint
suppose there exists a vector x such that (ST-I)x = 0, therefore STx = x therefore TSTx = Tx therefore Tx โ ker(TS-I)
likewise symmetrically in the other direction
yeah that was my issue
it's not hard but it's a necessary gap to fill
assume x to be in ker(ST - I) \ {0}
so that x โ 0
then STx = x โ 0 will imply Tx โ 0 (as otherwise STx would be 0 implying x itself is also 0 which it isn't)
Sv โ 0 implies v โ 0
that's a property of linear transformations
I understand that
I am going to look for that property of linear transformation in my profs notes
thanks for the help
its the contrapositive of v = 0 => Sv = 0 ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
It makes sense
I just like restraining myself with tools the prof give in class as good habit
basically so I am not fighting with the prof too much
wym written out
Under what conditions is the linear map $F:\mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}^n$ given by $F(x) = Ax$, where $A$ is an $n\times m$ matrix, either injective, surjective, or both? I know that if it's both it has to be a square non-singular matrix, but I'm struggling with the individual cases.
telegram sam:
Ah yeah I established that too. But what are the restrictions on A assuming we've met the restrictions on n and m?
Column rank=n would imply surjection
And if the column vectors are linearly independent,injection
Think of the columns of the matrix as a spanning set and x to be a set of scalars (Say,v1,v2..vm are the column vectors, take A(x1,x2 ..xm) to mean x1v1+x2v2...xmvm)
There are m column vectors, each belonging to R^n and you use them to span a subspace of R^n
any householder transformation expert here?
wait so for my above question, how can i prove it's a vector space?
Its a subset of the vector space of 3 x 3 matrices.
Because of that, you already know that alot of the axioms are automatically satisfied.
The four that you've got to verify is that it contains the zero matrix, and that it's closed under scalar multiplication and vector addition.
Then you're done.
I don't know what that fourth property is supposed to be.
thanks
so for the zero matrix, how would it be verified?
i know A2,1=0, but how would it be shown in a proof
Why does RREF actually mean in terms of vectors?
Becuase in linear algebra RREF makes sense in the context of system of equations
But what I'm learning right now is about column space and row space
It's a convenient way to check the rank of rowspace
And seems pretty disconnected from system of equations
so there is a way to find rowspace without RREF @native rampart ?
You always know the rowspace
Well you can write a bunch of linear equations and solve manually
but thats just RREF
oh
RREF finds dependent vectors
I was trynna relate to RREF to system of equations
I think it, at least for me, to isntead think of it as a method to find dependent vectors
Can anyone tell me how I did this wrong?
The problem was just to solve the augmented matrix in vector form
what happened to the 1 in position 4, 2
howd it become a 0 between the second and third matrix
Let $A = span{x, 1}$ and $B = span{1+x+x^2-x^3, 1+x+x^2}.$ Show that all real polynomials of degree 3 can be expressed as $A \oplus B$
Tzucki:
I think the way to do this
is to represent the sets of A and B as matricies
and then
add them?
and check if it rank is full
i need to explicitly show that i can let $$ax + bx^2 + cx^3 + d = A \circleplus B$$
but check if det is non zero?
cant use det or rank theorems
ye rite
so would ijust solve the system
oh
Tzucki:
because polynomials are linearly indepedent
ok let me try soemthing
d will only equal the constants
so ig as long as a b c d are defined
it can span everything?
idk I dont think I know enought linear algebra to help lmao
damn
good try though , anyone else online to take a look?
<@&286206848099549185>
I think i know
Speaking generally we could take
$B = span{v_1, v_2}span{1+x+x^2-x^3, 1+x+x^2}$ and then $B = span{v_1 - v_2, v_2} = span{-x^3, 1+x+x^2}$
darkninja175:
then we basically have the building blocks of our polynomials
showing that the standard basis vectors are in the span suffices
yeah
and thats really obvious
1 = 1
x = x
xยฒ = (1+x+xยฒ) - 1 - x
xยณ = (1+x+xยฒ) - (1+x+xยฒ-xยณ)
i see that
but the answer was expressing it as a sum of two vectors mulitiplied by some coefficient to make it equal to the polynomial
i figured it out using some matrix madness
I have a question guys. I'm struggling to understand how Givens matrices work. I understand the concept that we can induce zeros into a matrix column vector through rotation, but my sources say we "rotate" 2 coordinates at a time, not the whole vector. This confuses me
maybe I'm getting lost in notation
Can someone give me some sort of intuitive sense as to what a single Givens matrix is doing? (I'm looking to string them together for QR factorization later.)
do you know what to do
no clue on where to start
are you allowed to use dimension theorems
kerT = {0} => dim(kerT) => 0 is injective
would it be?
both ways can hold with dim theorem you just need to explain it properly
i never proved injective for a linear map yet
so i wouldn't know how to do this statement
have you learned dimension/ rank null theorem
i've done dimension but not for null
if you havent you probably need to prove it some other way
dim(kerT) + dim(imT) = dim V for vector space V
where t is a linear transformation
well first off, and if & only if statement requires proving implications in both directions. So you need to do two proofs.
essentially
so what would be the first thing we need to prove
@wintry steppe you don't need to invoke rank nullity
you could do it multiple ways, sure
@royal ore i asked if you know how to prove an "if & only if" statement
not really
@half moss i got it
well we could start with the forward implication. so and injective linear map T, prove it's kernel must be {0}
The backward implication would be, given a linear map that has ker{0}, prove it's injective
it's two proofs
first do you know what "if & only if" means
so first prove kernel is {0} and then prove the linear map is injective
what does if and only if mean
it means a logical equivalence, or that the implication works in both directions.
let's say we have 2 statements p and q. we say "p if and only if q" if we have that p implies q (we say "p only if q") AND q implies p (we say "if q then p")
ok, so thats why we're proving both forward and backward implications
the forward implication is a bit more straightforward, it might be wise to start with that
so for example the linear map is injective if ker t = {0} and ker t = {0} if the linear map is injective
yes. if we had "If p then q", then that's a regular implication. but if we have "p if and only if q" it's basically saying they mean the same thing, they're interchangeable, aka the implication works both ways
yeah
okie
you've got it
@brisk fractal @half moss can you both leave this channel, i don't like helpers dogpiling
sorry, my bad
sure thing
let's say we have 2 statements p and q. we say "p if and only if q" if we have that p implies q (we say "p only if q") AND q implies p (we say "if q then p")
so if we're proving p if and only if q, we must prove 2 things, that p implies q AND q implies p
so for example the linear map is injective if ker t = {0} and ker t = {0} if the linear map is injective
so that's the structure of what you're doing, prove ker(T)={0} implies T is injective AND T being injective implies ker(T)={0}, if you do those then you can conclude ker(T)={0} if and only if T is injective
so you're proving now that ker(T)={0} implies T is injective. what's your first step?
we have to show vectors that are linearly independent?
what vectors?
those part of T?
not sure what you mean
so there's no vectors involving the proof?
have you ever proven an implies statement?
not yet, and haven't done injection
i've done linear maps but with vectors
one-to-one
ok you have a definition above, you'll use it
let p and q be statements. to show p implies q, you assume p is true then show q is true
yes for the first proof we're trying to show kerT = {0}
meaning we already know T is injective for the first
so show kerT = {0}
but then the second proof would be us assuming kerT = {0} is true but proving T is injective
yes for the first proof we're trying to show kerT = {0}
meaning we already know T is injective for the first
assume T is injective then show ker(T)={0}. that'll show T being injective implies ker(T)={0}
but then the second proof would be us assuming kerT = {0} is true but proving T is injective
assume ker(T)={0} then show T is injective. that'll show ker(T)={0} implies T is injective
okie
assume T is injective then show ker(T)={0}. that'll show T being injective implies ker(T)={0}
1st step assume T is injective. do you know how to show ker(T)={0}?
not sure how to show it for the kernel
do we have to write T is injective because each V can only go to one W
you must be thorough. in proving this
T being injective implies ker(T)={0}
you say every step. so you include this too
1st step assume T is injective.
so we assume t is injective for first step
then next is it being injective implies ker(t)={0}
T not t
yeah
your next steps are toward showing ker(T)={0}
yeah but that was last year's course with discrete math
you'll do it again to show ker(T)={0}
they have same elements but don't have to be in same order right
if we compare two sets that are equal
yeah it just matters about the elements themselves
what's the definition of set equality?
I haven't even said anything yet
Two sets are equal if and only if they have the same elements.
does the if and only if as well
that's not a usable definition here. give me the textbook definition
do you know how to read that
For all x, x is a element of A and is equivalent to x being a element of B
x being an element of A is equivalent to x being a element of B
not wrong wording but it may help to break it down into 2 statements. x is in A implies x in B, AND x is in B implies x is in A. you can also reword it as, A is a subset of B AND B is a subset of A
so what does this have to do with ker{T}=0
to show ker(T)={0} you must show ker(T) is a subset of {0} AND {0} is a subset of ker(T) (this bit is considerably easier)
{} is a subset of every set, but {0} is not.
yeah sorry
to show {0} is a subset of ker(T), you'll want to think what 0 [i.e. the 0 vector] gets mapped to by a linear map
as a hint: 0 = x - x, for some (any) vector x
then use linearity
Could someone explain dependence/independence of vectors?
like.. vectors are dependent if you have a non-trivial sol'n to [A|0] for A=[v_1,v_2,...,v_n}
and independent if the sol'n is only the 0 vector?
would anyone mind answering a quick question?
if I have the equation L(t) = <1, 2, 1> + t<-3, 4, 1> and I give t a value and solve do I get a vector or a point on the line?
@nocturne jewel that is one way to define it, yes
I need to find two points on the line and I belive (1, 2, 1) is the initial point
so in the proof i have to put 0 = x -x for some vector x?
sorry i'm just so confused lol
@limber sierra can you still help?
well, you want to figure out whether 0 is in ker(T), so you want to figure out whether T(0) = 0 @royal ore
but we know 0 = x-x for any vector x
so instead write
T(x-x)
but what do you notice if you apply linearity?
@mild igloo you get vectors, but vectors "=" points if the tail is (0,0)
so when t=0, you get [1,2,1], which "is" (1,2,1)
right but if t=1 I get <-2, 8, 3>?
@limber sierra hey can you help
@royal ore probably define the vector x as [x_1,x_2,...,x_n] if you're in R^n space
Assume T is injective
T being injective implies kerT = 0
We must show that kerT is a subset of {0} and {0} is a subset of kerT
do i need to send the question again
T being injective implies kerT = 0
This is what you want to prove, but yes
and it should be
kerT = {0}
since a kernel is a set
im sorry I just dont know what a tail is
@mild igloo vector arrow has the arrowhead and the not arrowhead part... the tail is the not arrowhead part
so the arrow goes from origin to the point
oh okay but I have no way to know if the line passes through the origin?
it does with lines and planes
just flesh out my argument
"to show {0} is a subset of kerT, we want to show that 0 is in kerT"
"this means that T(0) = 0"
points = vectors in the context (not equal but lack of better symbol)
and then prove T(0) = 0
smh bad server
so If I was asked to find two points on the line (1, 2, 1) and (-2, 8, 3) would be acceptable answers?
for t=1?
yes
double check the numbers, x component is right
so we know T(0) = 0
but y and z are off
but were you saying to prove it linearity before
(if the L(t) you gave is correct)
(-2, 6, 2)
ye
okay so if I was then asked to find a unit vector parallel to the line I would have to calculate a vector given two points on the line?
So in general, L(t) is [some point on the line] + t[Direction vector]
right
if a vector is parallel to the line, it's parallel to the direction vector, as the direction vector tells the line where to go from the initial point
so find the unit vector of the direction vector and you're done
@royal ore no you DON'T know that. you set out to prove it. once you prove T(0)=0 then you can conclude {0} is a subset of ker(T)
so
ah I see thank you so much
T(0) = T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0) ?
np
that's correct but justify it
like say what proves it?
why can you say this?
T(0) = T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0)
a property of linear transformation
namely what?
Linear Transformation (or Map) on a Vector Space
i mean what property of linear maps
respects vector addition. T(x+y)=T(x)+T(y) for all x,y
T not t, and you lack 1 step
T(0) = T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0)
ideally you must justify every step, every equation in between. justify T(0) = T(0+0), justify T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0), then justify how that leads to T(0)=0
you appear to have little experience in proof writing so i think you should do it, but if you enough of these then it becomes overkill, which is why i just asked you to justify T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0)
one more for you guys
is there some k that will make the matrix have no solution
or 1 solution
or infinite
well
I know there is 1 that will give infinite
i'm not sure how to justify them specifically
well I know that -2 will make the bottom row all 0 which means infinite right?
i just know they're vector addition like you said
if I evaluate to row echelon for and the bottom row is 0 0 3 | 0 that means one solution?
that means no solutions
okay so its impossible to make this matrix have 1 solution
wait sorry I read that wrong
that means one solution
x3=0
assuming your other variables are also basic
okay then its impossible for it to have no solutions?
put it into rref and that will answer your questions
Linear map has a property where T(u1+u2) = T(u1) + T(u2)
it will have no solutions if it has a row of the form 0 0 0 | b for any b=/=0
so for the T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0)
I thought that meant it has infinite
what property is it called
if the bottom row is all zeros
I just said the bottom row is 0 0 0 b with b not equal to 0
actually in my notes there's a proposition of For any linear map,T,T(0) = 0.
wouldn't this be applied as well
you have to prove that T(0)=0
i said
respects vector addition. T(x+y)=T(x)+T(y) for all x,y
at the very least you must do this
justify T(0+0) = T(0)+T(0), then justify how that leads to T(0)=0
I feel like I should know this but why does this require orthonormal matricies
b/c orthonormal matricies A^t * A = I?
does the | |Qx| | mean of length one?
Can you specify your question a bit? What exactly surprised you?
Yes this is the norm of Qx
oh wait is thats because the norm of Qx is $\sqrt{(Qx)^t * (Qx)} $
wow i shouldve used latex
tall thin matrices 
hahaha its pretty applied
do i just not rememebr how to compute matrix norms
@hard coral I guess said a better way where does $(Qx)^t Qx$ come from
Well yes. In a eucledian vector space (?) The dot product is defined as $<x,y> = x^Ty$, the norm is defined as the sqrt of the dot product.
Tobii:
How was the definition of matrix multiplication arrived at? it seems a bit arbitrary
@warm briar apparently not
are you aware of how to use matrices to solve linear systems
@limber sierra yes
if so, then the general form of Ax = y should give you an idea, at least, of how to multiply a matrix by a column vector
the question, then, is how to extend that to general matrix * matrix
rather than just matrix * column vector
one answer is that we can consider Ax to be representative of a linear transformation T(x)
and then it turns out that, given another linear transformation S
composing S and T is the same thing as the definition of multiplication we give for their representative matrices, B and A
but what do i mean by "it turns out"? it still seems fairly random, surely?
well, let's consider the effects of AB on a column vector
hold on, extensive latexing incoming
thisll take a bit
say $A = \begin{pmatrix}1&2\1&0\end{pmatrix}, B = \begin{pmatrix}2&1\-1&1\end{pmatrix}$; then the corresponding linear transformations are $T_{A}(x) = T_{A}\left(\begin{pmatrix}x_1\x_2\end{pmatrix}\right) = \begin{pmatrix}x_1 + 2x_2\x_1\end{pmatrix}$ and $T_{B}(x) = \begin{pmatrix}2x_1+x_2\-x_1+x_2\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
but also $T_{A}(T_{B}(x)) = T_{(A)}\begin{pmatrix}\text{dot product of the first row of B and x}\\text{dot product of the second row of B and x}\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
so $T_{A}(T_{B}(x)) = \begin{pmatrix}\text{dot product of first row of A with (first entry first row of B and x, first entry of second row of B and x)}\\text{dot product of second row of A with (second entry first row of B and x, second entry second column of B and x)}\end{pmatrix}$
this might be a bit hard to visualize
but it agrees with how we want matrix multiplication to behave
and if we look at that resultant matrix
Namington:
oops typo fixed
but yeah if we look at this
it seems like we've taken the dot product of the first row with A and
the first first column of B
for the first entry
and similarly, the second entry of the resultant vector is the dot product of the second row of A with the second column of B
I encourage you to try some examples by hand to "convince yourself" of this
to go back to the numeric example I was using before:
$T_{A}(T_{B}(x)) = T_A\begin{pmatrix}2x_1+x_2\-x_1+x_2\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}(2x_1+x_2) + 2(-x_1+x_2)\2x_1+x_2\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
note that we basically plugged the rows of B into each row of A
but we did this "moving by columns" so to speak
(we started in the first entry of the columns, then went to the second entry of the columns)
and indeed if we interpret this as matrix multiplication:
$\begin{pmatrix}1&2\1&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}2&1\-1&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x_1\x_2\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}1&2\1&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}2x_1+x_2\-x_1+x_2\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}(2x_1+x_2)+2(-x_1+x_2)\2x_1+x_2\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}(2-2)x_1+(1+1)x_2\2x_1+x_2\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
the 2-2 is, of course, the dot product of the row {1,2} from A and the column {2, -1} from B
bleh i made an arithmetic mistake somewhere
too lazy to go spot it
but you should get the idea
basically, if we view it from the prespective of "applying transformations to somethign that's already been transformed"
as soon as we've "transformed" a vector
the information of the transformation (the matrix) is now organized not in the way it was originally organized
i.e. by rows
but instead by what variables it is paired with
i.e. by columns
and when we apply another transformation, this column-wise organization is what gets affected
hence why matrix multiplication takes the dot product of rows of the first matrix and columns of the second
Well the inverse of A is defined as a Matrix Z with A* Z = I
And matrix multiplication is associative
are two zero vectors orthogonal?
yes, their inner product is zero
(B^-1 * A^-1)C = I is inverse?
but you asked for the inverse of A?
well I just skimmed some lectures and saw that AB = B^-1A^-1
only reason I said that
is it literally just A^-1
so A^-1 should equal something and not be tangled up
Well you could just see the solution in this case. As the definition is almost in front of you :')
If (AB)C = I and matrix mult is associative then (AB)C=A(BC) = I
How was an inverse defined again ๐ค
im not entirely sure tbh
I could have just seen something out of context and gotten confused
Guess I need to rewatch those lectures I assumed that inverse meant to raise it to -1
well is that not the notation for an inverse of a vector
that's just notation in most cases.
But the definition of an inverse for A would be the element which combined with A leads to the neutral element
yea I have no clue what that means definitely gonna need to rewatch the lecture
oh you wanna just put it in the form A*Z = I
so A * Z. Z=BC
so BC is the inverse of A
(Well the right-inverse but that leads down another rabbit hole)
yeaaaaa I dont even wanna think of that and different type of vector norms
wants me to multiply the original equation by BC?
Hard to say out of context
what would be the inverse of a for this equation?
@mild igloo
BC, since Matrix multiplication is associative
I actually already calculated the inverse so I just multipled them and got a reduced echelon form matrix which is correct
if Im correct
๐
Trying to understand singular value decomposition in comparison to eigenvalue decompsition. i can see in this image how the 3 parts are DERIVED from the matrix. but i dont understand how SVD derives its 3 parts.
Give an example of vector space $V$ and subspaces $U_1,U_2$ of $V$ such that $U_1 \cross U_2$ is isomorphic to $U_1+U_2$ but $U_1+U_2$ is not a direct sum. Hint: The vector space $V$ must be infinite dimensional.
seth.delacroix:
If you can think of one, slide me a hint. I'm struggling coming up with an injective map that wouldn't force the spaces to be a direct sum.
Oh I thought of one I think
How would you show uniqueness whens supposing the Direct Sum of the M subspaces
I know it's going to use the fact that M_1โฉ...โฉM_k = {0}
Uniqueness of x_i right?
yeah
Try a proof by contradiction? Assume there exists some v such that x_i in M_i is not unique, i.e. v = x_1+ ... + x_n = x'_1 + .... x'_n
now see that sum from 1 to n of (x_i - x'_i) = 0
and use the fact you mentioned earlier
Isn't the condition M_i โฉM_j ={0} for all i not j?
now see that sum from 1 to n of (x_i - x'_i) = 0
@elfin mist
claim that x_i = x'_i for all i, and find a contradiction otherwise
Isn't the condition M_i
โฉM_j ={0} for all i not j?
@native rampart
They're both equivalent conditions I think
Because let M1=span{e1,e2} M2=span{e1,e3} and M3=span{e4}
There is no unique representation
(Let x=ae1 which can be written as b e1 (in M1)+ (a-b) e1(in M2) taking suitable b)
now see that sum from 1 to n of (x_i - x'_i) = 0
@elfin mist I can state (x_i-x'_i)โM_i then idk what to do after that
I know the proof of the 2 vector space case (x_1-x'_1)=(x_2-x'_2) and (x_1-x'_1)โM_1 , (x_2-x'_2)โM_2
and then (x_1-x'_1)=(x_2-x'_2)โ(M_1โฉM_2)={0}
but I don't know how to generalize that step for M_1, M_2, .... , M_k
can we state (x_1 - x'_1) = (x_2-x'_2)=....=(x_k-x'_k)=0?
<@&286206848099549185>
so maybe you could do this:
(x_1 - x'_1) = (x'_2 - x_2) + .... (x'_n - x_n)
can I state (x_i - x'_i) = (x_2-x'_2)+...+(x_i-1 - x'_i-1)+(x_i+1 - x'_i+1)+...+(x_k-x'_k)
LHS is in M_1, while RHS is not
LHS?
left hand side*
can I state (x_i - x'_i) = (x_2-x'_2)+...+(x_i-1 - x'_i-1)+(x_i+1 - x'_i+1)+...+(x_k-x'_k)
@serene tulip
You missed x_1 - x'_1
but that's okay
so maybe you could do this:
(x_1 - x'_1) = (x'_2 - x_2) + .... (x'_n - x_n)
@elfin mist
LHS here is in M1, RHS is not
also can we type in LaTeX on Discord? It's a little annoying with all the symbols
Mango:
just use $$$$$
I am having issue seeing what the RHS is tho
like is it the intersection of all the M excluding M1
or is the contradiction that RHS isn't M_1
Hmm I don't think it's the intersection, but we can argue that the RHS contains the sum of vectors from M_2, to M_n, and M1 intersect M_i is empty for all i = 2,3...n so M_1 is not contained in the RHS
or is the contradiction that RHS isn't M_1
@serene tulip
I think the contradiction is that M_1 is not contained in the RHS
What do you think
It makes sense
for part 1(a) i Think you need to show vector space V for arbitrary vector space X, W such that X maps to V and V has a unique map to W
So you have show that if a map exist between to vector spaces then you can make a map that goes through a detour vector @elfin mist
Yes, agreed. Can that detour vector space be anything? I'm unable to "construct" it
It can be anything cause all you have to do is show existence and not define it
I don't know if this is correct but I would probably start X and V to be isomorphic so I would not lose any "information" through the transformation
@elfin mist
Ohh, that is a smart choice.
what
no construction is okay
its actually the only way
to show its existence
[if I'm not wrong]
@elfin mist you can consider for a) the vector space with basis the elements in X
its a free module basically, where the ring is a field
how does one change the position of elements in a diagonal matrix using orthogonal matrix?
The question is to check what the matrix T_c with respect to these two basises C and E are. I cant find similar exercises anywhere ๐ฆ
Because it doesn't matter
(3,-1, - 2) is just one solution but you can multiply by any scalar to get another
@rugged basalt
Hey ya'll, I compleatly forget how to do these... someone mind explaining them rq?
https://cdn.smc.wtf/MxZ.png
the right column is f(-1), f(0), f(1), f(2), and so on
then you just graph (-1, f(-1)), (0, f(0)), (1, f(1)) and so on
Ah okay
thanks!
@wintry sphinx Sorry if you don't mind, so I just essentially solve the polynomial?
Or..?
Bit confused how to get f(#)
If I say that f(x) = x^4 + x^3 + 5x^2 + 8(9-x), then what I'm really saying is that f(<something>) = <something>^4 + <something>^3 + ...
is lines on a plane ?
Can somone explain me what REF (reduced echolon form) is for? I know for RREF, it's useful and important because it tells you exactly what the solutions are for a system of equations, but i don't see any usefullness or importance of a matrix of the form REF... ๐ฆ
like it's a matrix form that's half solved, so what is it for lol
REF is the name for the intermediate stage between raw and RREF
yeah i understand that part, so it's just the stage between unsolved equation and RREF?
i guess so?
like why didn't we come up wither another name for a stage between raw and REF then lol
no
i just dont understand why someone came up with that notion
cause every matrix in RREF is also in REF
yeah
gaussian elimination can be separated into two stages:
getting into REF
and getting into RREF from REF
so does knowing REF make a difference?
wym "knowing REF"
i meant the ultimate goal of getting a REF matrix is to get a RREF right
if you absolutely insist
if a line is on a plane in R^2 then that means in R^3, lines is in a plane?
no ted
for a given line in R^3 there are infinitely many planes which pass through it
i mean exactly what i said
If the line is included in the planes it makes sense
A line in R^3 belongs to infinitely many planes (you rotate around the line)
Suppose A is a symmetric square matrix, and \theta is an eigenvalue of A. Let U_\theta be a matrix whose columns form an orthonormal basis for the eigenspace space corresponding to \theta, and let E_\theta=U_\thetaU_\theta^T.
I am trying to show E_\theta is idempotent.
Does anyone have any hints?
Parentheses lmao
Svet L'octogone:
Oof sorry
Svet L'octogone:
What is (U_ฮธ)^T equal to? @jagged forum
It's the transpose of U_\theta, so its rows form an orthonormal basis for the eigenspace corresponding to \theta
I am imagining we can show somehow that $(U_\theta)^T U_theta=I$
Kรคhler:
I am very rusty on matrix multiplication (this isn't a course on LA), but we could probably multiply through and have the diagonal be the only entries so that the same basis vector meets (and evaluate to 1).
What does that mean for U_ฮธ that its columns form an orthonormal basis for the eigenspace corresponding to ฮธ?
That I am not exactly certain on
OK. Take a vector u of the eigenspace. What is its image by A?
Au=0
ohh yes sorry
In the eigenspace, the vector is just scaled
OK. Let's go in R^3. Write an orthonormal basis of R^3
Canonical is one example, and to get more for any 3 linearly independent vectors grahm schmidt constructs an orthonormal basis
Yea
So what happens for the "orthonormal basis" of your exercice is that it is scaled of ฮธ by the matrix
So for example if ((1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0),(0,0,1,0)) is the basis of the eigenspace, then its image by the matrix is ((ฮธ,0,0,0),(0,ฮธ,0,0),(0,0,ฮธ,0))
Is U_\theta orthogonal?
I know a matrix whose columns and rows are orthonormal are orthogonal, but not sure of just columns
It follows easily if so
for a given line in R^3 there are infinitely many planes which pass through it
Sorry, conflated some things back then.
@calm hamlet I don't understand
@calm hamlet can you perhaps draw this on a pieace of paper
because im genuinly confused
I can't here
But imagine an infinite plane in space
Imagine a line included inside the plane
You see that you can make the plane turn around the line, and the line is still included inside it
Find a vector v in Rโ^3 whose projection on each standard basis vector is the same standard basis vector.
Does that mean the Projection from v to (1, 0, 0) has to be (1, 0, 0)
v to (0, 1, 0) has to be (0, 1, 0)
v to (0, 0, 1) has to be (0, 0, 1) ?
yes.
Yes
yes, and nothing else
@calm hamlet Whaaat, Damn imagine how to do this in R^4
if I have a hard understanding doing this in r^3 then rip me
i have i think a dumb question
if i have the standard matrix of a transform, how do i know the dimension of the domain and codomain?
Ax = y right
it should be just R^m -> R^n right
say A is a n x m matrix
for an m x n standard matrix?
yeah
okay ๐
n x m * m x 1 results in n x 1
i was curious bc its not really clear where the input vector should live
like it could go on either side
I think typically linear transformations are written T(x) = [T]x for the matrix [T] in the basis, and I believe the definitions of multiplication of matrices follows from composition written in that way
so like A(B(x)) = ABx and that's how matrix multiplication for AB is defined, by the composition
hmm
could someone give me a hand in finding the bases of the null space of a matrix
im trying to follow along with this guide and my book but the dimensions dont seem to line up so i dont really understand how its supposed to be a solution
I'm looking at $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 4 & 5 \ 0 & 1 & 0 & -2 & 2 \ 0 & 0 & 1 & 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix}$
jan Niku:
so following my book and this page https://yutsumura.com/how-to-find-a-basis-for-the-nullspace-row-space-and-range-of-a-matrix/
i get to $\begin{pmatrix} -4x_4 -5x_5 \ 2x_4 -2 x_5 \ -x_4 -x_5 \ x_4 \ x_5\end{pmatrix}$
jan Niku:
i dont really get what this is supposed to be representing, I get that x_4 and x_5 are free variables but how does this corrolate to the bases of the null space other than just its the output of the augmented matrix solving for Ax=0
You start by asking "for what x vectors is Ax=0?"
where x is completely arbitrary
you then end up with the solution that involves two arbitrary coefficients still
This means that the null-space is two-dimensional.
Now you just need to find some basis. For that, just take two different pairs of (x4,x5) values and get vectors for them. For example:
$$x_4=0,x_5=1$$
$$\begin{pmatrix} -5 \ -2 \ -1 \ 0 \ 1\ \end{pmatrix}$$
$$x_4=1,x_5=0$$
$$\begin{pmatrix} -4 \ 2 \ -1 \ 1 \ 0\ \end{pmatrix}$$
so we only need two basis vectors since the nullspace is 2 dimensional within R^5, but they'll have 5 elements each?
oh i guess that makes sense
Yup, the nullspace of the matrix is a 2-dimensional subspace in a 5-dimensional space of vectors.
ConfusedReptile:
~ w has a positive z coordinate.
All three vectors are unitary.
The angles between them are all equal to ฯ/3
.
Then find the volume of the parallelepiped they determine.
Any starting tips for that? I'm really lost
well
I don't think this is uniquely determined, so you can pick w = [0, 0, 1] and u = [sqrt(3)/2, 0, 0.5]
then you can solve a system of linear equations to get a value of v whose dot product with both of these is 0.5
as for finding the area of the parallelepiped, use https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Triple_product
In vector algebra, a branch of mathematics, the triple product is a product of three 3-dimensional vectors, usually Euclidean vectors. The name "triple product" is used for two different products, the scalar-valued scalar triple product and, less often, the vector-valued vecto...
a v that works is [2/sqrt(3), sqrt(2)/3, 0.5]
@elfin mist you can consider for a) the vector space with basis the elements in X
@clear arrow
Hmm, I'm not able to proceed from here :(
So you're suggesting V = linear-span(X)?
I'm not sure what the map is here, exactly. Let's say X is finite and has k elements x_1 through x_k. Where is x_i mapped to?
hey im not sure what the heck im doing wrong here
jan Niku:
jan Niku:
are my dimensions wrong or something?
the vectors seem right just from $x_1 = -x_3-5x_4$ and $x_2 = 4x_3 - 4x_4$
jan Niku:
anybody 
x1 = -t - 5s, x2 = 4t- 4s, x3 = t, x4 = s. So (x1, x2, x3, x4) = t(-1, 4, 1, 0) + s(-5,-4,0,1)
So the first one seems wrong
@robust pond
Got it?
oh was it just a sign error 
sorry one moment i want to see if its correct
dang that was a dumb mistake to get caught up on
thanks @marble lance ๐โโ๏ธ
Np
can anyone help me with a problem?

isn't t(0) = 0 another one?
T(0)=0 follows from the above
Remember if it's false, you only need to show that one of those conditions don't hold
For specific points
nice cat

i dont really understand what you're doing
Evidently, nor do i
Can someone do one of the problems please so that I can follow through 
Do you understand the definition of linear trandformation? @low prawn
not anymore
Ima 
,rccw
explain what
how to get to the last gauss elimination
add twice row 2 to row 3
do you guys mind if you explain step by step because i really dont know what is going on
have you done gaussian elimination before at all?
like, are you familiar with the concept of row operations?
no and not familiar



