#linear-algebra
2 messages Β· Page 134 of 1
Namington:
but as for $-4k = -4k - k$
Namington:
k isn't 1
k=0
right, and that's the only solution
so $T\begin{pmatrix}x\y\z\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}x\0\z\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
i.e. it maps the top entry to itself, the bottom entry to itself
but it multiplies the middle entry by 0
and when you have a 0 in your transformation's definition, it's not one-to-one
since for example, $T\begin{pmatrix}0\1\0\end{pmatrix} = T\begin{pmatrix}0\-3519539\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
yeah, but the point is
we've shown that this transformation cant be one-to-one
(sorry, using synonyms out of habit)
since it has to have a 0 entry
It's k, Im more used to saying injective than one-to-one
Those were the terms I used to use back in my home country
So dw about it
if you want to think about it as a matrix, it's like the transformation had an entire row that was just 0s
$T\begin{pmatrix}x\y\z\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\0&0&0\0&0&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x\y\z\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
Yeah that makes sense
and as you can see, since it has an entire row that's just 0s, it also has an entire column thats just 0s
(since its square)
and actually that hints at our solution for part 3
But how did u know u had to find a k scalar and not some summation or combination of the two for example?
Is it just a practice-born sense? xd
well, that's a valid question
i was only really considering one possibility to show that it wasnt always one-to-one
but it might still be sometimes one-to-one, maybe if we choose something else
that said, we have a bit of an advantage here:
T is linear
that means that it "distributes over addition" so to speak
so recalling my earlier equation
$T\begin{pmatrix}6\-4\3\end{pmatrix} = T\begin{pmatrix}4\-4\3\end{pmatrix} + T\begin{pmatrix}2\-1\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
we can actually rewrite this as
$T\begin{pmatrix}6\-4\3\end{pmatrix} = T\left(\begin{pmatrix}4\-4\3\end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix}2\-1\0\end{pmatrix}\right)$
uh
texit?
Namington:
that is
One more question, the operation u take in summation, and the one that is defined by the exercise: T(c)=u+v are different things right?
$T\begin{pmatrix}6\-4\3\end{pmatrix} = T\begin{pmatrix}6\-5\3\end{pmatrix}$
texit is being slow π¦
Namington:
uh you mean in part 1 and part 2
well, part 2 is a special case of part 1
but yeah
Okay
theyre distinct
Sry, the T(c)=u+v rly confuses me
I know its an entry
But I still confuse it as the transformation rule
anyway, we now have $T\begin{pmatrix}6\-4\3\end{pmatrix} = T\begin{pmatrix}6\-5\3\end{pmatrix}$
bleh
Namington:
there's one more trick we can pull: try and put both of these on the same side of the equation
$T\begin{pmatrix}6\-4\3\end{pmatrix} - T\begin{pmatrix}6\-5\3\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}0\0\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
and again, we know T is linear, so we can do this:
$T\left(\begin{pmatrix}6\-4\3\end{pmatrix} - \begin{pmatrix}6\-5\3\end{pmatrix}\right) = \begin{pmatrix}0\0\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
and evaluating that subtraction:
$T\begin{pmatrix}0\-1\0\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}0\0\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
Mhm
And then we try to find T so that it satisfies it
Ofc we fail to do that
But this makes it heaps clearer
well, there is a way to satisfy it
but no matter what, it will involve "not using" that -1 at all
since if you "add" the -1 to any of the entries
well, you have no way to get rid of it
unless you multiply it by 0
(in which case, you might as well not have had it at all)
the point there being: the linear transformation T necessarily "ignores" the middle entry
Yeah, in order to keep it injective we have to avoid 0
no matter what we set the middle entry of the vector to be
it cant have any effect
on what we get out of T
Oki
so we know T must not be one-to-one
since changing the middle entry cant change our answer
so (0, 5, 0) and (0, 194398, 0) will be mapped to the same thing by T
Gotcha
Yep
now as for part 3, to tie this up
you may or may not have seen a theorem that deals with exactly this, but since you're being asked this question
i'm assuming you havent seen the theorem
there are a variety of ways to prove it, but here's one that may appeal to you, particularly if you like thinking in matrices:
since $T$ is a transformation from $\bR^3$ to $\bR^3$, we know it can be represented by a $3 \times 3$ matrix
Namington:
and in terms of matrices, we know the matrix of an onto function has no 0 rows (after row reducing)
and similarly the matrix of a one-to-one function has no 0 columns after row reducing
so basically, what we actually want to determine is:
if a 3x3 row-reduced matrix has no 0 rows, how many 0 columns does it have?
but remember that we're dealing with a row-reduced matrix here
so it looks something like:
$\begin{pmatrix}a&?&?\0&b&?\0&0&c\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
since there has to be a pivot in each row
(a, b, c)
and those can't be 0
(since otherwise it'd be a 0 row)
but hey, would you look at that
we've "filled in" our columns "for free"
i.e. if a 3x3 matrix has no 0 rows (after being row reduced), it has no 0 columns
[i'm assuming you know what "row reduced" means]
Yeah ofc
in other words, we've just justified:
So wt ur saying is, lemme put this into pleb vocab
if a 3x3 matrix is onto, it is one-to-one
Alright so, just to recap in pleb
yeah sure
Because the matrix is always consistent
Since it's onto
Then there's no space for any non-pivot column
basically, but there's a caveat here
this only applies to square matrices
thankfully, we know the matrix is square, since its a transformation R^3 -> R^3
So, say this went from R^3 -> R^4
i.e. it should take in a vector with 3 entries, and spit out a vector with 3 entries
right, if we changed the domain/codomain to not agree with each other, this would no longer hold
since the matrix would not be square
and indeed we wouldn't be able to draw any conclusions about whether a function is one-to-one based on whether it's onto
Would we not have enough info or would it def not be injective?
Im guessing the former
AH oke
oh wait
hold on R^3 to R^4
that means we'd have a 4x3 matrix
which means it can't be onto; its straight up impossible
indeed, you can never have an onto function from R^n to R^m when m > n
and simialrly, you can never have a one-to-one function when m < n
sorry, i should clarify linear function
(this kind of goes out the window if you allow infinite dimensional vector spaces though, but i'd imagine you're not really dealing with those)
No not yet at least
anyway, to summarize, the answers are C, A, B respectively
unless ive made a big brain fart haha
kinda sleep deprived
No, ur correct
Immense thanks <3
Im screensharing w a friend rn to solve these, as we are in the same class and we were both equally confused, so u have his thanks too :p
note that i've been kind of bad and have been leaving off the word "linear" when i say function/transformation
but everything i say only applies to linear stuff, naturally
for example, there is a surjection from R into R^2, but it's not linear
Otherwise we'd be bending stuff
I'd imagine
It would be bending right?
xd
I guess if u took x->x^3
Thatd be injective but non-linear
Actually itd be a bijection
If Im correct in my supposition
But non-linear since I'm multiplying by a variable
Havent taken these, so Im just supposing thats wt itd be like
Anyway, my brain is loaded as it is alrdy
:p
I have one more problem
If thats okay
This one is shorter
Looks like an IQ test question if Im gonna be honest
(a more interesting result is that there's a bijection between R and R^n for any n, but that's more a part of analysis, and is a bit complicated to explain)
anyway, sure
well, we know that 2 green + 1 red + 1 blue = $29
and similarly, 1 blue + 1 green + 2 red = $27
etc
so this suggests that we should be setting up a system of linear equations
Jesus
ah haha
I was like
HOW CAN I DO THIS IF I DONT HAVE A SYSTEM
Cuz I was thinking, darn, why cant I have the prices of rows
But of the entire matrix
Im retarded
Just assign shapes to variables and solve the system, thx xDDD
Lul so retarded :v
Im embarrassed
Ive done Calculus 2
And I cant solve this.
No worries, it happens
though just an FYI, we'd rather you not use "retarded" as a pejorative on this server
In my case, I think it applies :p
(and calling yourself negative things is never productive in any case)
Ur right on that
everyone makes "dumb mistakes/misinterpretations" that they should really know better than every once in a while
the key thing is being able to fix & learn from them
not being 100% perfect all the time
Tell that to mom n dad :p
(sadly, the emphasis on grades and tests in the education system encourages people to value perfection over improvement...)
(but alas, solving THAT problem is probably a bit more complicated than this server can handle)
@waxen jacinth psst hey you
Try 3Blue1Brown's video playlist on Linear Algebra, it's super good and really concretes how to understand LinAlg because hardly anyone teaches it well imo and it's not your fault and you're chill β€οΈ
Ngl, disappointed this channel doesn't have it pinned.
Can some one fix the problem from the 2nd to the 3rd inequality here:
<@&286206848099549185> (I post about this yesterday, so I hope it is OK for me to use the tag π
Could it be that P is supposed to be a substochastic matrix instead? I don't quite know all the terms, but some light googling for the definitions makes that rephrasing somewhat likely...
yes
this is also what I mean! @eager burrow
OH!! I have written it wrong!
π¦
Yeeeee
But P is sub-stochastic
I have come with another attempt. I can write it down it you have time.
I'm cookin' right now but I might give it a thonk afterwards
Great. I do not have time to cook. xD
Assume that $A=(a_{ij}){i,j=1,\ldots,n}$ is a sub-intensity matrix and $\eta = \max_i (a{ii}) > 0$. I will like to show that $P=I+\eta^{-1}A$ is a sub-stochastic matrix. \
By assumption: $a_{ij},i\neq j$ and $a_{ii} \le \sum_{i\neq j= 1}^n a_{ij},i=1,\ldots,n$. It is obvious that $\eta^{-1}A$ is a sub-intensity matrix also, i. e. $\eta^{-1}a_{ij},i\neq j$ and $\eta^{-1}a_{ii} \le \sum_{i\neq j= 1}^n \eta^{-1}a_{ij},i=1,\ldots,n$. This implies that $0\le - \sum_{i\neq j= 1}^n \eta^{-1}a_{ij},i=1,\ldots,n$ or equivalent thatn $1 + \sum_{i\neq j= 1}^n \eta^{-1}a_{ij} \le 1$. So now I have that \eta^{-1}a_{ij},i\neq j and $1 + \sum_{i\neq j= 1}^n \eta^{-1}a_{ij} \le 1$. What is left now to show that $\eta^{-1}a_{ii}$ and that $1 + \sum_{ j= 1}^n \eta^{-1}a_{ij} \le 1$. If I can show this then I'm done. But I can not show this, so I need some help for that.
I'm still not 100% sure on the definition, but can't you do your inequality by just adding 1 on both sides?
If you want sub-stochastic-ness, you want your inequality to be (.....) <= 1, rathern than (....) <= 0 anyway
So then it seems like you'd end up with the right thing
So, you wouldn't get the inequality that you've written down, but instead you'd get the inequality plus a one on the right side.
@eager burrow thanks, but I got it! π
i had forgotten that eta = max (a_ii)... in my mind I just thoght eta > 0 lolo
Here are my attempts. For question 10. Let $v$ be an eigenvector corresponding to the eigenvalue $\lambda$. Thus, $Tv=\lambda v$. Since T is invertible, $v=T^{-1}(\lambda v)=\lambda T^{-1}(v) \Longleftrightarrow \frac{1}{\lambda}v=T^{-1}(v), \lambda \neq 0$.
Otoro:
For question 11, Let $\lambda \in F$ be an eigenvalue for S and T. Then let v be the corresponding eigenvector with $\lambda$. Then $Tv=\lambda v \Rightarrow S(Tv)=S(\lambda v)=\lambda Sv=\lambda^{2}v$. If $Sv=\lambda v \Rightarrow TSv=T(\lambda v)=\lambda Tv=\lambda^{2}v$. Thus they both have the same eigenvalue.
Otoro:
For question 12, Suppose $T \in L(V)$ such that $\forall v \in V, Tv=\lambda v$, then $(T-\lambda I)v=0$. Since $v \neq 0$, this implies that $T-\lambda I=0 \Rightarrow T=\lambda \cdot I$. (Scalar multiple of the identity)
Here are my attempts. For question 10. Let $v$ be an eigenvector corresponding to the eigenvalue $\lambda$. Thus, $Tv=\lambda v$. Since T is invertible, $v=T^{-1}(\lambda v)=\lambda T^{-1}(v) \Longleftrightarrow \frac{1}{\lambda}v=T^{-1}(v), \lambda \neq 0$.
@old flame correct
Otoro:
@native rampart ty !
For question 11, Let $\lambda \in F$ be an eigenvalue for S and T. Then let v be the corresponding eigenvector with $\lambda$. Then $Tv=\lambda v \Rightarrow S(Tv)=S(\lambda v)=\lambda Sv=\lambda^{2}v$. If $Sv=\lambda v \Rightarrow TSv=T(\lambda v)=\lambda Tv=\lambda^{2}v$. Thus they both have the same eigenvalue.
@old flame T and S need not have the same eigenvalues. Take an eigen value of T as say,a and eigen value of S as say,b.
Do something very similar to your method
ah alright, good point
So if $\lambda_1$ for S and $\lambda_2$ for T, then at the end would have $\lambda_1\lambda_2$ instead
Otoro:
Wait,there could be an eigenvector of ST that is not an eigenvector of S or T
Don't use this method. I don't think you can prove it via this method)
Lambda could be different for different v
so for q12 should it be something like, $Tv_i=\lambda_i v_i, \forall v_i \in V$. Then $(T-\lambda_i I)v=0$. Since $v \neq 0$, $T-\lambda_i I = 0, \forall i$. Thus, $T=\lambda_i I$. Then $\lambda_1=\lambda_2, \lambda_2=\lambda_3,...$. Therefore, $\lambda_1=...=\lambda_n=...$ Hence, $T= \lambda_1 I$. Which is a scalar multiple of the identity
why ?
Take $T-\lambda_1$I = 0 . This would mean Tv=$\lambda_1$ v for all v,but then there may be a v such that Tv=$\lambda_2$ v such that the lambdas are not equal
DrunkenDrake:
Show there cannot be 2 distinct eigenvalues
oh, if that happens, then what does that imply though
That would imply all vectors have same eigenvalue and T is scaled identity
oh
ok
got some ideas for q12
Suppose $\exists i,j \in {1,...,dim V}$, such that $\lambda_i \neq \lambda_j$. Then $Tv_i=\lambda_iv_i$ and $Tv_j=\lambda_jv_j$. Subtracting both equations, $T(v_i-v_j)=\lambda_iv_i-\lambda_jv_j$. Since $v_i-v_j \in V$, but it is not an eigenvalue, since there is no $\lambda \in F$, such that $T(v_i-v_j)=\lambda(v_i-v_j)$. Therefore, contradiction and thus all the eigenvalues are the same $\Rightarrow (T-\lambda I)v=0,\Rightarrow T=\lambda I$, since $v \neq 0$.
Otoro:
@native rampart because you cant factor out some scalar for the maths
I could argue that for the case of $v_i \neq v_j$, then there is no $\lambda$
Otoro:
oh if I factor one, for example, $\lambda_i(v_i-\frac{\lambda_j}{\lambda_i}v_j)$. Then $v_i-v_j$ is not an eigenvector
is this the argument ? same for factoring out $\lambda_j$, so WLOG
which does not satisfy the condition of all v in V being a eigenvector of T
The eigenvalue of that term could be some other number,say k
Take $T(v_i-v_j)=k(v_i-v_j) and use T(v_i-v_j)= \lambda_i v_i - \lambda_j v_j $ to show what you need
DrunkenDrake:
v_i and v_j will be linearly independent (supposing different eigenvalues) so,(k-lambda i) =(k- lambda j)=0
so I guess something like this then
from the definition of T, $\exists k \in F$, such that $k(v_i-v_j)=\lambda_iv_i-\lambda_jv_j$. Since $\lambda_i \neq \lambda_j$, then comparing coefficients, $k=\lambda_i$ and $k=\lambda_j$. Contradiction
Otoro:
(Don't forget to mention this is because we assumed v_i and v_j to have different eigenvalues)
Otherwise,we might not have been able to compare coefficients
Otoro:
Yes
I thought I mentioned it
Well,nvm it's fine to use that theorem implicitly
ohhhh ok no problem, which theorem though ?
Eigenvectors of different eigenvalues linearly independent
ohhhhh I see then
I have never learnt that
(replace matrices with operators)
so Im guessing your hint is that ?
are you saying I can use q8 immediately as a result ?
I mean, you still have to show it
Let's say (TS-xI) is non invertible,this theorem tells us (ST-xI) is also non invertible
i.e.,x is an eigenvalue of both TS and ST
noted, I will get back to you on this later thanks
btw, I just attempted q13, here it is. Let $(v_1,...,v_{dim V -1})$ be a basis for $U \subset V$, where $dim U = dim V -1$. Let $r \in U$, then writing it as linear combination, $r = a_1v_1+...+a_{dim V -1}v_{dim V -1}$, then $T(r)=a_1Tv_1+...+a_{dim V-1}Tv_{dim V -1}=a_1\lambda_1v_1+...+a_{dim V -1}\lambda_{dim V-1}v_{dim V-1}$. Since T is an operator for $T_{U}, \forall U$ with $dim V-1$, then this implies that $\lambda_1=...=\lambda_{dim V-1}$, which therefore concludes that T is a scalar multiple of the identity
Otoro:
detail : each $\lambda_i$ is itself an eigenvalue, but since $T$ is an operator for all U, the set of basis is invariant under T as well, thus they all have to be equal
Otoro:
Do you know why v1,v2... Should be eigen vectors of T?
(If you show that,you could use that to show all vectors in V are eigenvectors and use q12)
You mean q12 could be helpful ?
Yes
Ah alright I will look into it and get back to you later ty
Anton S.:
Compile Error! Click the
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How can I solve $(X^T\cdot B^T)^{-1}=(C-AX)^T$ for $X$, where $X$ is a matrix?
Anton S.:
$(AB)^T = B^T A^T$, so $(C-AX)^T = C^T - X^T A^T$, $(X^T\cdot B^T)^{-1} = (B^T)^{-1}\cdot (X^T)^{-1} = (B^{-1})^T \cdot (X^{-1})^T$
ConfusedReptile:
So then you can transpose both sides and get:
$$
X^{-1} \cdot B^{-1} = C - A X
$$
ConfusedReptile:
Is there an easy method to see if a matrix is normal?
Maybe with char equations?
How so
If T has eigen value c,T* will have eigen value c*
Well that test only tells you when a matrix is not normal
But I guess yes that's a good method to keep in mind
Are there operators with this property,which aren't normal?
DrunkenDrake:
Ah
Well
Actually I think every operator has that property
It's that every eigenvector of T is an eigenvector of T* with eigenvalue c*
I think you are mistaking T* for transpose of (T*)
Isn't T* the conjugate transpose of T over finite dimensional space?
Yes
And if T is normal then every eigenvector of T is an eigenvector of T* with eigenvalue c*
Yes
And for every operator T, c is an eigenvalue of T iff c* is an eigenvalue of T*
I proved this assuming finite dimensional space I think
So,Why are normal operators special?
Because of spectral theorem?
ok

But T**=T
So you can just reverse it
$\text{null}(T^-\overline{\lambda}I)=(\text{range}(T-\lambda I))^\perp$, so if $\text{null}(T-\lambda I)$ is nontrivial then $\dim\text{range}(T-\lambda I)<\dim V$ so \dim(\text{null}(T^-\overline{\lambda}I))>0$
I know it's T T* =T* T
Whoever:
TT*=T*T is normal
how to find the determinant of a 3x3 matrix where every component is a block matrix
there is an easy formula for 2x2
but are there any generalizations?
generalizing 2x2 to nxn? no, just look up laplace expansion or leibniz formula
you can also consider row/col ops and their predictable effects on det
wait laplace's law doesn't hold for block matrices
you can't have like
$\begin{pmatrix}A & B&C \ D&E&F \ G&H&I \end{pmatrix}
as
Jay007:
Compile Error! Click the
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Jay007:
again these are block matrices
i can't use a laplace expansion on them because i have no info about the individual components of the block matrices
i simply know what they are
with a 2x2 I was able to use the determinant formula
$\det\begin{pmatrix}A& B\ C&D \end{pmatrix}= \det(D)*\det(AB^{-1} C)$
Jay007:
but it's not applicable now
how you applied laplace makes 0 sense, and that's not a formula for a 2x2 of blocks
laplace & leibniz still hold, you write em out in terms of individual entries, not the blocks. but if you got no info on the blocks then they're useless
how you applied laplace makes 0 sense, and that's not a formula for a 2x2 of blocks
@gray dust this was my point. that expansion makes no sense and that's what I thought you were suggesting. on the note of the 2x2 of blocks, iirc it only holds if the matrix is invertible
laplace & leibniz still hold, you write em out in terms of individual entries, not the blocks. but if you got no info on the blocks then they're useless
yep as i thought. thanks for helping anyways
for that 2x2, its det is det(AD-CB) given A,C commute, A invertible. and no prob
sorry if D*** is invertible, then the formula holds
can anyone give solution for this?
anyone?
Try row reducing the augmented matrix
@wintry steppe answer is b right?
π
hmm fair enough
ok I'll try
@neat sable did you figure out your answer
ok what did you try
took x as (x1 x2 x3)
thats a good first step
then multiplied them and made algebraic expressions
well what do you notice about row 1 and row 3 in the matrix
yep
rows
so we have 2 equations and 3 unknowns
what happens if you have more unknowns than equations
yeah thats a problem
but dont we have same x1
so we kinda cancel them with no problem?
and left with 2 unknowns
ah no
xD
yeah
and you are left with 3 unknowns and 2 equations
ok
which means do you know
like as a general rule of thumb
if I asked you to solve x + y = 10
how many solutions
infinite
got it
does that make sense?
yeah yeah

np
you're a great mentor
hey btw generally good ediquette here is to ask for help not solutions
I know you werent trying to be rude more people will want to help you learn
instead of jsut giving answers
glad i could help
ya sorry I am new hereπ
nothing to apologize for
π
hang on let me double check this solution to make sure
ok
cause i just eyeballed
Actually I also want to know when this could be 1 unique solution and no solution
lemme try first
no solution when we got 2 similar equations but getting to different answers
ok
only 1 solution when we get same number of unknowns and number of equations
am I right?
yes
not necessarily
where can this fail?
divide by 0
for example
cases
or that yea
sorry I was trying to stay general carla is obviously right
algebra
just for these types of questions
thats just HS algebra and practice probably khan academy would do well
hang on did you try to solve the matrix
actually I have an exam day after tomorrow and similar question to that has been since 2018
My algebra is okish level.I can understand basic to intermediate level.
practice your algebra
I have to go study my own stuff
btw i was right the answer is c
like slimvesus told me to use row reducing method
thank you
haha
which row reduction should we do
row reducing the augmented matrix
ok man
or google gaussian elimnation for solving systems of equations
going right away
good luck!
Thanks for the help
youll get it im sure
haha Lets see

Can anyone tell me if leaving this as RREF is okay since I cant eliminate any more numbers or to be RREF do I have to move numbers as far right as possible
a leading entry must be the only nonzero entry in its column
What do you mean?
Do you mean for row echelon or reduced? I tried to reduce it making it only a 1 put ended up with this
rref
excl adding the constants
THIS is rref
Ohh
Its already in RREF?
I wasn't sure if I could go any further with it since I know rref usually looks like
there are rref criteria to have handy
See I get this The leading entry in each row must be the only non-zero number in its column.
But I can't arrive to that if you get me
It doesn't look possible, I'm not sure how any one row can only have a leading one and have only zero entries in rest
I've done rref but this just can't be solved because no 1 by itself in row 4
Well, at least I think so
It just looks impossible to me
And question states to put it into rref
there are no leading entries to speak of in 0 rows
a leading entry must be the only nonzero entry in its column
only applies to rows that have leading entries
Ah okay thank you I think I get you
Quick question: For two matrices A and B, when is it true that dim(Ker(AB))=dim(Ker(BA))?
when they commute
When one matrix is invertible
I need to show these two determinants are equal/equivalent. How would you go about doing it? Is it possible to transpose or apply elementary matrix multiplication to switch rows/columns?
just use commutative property?
hmm, how?
wym commutative property 
just show generally where an inverse exists you can switch the elemnts around how they are here
you can switch rows and cols
well
switch rows by pulling the last row up
then switch cols by pulling the last col to the left
that's what i tried to do but my teacher told me the moves were illegal
why
bc the dimensions of the block does not fit
i mean you can do it as a sequence of n-1 row switches
am i dumb 
yes niku
oh okay
@severe cedar do n-1 adjacent row switches, pulling the [x, 1] row up one by one until it's at the top
then do n-1 adjacent col switches, pulling the now [1; -y'] column to the left until it's at the very left
the total switch count (2n-2) is even so the sign of the det does not change
or will your teacher reject that too
i dont understand why what i posted is wrong
x and y are row vectors
this is what i tried to flex, but it was rejected given that (1) the dimensions of my elementary matrices does not fit the dimensions of the blocks in the block matrix (2) the dimensions of the matrix after the second equal sign does not fit
ah
you need a different matrix sfl
uhh
n by n identity padded with a zero row and col on the left and bottom, with a 1 in the corner
after the first equal sign i mean
$\bmqty{\bd{0}^T & I_n \ 1 & \bd{0}}$
Ann:
yeah that's what i thought
this one will have a determinant of (-1)^(n-1)
but how about the second one
if i use the same matrix there they won't be completely equal so to speak
then i will have I_n instead of 1 in the bottom right corner
bottom left
hmm yeah
that makes sense
however my teacher rejects the block matrix after the first equal sign
$\begin{pmatrix}
-y^{T} & I_n \
1 & x \
\end{pmatrix}.$
sfl:
wym
x and y are row vectors, so y' is a col vector
no?
what does your teacher say is wrong with this matrix
your teacher rejects one but not the other??
$$\begin{pmatrix}
I_n & -y^{T} \
x & 1 \
\end{pmatrix}$$
sfl:
this one is well defined right
my teacher at least left a "Good!" comment on it
what
yeah
what i am basically trying to do here is to show that det(I_n +xy^T)=det(I_m +y^Tx) = 1+y^Tx, by using block matrices and the fact that the determinant for a block matrix {A B; C D} = det(A)det(D-CA^(-1)B)
3.1-3.3
so obviously i can use the relation det(A)*det(D-CA^(-1)B) = det(D)*det(A-BD^(-1)C) as shown in the proof i linked
the problem is i have not shown the property det(D)*det(A-BD-1C)
and i don't think you're supposed to use that fact here
but some other technique
Hello everyone, if a set of vectors are linearly independent, say {u1, u2, u3, u4}, is it true that {u1, u2} is linearly independent as well?
Yes
thanks!
definition of linear independence of ${u_1,\dots,u_n}$ is that:
$$
\forall \alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n (\alpha_1 u_i + \alpha_2 u_2 + \dots + \alpha_n u_n = 0 \implies \alpha_1, \dots, \alpha_n = 0)
$$
ConfusedReptile:
in other words, it's impossible to represent a zero-vector as a linear combination of these vectors except by having all the coefficients be zero.
From this follows that it's also impossible to do that for any subset of ${u_1,\dots,u_n}$ - otherwise you could use this to prove that the larger set is also not linearly independent.
ConfusedReptile:
Thanks for the detailed explanation! I somehow thought there would be a case whereby a linear combination of {u1, u2} would have a zero-vector without coefficients being zero (non-trivial) once it's taken out of {u1, u2, u3, u4}.
suppose {u1,u2} isn't linearly independent. Then:
$$
\exists \alpha_1\exists \alpha_2 (\alpha_1 u_1 + \alpha_2 u_2 = 0)
$$
(and the alphas aren't both zero)
But then:
$$
\alpha_1 u_1 + \alpha_2 u_2 + 0 u_3 + \dots + 0 u_n= 0
$$
so the larger set isn't linearly independent either
ConfusedReptile:
this makes great sense!
Okay so I am probably going to regret asking this because I feel very dumb
But my pset says to take a generic jordan block matrix J
and write it as J=I+N where N is upper triangular with trivial diagonal
is this even possible? Don't we at least need like
\lambda I + N
oh wait
i can prove that is true
i wonder if it was intended that we prove that as well. its weird how its written
whatever hahaha
wait no i cant prove that
they have to be roots of unity but not 1
this is weird
im working over C π¦
hey there
can anyone help me with this one ?
i believe the a) is y= 4 but that's as far as i've gotten
i can figure out c) myslef i just don't know how to tackle b)
<@&286206848099549185>
Can someone please help me
What method do you guys use to solve 4x4 determinants
By hand or by computers/calculators?
By hand
Well
I guess I could just use my calculator
Idk might need to show work
So safe to know by hand
I think the determinant of minors expression is easier than the sign of permutation definition but that's all I can really say. Never had to do 4x4 determinants except for good-looking ones.
Honestly just Laplace expansion
It's a bit of work, but not impossible to do
If there's a row of almost all 0 then Laplace is an obvious choice
Correct ? (Problem + solution)
Remember the definition of exp for matrices:
I'm not sure about the argument from going to 2nd to 3rd line
Diagonalizable does not mean A has n distinct eigenvalues
It means there is a basis of eigenvectors
For counterexample: consider the identity matrix. The only eigenvalue is 1 but it is clearly diagonalizable since it is diagonal
Diagonalizable does not mean A has n distinct eigenvalues
@pallid rampart But that is what is said in the problem:
So I just played along
So the formulation of the problem is wrong? lol
i'm pretty sure this still works for diagonisable matrices that don't have n distinct eigenvalues
Oh, interesting π€
Yeah it still works
But the solution is actually correct no matter the formulation of the problem, rihgt?
Yeah
Also should've said x is a real number
Because I originally thought x is a vector and then exp(Dx) would've made no sense
yes, but that fact is stated 3 pages previusoly lmao
Oh oof
Do basically the same thing with the proof you wrote above
Nonononono
okokoko
Oh, okay. mhh...
You can only distribute the exponent when multiplication is commutative
Which it very much isn't for matrix multiplication
oh, yesyes
But still you can find something very nice about it
$(VDV\inv)^2=VDV\inv VDV\inv=VDDV\inv=VD^2V\inv$
Whoever:
$(VDV\inv)^3=VDV\inv VDV\inv VDV\inv=VDDDV\inv=VD^3V\inv$
Whoever:
Can you see a pattern
This is the very reason why diagonalization is important
Because raising the matrix to the nth power is very easy
And raising a diagonal matrix to the nth power is also very easy
i'm probably going to use that when implementing this in python
nice
How do I put the sum between V and V^-1?
How have I just put V and V^-1 arround the sum?
@pallid rampart sorry for the tag.
Well you are allowed to just do that
says who?
$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}VD^nV\inv=V\br{\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}D^n}V\inv$
Whoever:
yes, but what means?
Whoever:
So $\sum AB_n=A\sum B_n$
Whoever:
And x^n/n! is a scalar so it commutes with everything
oh, yes! this was it!
Lmao alright
I guess if you want to be like more rigorous, you can write
$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}VD^nV\inv=\lim_{k\to\infty}\sum_{n=0}^k\frac{x^n}{n!}VD^nV\inv=V\br{\lim_{k\to\infty}\sum_{n=0}^k\frac{x^n}{n!}D^n}V\inv=V\br{\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}D^n}V\inv$
Whoever:
oh,Okay,
That's if you don't believe you can pull out a "constant" from an infinite sum
only if it converges
π₯
Problem 2.3:
I have used 3 days on this.
My epsilon is weak.
drunkeDrake what are you doing lmao !!
But everything changed when the fire nation attacked
Don't be silly @chilly solstice Ξ΅ is e, and e is basically 3 and 3 as basically pi, ergo that whole thingy there in part 3 is obviously less than pi....you can just tell by looking at it!!1!
(I'm so sorry, I'm of no help)
I do not believe that there is a problem that no one on this can't solve
Here's a problem: Find a problem that no one can solve
powerful talk
Here's a problem: Find a problem that no one can solve
@pallid rampart create an equation that solves roots of quintic (5th degree) polynomials
no googling
Let $f(a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4)$ be the function that gives the roots of the polynomial $a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^3+a_4x^4+x^5$. Then $f$ is the answer
Whoever:
Okay that made me laugh
I mean
One such as the quadratic formula, I mean
The statement is that you can't find an equation in terms of the radicals
That function exist, anyways
Here's a problem: Find a problem that no one can solve
@pallid rampart
Continuum Hypothesis
First we created the solution to $x+a=0$, then to $ax=b$, then to $x^2=a$, then to $x^n=a$, then to $x^2=-1$
Whoever:
@pallid rampart I was just messing with you. A quintic root equation is not only one that none of us can solve, but one that no one can solve. It's been mathematically proven that no such equation/formula can't exist
Can I post a proof to see if it makes sense
Lmao I don't think you get what I said
can't*
Yes I do know that lmao
It's like, there exist a function that choose every prime
Find it, hahaha
f : N -> P
I believe this is more indicative of this general convo direction lol
I'm with it though
hey, need some help with this, is the basis the span?
a basis is a spanning set that is linearly independent
Yes@wintry steppe
what textbook are you using zynoZII?
does this mean dim(W) is 4?
@half forge linear algebra: concepts and techniques on euclidean spaces
how did you know the dim was 4
@warped garden whats the name of the author?
The third column is a combination of the first and second
So you can exclude it
Dim(w) = 3
you don't need to verify any of that, you can get the answer directly from the RREF.
it was a silly mistake, thanks for your help guys!
π
just realise there's a non-pivot, silly me
i think you're overcomplicating it ngl there's a way easier proof
I use induction bc I've only demonstrated the case for nonzero constant polynomials that the degrees of the images of T and T inverse are the same as the degree of the polynomial
So thought I would build it from there
are you not allowed to use the result that dim T(V) = dim V for T an injective map and V a findim space?
But the space of all polynomials is infinite
i never said you had to consider T(the entire space)
write $V_n := \mathrm{span}{1,x,\dots,x^n}$. (note that $\dim V_n = n+1$.)
now assume there exists a polynomial $p^$ with $\deg(Tp^) < \deg(p^) =: n^$. clearly then we have $T(V_{n^}) \subseteq V_{n^-1}$ (since ${1, x, \dots, x^{n^-1}, p^}$ is a basis for $V_{n^*}$) but this contradicts $T$ being injective
you haven't answered me on this tho
are you not allowed to use the result that dim T(V) = dim V for T an injective map and V a findim space?
cause maybe your prof doesn't want you to use that
Ann:
fixed a typo
Believe it or not I do this for fun lol I'm not in school
oh ok
So I come here for feedback which I appreciate btw
I dont see the contradiction in your proof
why does the span of the columns of a matrix change when you reduce it (go to echelon form)
row operations preserve spans of rows, but there's no guarantee they preserve spans of columns
consider, for example, $\begin{pmatrix}1\1\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
clearly the span of this column is the span of $\begin{pmatrix}1\1\end{pmatrix}$, i.e. all matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix}a\a\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
but upon row reduction, we get $\begin{pmatrix}1\0\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
and the span of this column is certainly different
it's the matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix}a\0\end{pmatrix}$, not those of the form $\begin{pmatrix}a\a\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
@stark acorn there is maybe an easier method, but here is mine :
If it works for any vectors, it works for a=3.x and b=2sqrt(2).x +2sqrt(2).y with (x,y) the canonic base
What does canonic mean
Oh it's maybe only a thing in my language
The standard base of RΒ²
$\overrightarrow{a} =3\overrightarrow {x} $ and $\overrightarrow{b} = 2\sqrt{2}\overrightarrow {x} + 2\sqrt{2}\overrightarrow {y} $
Svet L'octogone:
@stark acorn
When you draw your vectors, you draw them in a base right?
yi
$\vec{x} \ \text{and}\ \vec{y}$ are just vectors of the standard base of RΒ² that you use probably all the time
Svet L'octogone:
yeah
How would this formula change if b was negative:
just use the negative values?
would it be - [ |a| |b| sin(theta) ]
I have A x -B
why dont you just distribute the negative into the vector
and use the new vector as b
?
can i see what you are trying to do?
just its magnitude
Still tryng to do this one
i multiplied eveerything out
and was left with (a x -b) + (b x 2a)
guess who solved the super hard question from before ?
https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/540211747613704221/762378570772512768
chasing in on three days of labour @pallid rampart
@raw sand
How do one check if A is diagonizable? It should be simple, so it can be implemented in a Python.
check for each eigenvalue that the dimension of the eigenspace is equal to the multiplicity of the eigenvalue perhaps
Thanks!
what is your latex code
it should work with
Let $A = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$
\begin{equation*}
A =\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 1\\
\end{pmatrix}
\end{equation*}
\end{statement}```
don't put it in an equation environment if you want the matrix to be inline
M(\mathbb{R})
thank you
You're welcome
I can't think of another way to solve this besides creating a dummy matrix A = [a b c; d e f; g h i] and setting up a system of equations to manually find a,b,c,d,e,f,g,h,i
is there an easier/more time efficient way of solving this?
π€
usually when i solve problems like this i solve by hand
like finding the elements' matrix or something like that
yeah my initial thought as well
but doing it by hand takes way too long. i'm thinking there's probably a trick I'm not seeing here
@wintry steppe thank you so much I have no idea whatβs wrong
@warm kite i can solve it using physics lol
but that probably won't help too much lmao
@vernal pebble haha I know there is an equation, I wrote it there but my teacher wan#yes it solved the trig way
And idk what Iβm doing wrong
@warm kite is there no time given?
Nope
Thatβs all the q says
I know the speed is (c1 + c2)^1/2
@wintry steppe +
?
@warm kite
I found it i guess
first I did: Voy = Vox (velocity speed of x is equal to velocity speed of y, since tg(45Β°) = 1)
so, by that the entire velocity is:
VΒ² = (Voy)Β² + (Vox)Β² ("vectorialy" it means V = Voy + Vox, since V is initial velocity)
We reach that Vox = 10/t by the definition of velocity (size divided by time)
and our Vox is towards x, and it ends at 10m from 0m
and we find another value by another definition (the definition of acceleration, that give us: V = Vo + at, in this case 0 = Vox - g(t/2), because its displacement is just one half, and due to that the time is one half too, by symmetry)
Hmmmmmmm I still donβt get it lol, the answer is sqrt (980)
@vernal pebble doesn't take too long to do what you said, for instance let your first row be 0 0 1, second row be -1 2 0 and so on
wait i did a mistake there
@warm kite
almost the same
(980)^(1/2) is near 30
that happens
Ohh sorry I meant sqrt 98
so yeah:
7(2)^(1/2) = (49.2)^(1/2) = (98)^(1/2)@warm kite
Wait where e V0y -gt/2 come from
Ohhh yes yes
V - Vo = a.t
V = Vo + at
π
need some help anyone here i can understand the geometry of linear equations
if (2x - y = 0) and ( -x + 2y = 3) how does he plot that in the graph?
please some one help me this is the reason i kinda failed in math i dont wanna do that again
They're equations for lines do you remember how to do those
@halcyon pollen wdym?
how do they plot it man?
let's take some example points
for example, if x = 0, then where should y be on each line?
2x - y = 0, so we replace x with 0
2*0 - y = 0 - y = -y = 0
so -y = 0, i.e. y = 0
as for the other line
-x + 2y = 3, replace the x with 0
-0 + 2y = 2y = 3
2y = 3, so dividing both sides by 2
y = 3/2
so one point of the first line is at (0, 0), and one point on the second line is at (0, 3/2)
we can find another point by using a different x value, say x = 1
then 2x - y = 0 becomes 2 - y = 0
so y = 2
meanwhile, -x + 2y = 3 becomes -1 + 2y = 3, so 2y = 4; i.e. y = 2 again
so our points are (1, 2) and (1, 2)
so, our first line goes through (0,0) and (1,2)
our second line goes through (0, 3/2) and (1/2)
both of these are linear (straight lines), so we can just "connect the dots"
and voila.
my choices of testing where x = 0 and x = 1 were arbitrary
i couldve chosen other points
woah thanks man
that is really great of you
@limber sierra got an doubt tho can you help me?
they solve that linear equations they gave
so the first line gives (0,0) and (0,3/2)
@native rampart Is there any hints on how to start with (I-AB) is invertible, not sure how to continue with this first step
