#linear-algebra
2 messages Β· Page 124 of 1
you can always invert injective functions if you restrict the codomain to the image
but inverting the matrix is the same as doing elimination
so you dont gain anything from it when you only need to do this for a single w
@hollow finch oh i just realized that you were only talking about spaces spanned by 2 vectors right?
then you dont need elimination for the inverse
if $A = \mqty[v_1 & v_2]$ then $(A^\top A) \in \bR^{2 \times 2}$
Flow:
so you can invert that square matrix without elimination
and then your inverse becomes $U = (A^\top A)^{-1} A^\top$
Flow:
$(A^\top A)^{-1}$ is 2x2 so you can just invert it immediately by a formula
Flow:
this might be quite fast to compute
ah crap that was the wrong inverse... nvm then
lol
then it means you would have to do elimination, and i have to learn the difference between left and right 
worked out for my particular example
lol
i think that U works
i thought i did it wrong 
i mean it algebraically checks out
((A^TA)^-1 A^T)Ac=((A^TA)^-1 A^T)w
(A^TA)^-1(A^T A)c=Uw
Ic=Uw
c=Uw
yea lol i was doubting myself so much i constructed a false sanity check
happens to us all
glad you pinged me; I might not have seen it. thats a much better solution than elimination
yea but it only works because A is injective
otherwise the square matrix wouldnt be invertible
that is true
so basically just dont be a dummy and make sure your set of vectors are linearly independent
there is a similar formula to calculate the right sided inverse for a surjective mapping
@Flow ohhhhhhhh, I see. I think my assumption of range S=range T was stopping me from developing, so I guess the main point was to see that STv_1 results in a vector of span v_1
yea
since since we chose v_1 arbitrarily, it applies to all non zero vectors
but for the 0 vector its trivial
T(0) = 0 so you can pick any scalar you want
next step is showing that all vectors get scaled by the same amount
you can take a basis again and know that each basis vector gets scaled by some factor
then see if you can show that all their factors were the same
the key here is that a basis is linearly independent
Could I just ask how do I stop myself from getting stuck from assumptions I've made that's wrong ?
I guess asking is one but is there other methods ?
i guess you should always be skeptical about what you claim
assume everything is false and make sure you can follow the line of reasoning for why something is right from start to end
after a while you will get the hang of it and you wont have to break down arguments into their basic pieces anymore
but if you are new to some topic you should be able to relate every claim you make back to an already proved theorem or an axiom
for example, you didnt give any proof for why "range S=range T" would be true
you just said it would be
Also,Be aware of how your assumptions might help you, supposing they were correct. For example,Your assumption range S being same as range T didn't seem to be useful
Then,check whether your assumptions are correct,as mentioned above
Ah okay thank you
From the above, for $v \in V$, $Tv_i=\lambda_i v_i$, so $Tv=a_1\lambda_1v_1+...+a_n\lambda_nv_n$. As $(v_1,...,v_n)$ are linearly independent $a_1\lambda_1v_1+...+a_n\lambda_nv_n=0$ when $a_1\lambda_1=...=a_n\lambda_n=0$
Otoro:
We know that the $a_i=0$ since the the basis is linearly independent
Otoro:
Yes, but what do we get to know about $\lambda_i$?
DrunkenDrake:
Solution
||Take S(v_1)=v_2,and S(v_i)=0,for other basis vectors||
So a_i(\lambda_m-\lambda_n)=0 ?
Sure thing
I will send it later, not at home now
Thank you very much as well @native rampart
$30<x+y\18<x+z\16<y+z$
madeira:
hi, can i solve this with linear algebra or is this a non-linear algebra?
do i solve this normally?
It is not linear algebra
for this system, is that correct?
$\30+18+16<2x+2y+2z\64<2x+2y+2z\x+y+z>32$
madeira:
or i cant do this because its an inequality
You can do that
But,I don't know what you get from that
Subtraction is not valid
i mean the answer is a region bounded by three planes
well
"answer"
the solution set
@jade mirage is there anything in specific that you're asked to do with these inequalities
Heres the entire proof. Take any $v_1 \in V \setminus {0}$. Extend to the basis $(v_1,...,v_n)$ of $V$ then define S by $S(v_1)=v_1$ and $S(v_i)=0$ for the other basis vectors. Since $ST=TS$, $STv_1=TSv_1=Tv_1$, but $range S = span v_1$ so this implies $range S = {\lambda v_1 \mid \lambda \in F$. For the zero vector $T(0)=0 \dot \lambda$.
Otoro:
Then, take $v \in V$, from the basis $(v_1,...,v_n)$, $v=a_1v_1+ \dots + a_nv_n$, applying T, $Tv=a_1Tv_1+ \dots + a_nTv_n$. From the result above, $Tv_i=\lambda_iv_i$ for $i={1,...,n}, so $Tv=a_1\lambda_1v_1+ \dots + a_n\lambda_nv_n$. As $(v_1,...,v_n)$ are linearly independent, $a_1\lambda_1v_1+ \dots + a_n\lambda_nv_n=0$, when $a_1\lambda_1= \dots = a_n\lambda_n=0$. Since we know $a_1= \dots = a_n=0$, $a_i\lambda_i - a_j\lambda_j=0$, this implies $a_i(\lambda_i-\lambda_j)=0$, therefore, $\lambda_i=\lambda_j$. Hence all the constants $\lambda_i$ are equal. $Tv=\lambda(a_1v_1+ \dots + a_nv_n)=\lambda v$.
you might wanna rework that 2nd part
where though ?
the linear independence argument
whoops typo
Otoro:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
uh okay lets see
I'm looking at how to conclude now
why do you know that a_1 = ... = a_n = 0?
Ok,I thought you saw my solution and concluded that
Because those are the coefficients for the basis and basis is linearly independent
oh sorry, may I ask why $S(v_1)=v_2$ ?
Otoro:
But,a1=0 so the 2 lambdas need not be equal
^
Try substituting it and see
oh okay sure'
Always substitute, when in doubt
but then aren't we redefining S ?
S is arbitrary
We are taking a different S, call it S`
S` will also satisfy the commutative condition
Only T is fixed
one question, for Tv_n, won't it become \lambda v_{n+1}
and that is not in the basis, so do we rewrite it in terms of basis vectors ?
Why?
we have $\dim V=n$ at the start though
Otoro:
S(v1)=v2 and others are mapped to 0
Now,vary the output of v1 to be the other basis vectors
Similarly take S(v2) and vary it across different basis vectors,while mapping others to zero
I mean ,vary S
so we define n S's ?
so we stop at v_{n-1} to v_n ?
Yes
So formally, we would define maps $S_{i}$ where $S(v_i)=v_{i+1}, \forall i={1,...,n-1}$ ?
Otoro:
No,we define maps $S_{i}$ such that $S_{i}(v_1)=v_i $ and $S(v_j)=0,j not 1 ,\forall i$
And repeat with v2 instead of v1 and so on
DrunkenDrake:
ah okay, let me try to continue then
Ok
so similar to the first case, each implies that $Tvi=\lambda_i v_i$ right ?
Otoro:
Yes
so since the $Tv_i$'s are each the span of $v_i$, where $v_i$ are the basis vectors, $Tv_i$ are linearly independent am I right ?
Otoro:
Yes
and hence $a_1\lambda_1= \dots = a_n \lambda_n=0$ yeh ?
Otoro:
Again,what is the point
we need to find lambda ?
Yes,but why does this help?
this shows that T is the map from $v \to \lambda v $?
Otoro:
Doesn't show $\lambda$ is same
DrunkenDrake:
And That's what your statement means
so theres one more thing required to show that right ?
Yea, That's where you use those n maps
alright, let me finish thias
I have to prove that for a matrix C, there exists a basis ${e_1, e_2, ..., e_N}$ such that $(Ce_1=0$ and $Ce_{n+1}=e_n) \iff (C^N = 0$ and $C^{N-1}\neq{0})$
smh:
I've done the forward proof
and I think I know how I would do the converse with Jordan normal form
but the textbook im using hasn't introduced jordan form yet
so there must be a way to show it without the use of jordan normal form, though I can't figure it out
Ok, nvm
Take e,Ce, C^2e...
As a basis
For some e
Show they are linearly independent
And form a basis
@native rampart this ? range T = span v_1 = \dots = span v_n
Well, span v1, span v2 are all different
Do not think of interms of range and span,think in terms of basis vectors and what the transform does to them
the transform scales each of them by a associated scalar
What is TS(e1)?(considering S(e1)=e2,and S(ej)=0 otherwise)
And compute ST(e1)
Equate,and you are done(repeat with other S,varying S(e1))
how do I prove that ||u||-||v||<=||u-v||
should I ask later, it seems like this channel is busy
use the triangle inequality
well yes, but I am clueless where to start
because it looks like the left and right are opposite in this
I think I got an idea
Square both sides and expand
For each $i \in {1,..,n}$, $TS_{i}(v_1)=Tv_i$, whereas $S_{i}Tv_1=S_{i}(\lambda_i v_1)=\lambda_iS_{i}v_1=\lambda_iv_i$. So $\lambda_i v_i=Tv_i$ ?
Otoro:
Don't abstract too much
oh, I was thinking of doing ||u|| = ||(u-v) + v||
take the first case one ?
Yes
but how does it generalise though ?
Just do it first,generalise later
You will get a feel of how it will generalise,if you do a specific case
For each $i \in {1,..,n}$, $TS_{i}(v_1)=Tv_i$, whereas $S_{i}Tv_1=S_{i}(\lambda_i v_1)=\lambda_iS_{i}v_1=\lambda_iv_i$. So $\lambda_i v_i=Tv_i$ ?
@old flame $Tv1$ will be $\lambda_1 v_1$ and $Tv_i$ is $\lambda_i v_i$
DrunkenDrake:
omg I got it finally
lol
is this ok ? So from the above equality, $TSv_1=Tv_2=\lambda_2v_2$ and $STv_1 = S(\lambda_1v_1) = \lambda_1S(v_1)=\lambda_1v_2$. Implying that $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$. Applying this method to every pairs $v_i,v_j$, we obtain an equality of $\lambda_1=\dots=\lambda_n$.
Therefore, $Tv=a_1\lambda_1v_1+ \dots + a_n\lambda_nv_n=\lambda(a_1v_1+ \dots + a_nv_n)=\lambda v$.
Otoro:
You substitute some values
wow this took much longer than expected
Yea,just plug in values
ok wait, so 90% of linear algebra is like this ?
And it works
why though
Well Not 90%,more like 40% the other time is finding a "basis like" thing you care about
Like canonical forms
but isn't guessing the required values difficult ?
like how do you guess in the first place
Why do you think basis vectors exist?
and btw am I done with the question lol ?
basis vectors exists, so that we could represent all the vectors with it
simplifies things ?
Also, everything can be known,if we just take the basis vectors case
substitute ???? im sorry what are you referring to ?
Here,we wanted to know about T
So,we plugged in S such that our process simplifies significantly
A choice would be the one where only 1 basis vector doesn't map to zero,but to a basis vector
(well,Such transforms form a basis of all linear transforms. Proof is homework)
That's our "basis vector" substitution
Also,one for the verification
oh you finished the proof? π
alright
yeah I'm also very glad that I'm done, took way too long imo
eh you will get faster once you figured out some general approaches
I mean, getting $Tv=\lambda v$ is the result right ?
Otoro:
Yes
when do you actually get to know those general approaches ?
you just learned one
by doing more problems ?
Yes
So I guess more struggling then
, not saying that I dislike struggling, cause I enjoy the process to some extent though
Linear algebra is probably the most straightforward
but it does take up so much time
Also, Extremely important
honestly, analysis was even worse for me lol
lol I tried doing analysis too, goddamn
Have you tried group theory?
but could I just ask, is this normal ? or am I just taking too long or not understanding stuff
xd
Well,It's your first time
nope, haven't touched abstract algebra
So, This is normal
you just have to figure out how it works and then it will get much easier
once you understand the structures a bit better
Cause I'm struggling almost in all subjects I try to learn
struggling with math is completely normal
i.e analysis 1, probability theory and this
Well,establish a basis like thing. Solve .
"how it works" hmmm what does this mean though
You will understand once you do more problems
I guess a technique I've learnt from this, is to define some objects in the question ?
Yes
cause when it said TS=ST for every S, I don't know that you could specify
your toolbox for linear algebra isnt that big. you just have basis, linear independence and maybe invariant subspaces
oh, so generally try to use these as an approach to questions yeah ?
That's the gist,the particulars aren't obvious
yea there isnt much you can do :p
but if were like this, then those wouldn't work I guess ? right ?
and the more abstract your setting is, the fewer tools you can use, so that makes the number of possible approaches really small
but doesn't less approaches seems to make starting easier ?
Well,I like to start with an example,and then abstract
ok.... so I guess different preferences of approach for different people ? I will have mines once I do more problems ?
Yes
yeah of course !
please do
but the only source of problems is from textbook, not a ton, so where would you have more ?
alright, i sprinkled in some "(why?)" annotations where i want you to convince yourself of the fact that i can make those claims.
sure thing
but the only source of problems is from textbook, not a ton, so where would you have more ?
@old flame really,not a ton?
Maybe,You should change your book,in that case.
isnt it LA done right?
Math books have plenty of problems
@old flame really,not a ton?
@native rampart for example for this chapter axler has 26
just do problems from other books as well
make a collection of textbooks then ?
and one thing, could I have access to those advanced forums ? I'm starting my first yr maths next week :3
advanced forums?
,i am adv ones
type here ?
oh those channels
yeah those......
yea then just do what drake said
,i am adv ones
,i am adv
usually you would do this in the bot channel
the channels also tell you how to get access
i think its in the description
ah alright thanks
its ok, I just wanna say thank you so much guys
took me long enough to complete the chapter
when you have time to read through my proof, then you will see that i only used span and linear independence of a basis for this proof
I'm more than excited to start my degree very soon
sure thing, its 2am here and Im tired lol, I will read it tmr and find you if I have any problems, much appreciated !
yes, another 4 hours today, but I got it
overjoyed
It could be helpful if you could share some experience lol, since sometimes taking up so much time makes me feel incapable
oh there is a thing i wanted to mention about my alternative argument for (1)
i originally thought it was a proof by contradiction
but it isnt
it is negation
so all is good
oh
I have heard that generally want to avoid contradiction proofs right ?
thanks for mentioning though π
well its kinda nice to use a different argument if you can
i guess for now you could say it's a more general proof if it doesnt use contradiction
usual suspects to avoid if you can, is contradiction and choice. but it's not like you will have to use them for linear algebra in finite dimensions anyway
axiom of choice
ohhh this one, I don't really understand how this works as a start for a proof though
its used when you have to choose infinitely many elements at the same time
(roughly speaking)
but you wont need that for finite dimensional LA
well "at the same time" probably wasnt the best analogy
it's a powerful addition to the ZF axioms
but when you add it, then it implies some other things that might be questionable, so mathematicians arent really sure whether they should use it or not. classical math has widely adopted it but you usually say explicitly when you are going to use it
and its avoided if possible
depending on your math foundation you might not be able to use it for proofs at all
and if your approach is intuitionistic, then you can say goodbye to the full axiom of choice and also to contradiction
I see, so in general attempt a direct proof, if it couldn't be done then try these then
gotcha !
anyway, if you wanna know more you can probably ask in the foundations channel
if we were to reject AOC basis - which would be equivalent to rejecting infinite-dimensional - wouldn't we lose alot of math that we enjoy using?
LIke how a function under certain conditions can be expressed as a fourier series?
I think I remember this from my PDE's class but I could be wrong.
no worries, thanks for explaining
yea we would lose some stuff lol
The Axiom of Choice is obviously true, the Well-ordering theorem obviously false, and who can tell about Zornβs lemma?
lol I've heard this meme quote
Like alot of imporant shit like fourier analysis depends on it I think.
Because with it we get to assume that there exists an infinite dimensional basis for smooth functions, and fourier series comes out of that.
i havent done fourier analysis yet
for the bit of analysis on infinite dimensional spaces i learned i didnt need choice
Really, you need a logical equivalent to choice - which would mean needing choice yea?
Like Zorn's Lemma/ Hausdorff Maximal Principle?
i didnt need zorns lemma for any arguments so far.
except for the proof that every vector space has a basis
but i didnt need that argument for anything so far
i needed choice in universal algebra once i think
Oh I see what you're saying
just for that part on showing that every vector space has a basis
i had some horrible proofs in universal algebra and category theory that made use of choice
i would expect it to turn up in analysis
maybe i will learn a few proofs needing it soon-ish
my math background is kinda weird
lol mine too
went to a liberal arts school where not many people went to grad school or really cared to take the higher level classes
we were bounded in what we could learn there
anythign else you had to learn on your own.
and I was a bad student so I have gaps in my knowledge compared to most people on here.
I know enough to help some people, but I make some mistakes sometimes.
I'm going back and trying to fill in those gaps now.
Taking a gap year to do it.
makes sense
and then apply maybe for a graduate program in the fall of next year
i studied computer science before
and i specialized in that area where theoretical comp sci and algebra meet
so i took a lot of more advanced algebra classes
and universal algebra + category theory
I was thinking about doing this actually lol.
but i never studied much analysis
I think I want to do probabilistic logic or applicatoins of probablility to computer science.
You'll do fine though I'm sure. So you studied CS in undergrad and swiched to math in grad school?
i finished my masters degree in cs and then started math from scratch
Got you.
im now starting my 2nd year of math in undergrad
Oh wow
cool.
Maybe I can ask you some stuff about CS if you ever got time.
or are online.
yea im probably always online lol
my next semester was delayed because of covid reasons
so i have nothing to do til end of october
except reading some books and lurking around here
What made you decide to switch to math?
realized that i hate working as a programmer π
lol really?
You could have probably done more than that if you had a masters
software development?
oh wow
the problem solving aspect was nice, but writing the code was kinda awful
the problem solving aspect was nice, but writing the code was kinda awful
@spiral star Why?
because nothing works in hpc
you rely on compilers like icc and nvcc and they are quite far behind gcc or clang when it comes to supporting c++ standards etc.
we constantly fought the compilers and reported compiler bugs
outdated libraries, proprietary compilers that dont support the features you need or have bugs
debugging GPU code is also not easy
it felt like making fire with sticks and stones
then we also kinda had to build a lot of libraries from scratch because they didnt exist before lol
and so we used some pre-alpha versions of libraries from like a different team of researchers
it's all open source of course, but it wasnt ready for usage and we were sort of alpha testing it
so then you add those bugs as well
in the end i was never working on my own project, but just attending meetings, and writing pull requests and bug reports for projects i wasnt actually involved in
and if the alternative to this is working a boring job writing ecommerce code in java where im actively losing iq points every day...
then i'd rather do something else
so i picked math
and it's much more fun already :))
i could meet a bunch of smart people and we tackled some pretty interesting problems
i learned a lot i would say
and you could make some business trips xd
i went to switzerland for a week
and france for 2 weeks
of course all work related π
lol
Did you ever try building your own compilers from scratch. That probably is a heavy-duty task though and possibly not feasible.
only for toy languages but nothing serious
What do you want to do after getting your degree in math?
you can probably also take a 2x2 identity and negate one of the 1s
uh
like $\mqty[0 & -1 \ 1 & 0]$
Flow:
yeah i thoughr so, diagonals have to be zero others wouldnt work
for 2x2 yea
or in general
actually
yea...
i cant think straight anymore
i'll see myself out
uh example of hermitische and anti hermitsch matrix
hermitian is what it's called
ah right
all i becomes negative and then transpose the matrix right?
or all i become positive
you switch the sign on all the imaginary parts of the entries
right
that is the conjugate part
then you take the tranpose
gives you the conjugate transpose
maybe a silly example is any real symmetric matrix is automatically hermitian
and any real antisymmetric matrix is automatrically antihermitian
for a slightly less silly example of a hermitian matrix,
$$\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 1 - i \ 1 + i & 0\end{pmatrix}$$
is a nice one
TTerra:
(i called those examples silly because they don't even have complex entries, where you'd usually be working with matrices with non-zero imaginary part when discussing hermitian matrices)
which of the following are symmetrical, antisymmetrical, hemirtain , anti hermitian
donmt know why we're not given a solution pdf...
do you know how to start?
but I find that
a is symmetrical
h is symmetrical
do it matrix-by-matrix
start with a and see which of the four conditions you're given it satisfies, if any
you got at least one of them down
b is nothing right?
none of those 4
hmmm
i think it satisfies at least one of those
well it's not symmetrical
also not anti-symmetrical
now what about (anti-)hermitian-ness
also not right
-3 doesnt become 3
when taking conjugate
i might have just had a brain fart
haha no worries, happens

i'm on a roll with those today
well i got you to check your work so it worked out
thanks for the help
i mean i didn't really do anything lol
just forgot how conjugates work
Yeah A^2 is defined to be A * A
you don't take the exponent inside the matrix, right. so it's not correct to say A^n = every number inside A to the nth exponent
Yeah, its multiplication of matrices, not taking exponents of entries in A
ok in excercize 6, what's the I refered to in (X- I) (x- 2I). is it the identity matrix?
and if so how to know what the size of the identity matrix?
Yeah it is the identity. In this case it should be a 3x3 identity matrix
Usually they don't say what size it is and you have to figure it out based on context
So here, to be able to add/subtract like in X - I and X - 2I you need I to be 3x3
right, ok thanks
No problem
Hello #linear-algebra,
I am back again with stupid questions. I am trying to make sense of statement d.
I think I have a proof of the statement. Namely:
b = (f + g)'(x) = f'(x) + g'(x) = b + b
The problem I am having is the consequence of this fact. Does this mean that the function y = 2x is not a subspace of R^2. That seems to go against my idea of a subspace as I understood it in my LinAlg + DiffyQ class. On top of this conclusion, I fail to see the importance of R^(0,3). Are these bounds important to the question in some way?
Does this mean that the function y = 2x is not a subspace of R^2.
I'd assume you mean the line that this function defines. If so, why would it?
also note that your proof only proves the "only if" direction
you still need to prove the "if" direction
I dont know why i assumed 2x should be a subspace, bad intuition i suppose. Bad habit but sometimes leaning on intuition is the best way to get me through a final that i dont understand that well haha
im trying to see how i would prove the if direction; I have an idea but im not convinced it proves the "if" direction
how do you show a set is a subspace?
Suppose $T \in\mathcal{L}(V)$ has a diagonal matrix $A$ with respect to some basis of $V$ and that $\lambda\in F$. Prove that $\lambda$ appears on the diagonal of $A$ precisely $\dim E(\lambda; T)$ times.
Konoha:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
so, I know that $V=null(T-\lambda I)\oplus range(T-\lambda I)$
Konoha:
eigenvectors of lambda is a basis of null(T-\lambda I), the basis of range(T-\lambda I) are eigenvectors belong with other eigenvectors, that is what I have so far
To clarify my confusion i forgot closed under multiplication was specifically scalar multiplication. I ended up answering most of my own questions with a quick review. Thanks again everyone.
can someone tell me what the capital A means?
K(x) is a matrix that is obtained by some weird operation on a bunch of k_i
context?
k_i(x_i) is a 24 by 24 matrix
what is that capital letter A supposed to be doing on several k_i?
ive never seen it before so i feel like this will be explained in whatever you're reading (or in what it references)
can someone give me an exmaple of adjunt matrix
like definition wise but with an example
what's the adj(A)
definition wise: Adj(A) = C^T with C = all cofactors
engineering notation christ

guys I'm not even halfway and I've got exam in 6 hours, Don't even know how to calculate eigenvalues... keep going or just get some sleep?
calculating eigenvectors is just finding bases of subspaces @wintry steppe . are you comfortable with doing that?
recall that an eigenspace is just ker(A - lambda I)
wait
eigenvalues is just finding the roots of det(A - t I)
what about it confuses you?
I've never solved or even attempted solving it, but I can try with the formula you gave me. t is never given I assume?
det(A - tI) is a polynomial. the roots of this polynomial are the eigenvalues of the matrix A
sometimes you'll see det(tI - A), but the roots are the same so it doesn't matter
alright lets attempt one
i'll try a
ccr180
or something
dont know why its upside down, want me to take new pic?
a rough outline of what you should do is
- calculate the roots of the polynomial det(A - t I). the roots are the eigenvalues of A
- calculate bases of the eigenspaces ker(A - Ξ» I), for each eigenvalue Ξ» of A. these will be your basis eigenvectors (although any element of ker(A - Ξ» I) will be an eigenvector, you want a basis because...)
- if the multiplicity of the eigenvalue Ξ» as a root of det(A - t I) equals the dimension of ker(A - Ξ» I), for each eigenvalue Ξ» of A, then A is diagonalizable. if not, then A is not diagonalizable
ok so I'm pretty sure a question will be about diagonlizing a matrix. doing the steps you showed does not diagonlize it, it's the steps needed to do to see if it is even able to diagonalize
soo let's say I want to diagonlize excercize a
how do you do step 2?
yeah i realize i kind of vomited a bunch of words at you without any explanation lol
I read about ker somwhere but it was very abstract that I could not make sense of it
it is the set of vectors that get sent to zero by the matrix
so ker(A - Ξ» I) is the set of all vectors v with (A - Ξ» I)v = 0, or if you do some rearranging, Av = Ξ»v; eigenvectors!
in fact you should've started the lecture with Av=tv
excuses 
should start with defining unsigned/oriented volume & det
so ker(A - Ξ» I) is the set of all vectors v with (A - Ξ» I)v = 0, or if you do some rearranging, Av = Ξ»v; eigenvectors!
@wintry steppe I tried to make sense of it but, I think I need an example
I don't see how to compute Ker(B)
ex, find ker(2x2 identity)
let $x=(x_1,x_2)^T\in\ker(I)$ so $Ix=\mathbf0$ or $$\m{1&0\0&1}\m{x_1\x_2}=\m{0\0}$$
RokettoJanpu:
so, x1 and x2 = 0?
bad math
x1+x2=0 doesn't give x1=x2
what's the form of vector in ker?
let x=(x1,x2) be in the kernel. you actually should've said this, you never introduced x1,x2
you got x1=-x2 so x=(x1,x2)=(-x2,x2) where x2 is free to take any value
ah I see
if you're familiar with span you can write ker=span{(-1,1)}
So this is how youβd do it? Notations are probably wrong, but overal going in the correct direction?
so what exactly are my eigenvectors?
pay attention to the computations you're doing. https://i.gyazo.com/25fbd855258e2989877580afe150ff04.png
in finding ker(A-5I) you find vectors v where (A-5I)v=0. what you did is let v=(x,y) and find restrictions on x,y
i never said those, i'm summing up what you did
Ok so I found x and y coords of eigenvector v. But x and y can be any number
general note, it's bad to introduce variables without saying what they are
And thats logical because the eigenvector is actually like an infinite line. So every point on that line should be reached
notice i say every time "let v=(x,y) be in ker... where x,y are any number"
Ok Iβll remember it
then you can stick x,y in there, do some computations to find restrictions on what x,y are
Right I see
And what I said earlier thats correct right
That the eigenvector is actually infinite
And thatβs why x,y can be any number
not quite, x,y aren't free to take on ANY values. in getting ker(A-5I) you got 3y=4x, so you can write y in terms of x like y=4x/3, so v=(x,y)=(x,4x/3)=x(1,4/3). we say we have 1 free variable in defining the vectors in ker(A-5I)
it's true that A-5I is a singular matrix which is equivalent to A-5I having a nontrivial kernel which means the eigenvalue 5 has infinitely many corresponding eigenvectors
I see, and for eigenvalue 2. I found both x and y were 0. Thatβs still considered an eigenvector, correct. v = (x,y) = (0,0)
Thank you for helping out, I appreciate the help
@pulsar turret eigenvalue is -2, everything for that is wrong
you should also know
it's true that A-5I is a singular matrix which is equivalent to A-5I having a nontrivial kernel which means the eigenvalue 5 has infinitely many corresponding eigenvectors
is true for eigenvalues in general, they have infinitely many corresponding eigenvectors, so if you got a SINGLE vector, and especially if it's (0,0) then you messed up
everything wrong started here https://i.gyazo.com/5b8c2539b87fae12b498be8df2979589.png
-(-) = +... I understand
<@&286206848099549185> How can I prove + understand whether or not I can find a 2x2 matrix with rows that are linearly dependent and columns that are linearly independent?
Change of basis?
n256:
@native rampart can it be proved directly from the definition of span and linear dependence? the 2x2 matrix thing from earlier?
can someone help me to understand transition matrices? isn't the idea to find a matrix that takes in each vector in one basis and outputs a corresponding vector in another basis?
@wheat shoal Are you aware that
$[\vec{v}_1,\vec{v}_2]v$=$[\vec{u}_1,\vec{u}_2]u$
DrunkenDrake:
Because both represent the same vector
The v will be a pair of numbers (a,b), such that av1+bv2 is the vector
u will be pair (c,d) such that cu1+du2 is the vector
Multiply both sides by
$[\vec{v}_1,\vec{v}_2]^{-1}$
DrunkenDrake:
You get a map u to v
And that's your change of basis matrix
$[\vec{v}_1,\vec{v}_2]^{-1}[\vec{u}_1,\vec{u}_2]$
DrunkenDrake:
From u to v
@spiral star Just read your proof. For the first (why ?), is it because the zero vector $T(0)=0$, so $T(0)-0=0$. For $n=1$, the span is the vector itself, this just transforms the only vector into a scalar multiple of itself. For the second why, $n=1$ just got proved and $n=0$ is just $T(0)=0 \times \lambda=0$ right ?
Otoro:
I am a bit confused on $\lambda \sum_{i=1}^{n}v_i = T(\sum_{i=1}^{n}v_i)$. Is this saying since T assigns a scalar to respective basis vectors, it assigns another one for the sum of it ?
Otoro:
just let $v := v_1 + \dots + v_n$. then from (1) we know that $T(v) = \lambda v$ for some $\lambda$.
Flow:
then you unwrap it
I am a bit confused on $\lambda \sum_{i=1}^{n}v_i = T(\sum_{i=1}^{n}v_i)$. Is this saying since T assigns a scalar to respective basis vectors, it assigns another one for the sum of it ?
@old flame did you understand Tv,v dependent part?
DrunkenDrake:
For all v
just let $v := v_1 + \dots + v_n$. then from (1) we know that $T(v) = \lambda v$ for some $\lambda$.
@spiral star So here you're taking another arbitrary v in V and using what we know about T yeah ?
Otoro:
(1) applies to all vectors v
therefore it must also apply to the sum of the basis vectors
@old flame did you understand Tv,v dependent part?
@native rampart $Tv_i - \lambda_i v_i=0$, so each $Tv_i$ is linearly dependent to $v_i$. Since every v is made up of $v_i$, the sum is linearly dependent as well ?
Otoro:
He didn't quite do that
He formed a new basis and repeated the process
Since,You can form a basis which includes one particular vector v,This means v,Tv will be linearly dependent for all v
New basis being $(Tv_1,...,Tv_n)$ ?
Otoro:
No,new basis which starts with an arbitrary vector v,and is extended to span the entire space
Read the first part carefully
wait, in the first part it said linearly dependent, and you said its independent so is there a typo ?
so v,Tv is independent instead yeah ?
(v, Tv) are dependent
oh LOL
yeah, but @native rampart say it is independent not ?
that was a typo
oh I'm so sorry
Reflex. Meant dependent
or is it because $Tv_i$ is a scalar multiple of $v_i$, so they can't be independent right
Otoro:
Yes
so this shows that T is dependent for all basis vectors, hence dependent for all vectors ?
For any choice of basis vectors
I.e.,If you choose any basis,the basis vectors and their images will be linearly dependent
And you can always create a basis which contains a specific basis vector,we need
(in-dependent)
we need ?
I meant,for any vector we choose,we can find a basis,which contains the vector
so like just taking less basis vectors ?
Different set
so like breaking down the vector into elementary components yeah ?
Are you familiar with span and basis vectors?
so from what I know, the span is the set of linear combinations of the vector space, while basis spans V, it is also linear independent. The difference between spanning list and basis is that spanning list could be reduced down to a basis, since a spanning list could be linearly dependent
And the spanning list may not cover the entire space
We are just choosing a completely different set of independent vectors,and forming a new basis
ohhhh alright
The only way to make the second coordinate 0 is if you multiply x by 0
So then it would have to just be a multiple of y
I don't think there is a simple answer to that
idk about a geometric interpretation for the adjugate matrix specifically, but there's definitely a geometric interpretation for cramer's rule which is connected to the adjugate
I think 3b1b has a vid for it
Some of the proofs in Linear Algebra Done Right seem like over kill. Specifically around a vector times a scaler.
Here is the solution of "Prove that -(-v) = v for every v in V":
My proposed solution was:
-(-v) = (-1)(-1)(v) = (1)v = v
but my professor mentioned something in class about this that I didnt quite catch. Something about because were dealing with vectors the proofs cant be so direct.
Im wondering if there are some subtleties here that I am missing
Tbh, I would say your proof is overkill. You do more work than the book does. The book literally just notices that v already satisfies the conditions to be -v's inverse.
But if you have shown that -v = (-1)v, your proof is technically fine
I don't believe that's an axiom, no
im being hyperbolic and not exact when i say axiom. I mean so obvious that it does not* need proving
All of these things can be considered so obvious that they don't need proving
okay fair enough
But you should still be able to show them rigorously using only the axioms, and things you have shown already
I think i have an idea of how to do that actually
which now that i think about it. whats in my head right now looks alot like axlers proof
Anyway, the book is saying in the definition of -v, we see v also satisfies the conditions to be -v's inverse. That's it. It's literally doing as little as possible.
I guess its just not what I would of thought to do so it seemed foreign.
thanks tho I gained alot from this
Np
@lucid cedar have you already proven that -v = (-1)v?
since thats not necessarily self-evident
oh whoops
didnt read the full convo
sorry for pinging!
its okay. Its actually a result proven in the chapter before the questions, so im just writing down "by blank result" and calling it a day
ah sure, thats fine then
ninnymonger:
W is defined by the first and third coordinates of a point being zero. the first and third coordinates of that point are zero
i hope my W is a subspace.
is it?
π
W is just {(0,z,0,w)}
is it not?
you tell me
That is what your result boils down to
the W in the very last subspace that you wrote isn't a subspace. it's not closed under scalar multiplication
so you should change what you wrote a little
drunkendrake wrote what you should have
Also,you haven't defined x and y
okay, i'll correct my $\mathbb{W}$.
ninnymonger:
can we go on some more about :
W is defined by the first and third coordinates of a point being zero. the first and third coordinates of that point are zero
@wintry steppe
in the first picture you wrote
send
sent
fuck
i am illiterate
there's nothing special about that point being in W. look at the definition of W and tell me why (0, y-z, 0, w-z) is in W
in fact i already said why
but
what i dont understand how is how
$\left< 0,y-x,0,w-z\right> \in \bigg\{ \left< 0,z,0,w\right>\bigg\}$```
yes, i read that too.
(0, y - z, 0, w - z) has first and third coordinates zero.
a vector - an arbitary vector is an arbitary vector
Therefore (0, y - z, 0, w - z) is in W.
ninnymonger:
y and x aren't defined in W
drunkendrake i'm leaving this to you
This problem kind of reminds me a problem that I did a while ago out of friedberg.
It was basically proving a general result that if you have a vector space V and a subspcae W, then there exists a vector space W' such that $V = W \bigoplus W'$
JohntheDon:
W consists of the points with first and third coordinate zero.
The point (0, y - z, 0, w - z) has first and third coordinates zero.
Therefore (0, y - z, 0, w - z) is in W, since (0, y - z, 0, w - z) satisfies the definition of W.
Yea I'm looking at this now and they basically made the subspcae that I would ahve made I think.
Okay, maybe there's something I'm not getting about the set builder notation.
(BTW I can see that $\left<x,x,z,z\right> + \left< 0 , y-x,0,w-z\right> = \left<x,y,z,w \right>$ )
ninnymonger:
i don't understand the confusion. the point satisfies the condition required for being an element of W, so it's in W
W consists of the points with first and third coordinate zero.
The point (0, y - z, 0, w - z) has first and third coordinates zero.
Therefore (0, y - z, 0, w - z) is in W, since (0, y - z, 0, w - z) satisfies the definition of W.
@wintry steppe
No disrespect, but this is the 3rd time you've provided this particular line or reasoning, and for the 3rd time I'm left confused. I get the right coordinates are zero in the right spot.
how does z= y-x , and w = w-z
z and w on lhs are dummy variables
it doesn't matter what the coordinates of the point are because W consists of every single point with first and third coordinate zero
ninnymonger:
if that makes it more clear, sure
I used to have that problem alot; getting hung up notation rather than thinking more about in general what the definition of the set is or what the notation is really saying.
let's go to the definition of W
W = {(0, z, 0, w) : z, w in F}
z and w are placeholder elements of F here. they don't mean anything in particular; they are dummy variables used for us to be able to express the set W in set builder notation. the idea in this definition of W is that W consists of all points with 1st and 3rd coordinate zero; this is because we use dummy variables to express the other coordinates. later in the proof, z and w are fixed variables. however, since we know W consists of any point with first and third coordinate zero, we can say that that point is in W
i mean, i'm talking my way through the requirements W must have.
i get that my definition of W is wrong here. (non scalar closure and what not.)
{0,a,0,b}
Is a subspace
yes.
I feel like you get the nature of the solution, but it's an awkward solution haha
W = {(0, z, 0, w) : z, w in F}
@wintry steppe
if i'm to say that
( 0 , y-x , 0 , w-z ) \in {(0, z, 0, w) : z, w in F}
i've not defined y and x
yes, you did. you fixed a point (x,y,z,w) in F^4
when did i do that?
and right in the next line it says (0, y - x, 0, w - z) is in W
you know x,y,z,w here
in the next line you are allowed to say (0, y - x, 0, w - z) is in W, because W consists of all the points (every single one) whose first and third coordinates are zero. we might be using the same symbols here that we used to define W in the set builder notation at the start, but there they were dummy variables, standing for any element of F. here, they are specific elements of F, so the point will be in W
how can you tell that $B^2=2B$
im_molee:
holy fuck the purple annotations are overwhelming
anyway, you can calculate B^2 and 2B explicitly
by cayley-hamilton you get that $A(A-I)(A-2I)(A-3I) = 0$ which you can use to reduce the expression for $B^2$
Ann:
@dusky epoch let me think! give me few minutes lol
i get $A(A-I)(A-2I)(A-3I) = 0$ because the eigenvalues are 0,1,2,3
im_molee:
yes
also if i put those values in $B=A^2-3A+2I$
im_molee:
i get 0 and 2
like let B=x^2-3a+2
,w expand x(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)
$B^2 = A^4 - 6A^3 + 13A^2 - 12A + 4I$
Ann:
okay i get that $B^2 = A^4 - 6A^3 + 13A^2 - 12A + 4I$
im_molee:
$0 = A(A-I)(A-2I)(A-3I) = A^4 - 6A^3 + 11A^2 - 6A$
Ann:
so what you're left with is $B^2 = 2A^2 - 6A + 4I$
Ann:
imma write down
how did you reduce B^2 to that?
you subtract sth from B^2
$0 = A(A-I)(A-2I)(A-3I) = A^4 - 6A^3 + 11A^2 - 6A$
im_molee:
by squaring given $B=A^2-3A+2I$ i get $B^2 = A^4 - 6A^3 + 13A^2 - 12A + 4I$
im_molee:
yes
but what do i do with $0 = A(A-I)(A-2I)(A-3I) = A^4 - 6A^3 + 11A^2 - 6A$
im_molee:
subtract A^4 - 6A^3 + 11A^2 - 6A from your expression for B^2
Oh damn
Ur magicians
also to get the spectrum of B, do i put spectrum of A to the $B=x^2-3x+2$?
im_molee:
is that how we know the minimal polynomial of B is $x(x-2)$
im_molee:
So i have three points:
A = (1,2,3), B = (1,0,-2), C = (t,t,1), where t β¬ R and together they form a triangle.
How do I find t such that the point C is closest to point A?
I've tried projecting C onto A, but then got 7 as t. However when i used elementary calculus method, where I tried to find the minimum distance for the vector CA by solving for when the derivative is 0, i got t=1.5, which is even less distance than when t=7. But using derivative doesn't seem like a linear algebra way of solving this.
My question is if there is a linear algebraic method to solve this?
rank(A)=1 so there exists a nonzero col vector in A, say c, where A's i'th col is L_ic for some scalar L_i
so A=(L_1c,L_2c,L_3c)=c(L_1,L_2,L_3) factored as the product you seek @half storm
@pastel kettle i guess it might defeat the purpose of the exercise if your goal is to only argue with polynomials, but you can read off all the answers from the matrices as well. since A has 4 distinct eigenvalues, it must be similar to a diagonal matrix with 0,1,2,3 on the diagonal. if you choose this eigenbasis, then B is simply a sum of diagonal matrices and therefore also diagonal with respect to this particular basis. B has {2, 0, 0, 2} on the diagonal, making the eigenvalues {0, 2} and the char. polynomial xΒ²(2-x)Β². for the min polynomial you can use a consequence of fitting's lemma: the multiplicy in the minimal polynomial is the power at which the sequence of kernels stabilizes. B is diag., so dim Ker(B) must be the same as dim Ker(BΒ²). B-2I is also diagonal, so dim Ker(B-2I) = dim Ker(B-2I)Β². that means the kernels stabilize at power 1, making the the minimal polynomial x(x-2). by cayley hamilton B(B-2) = BΒ² - 2B = 0 and thus BΒ² = 2B
Thats where I thought of but didn't know where to go from there
@trim marlin
@pastel kettle i guess it might defeat the purpose of the exercise if your goal is to only argue with polynomials, but you can read off all the answers from the matrices as well. since A has 4 distinct eigenvalues, it must be similar to a diagonal matrix with 0,1,2,3 on the diagonal. if you choose this eigenbasis, then B is simply a sum of diagonal matrices and therefore also diagonal with respect to this particular basis. B has {2, 0, 0, 2} on the diagonal, making the eigenvalues {0, 2} and the char. polynomial xΒ²(2-x)Β². for the min polynomial you can use a consequence of fitting's lemma: the multiplicy in the minimal polynomial is the power at which the sequence of kernels stabilizes. B is diag., so dim Ker(B) must be the same as dim Ker(BΒ²). B-2I is also diagonal, so dim Ker(B-2I) = dim Ker(B-2I)Β². that means the kernels stabilize at power 1, making the the minimal polynomial x(x-2). by cayley hamilton B(B-2) = BΒ² - 2B = 0 and thus BΒ² = 2B
@spiral star oh my god this is actually wonderful
@gray dust I think that makes sense. I get that there exist a nonzero column and that because the rank of a matrix is equal to the dimension of the subspace spanned by its rows and columns, that it has to be that one of the rows is nonzero as well. But I'm having a hard time extrapolating exactly why you know that row is a scalar factor of the nonzero column.
@pastel kettle i have to say i was a bit imprecise sometimes, for example B doesnt necessarily have 2 0 0 2 on the diagonal, but it is similar to a matrix that does. i hope i could give at least a broad idea for how to approach this. i like to think about such problems in terms of endomorphisms instead of matrices, because it shows that when you define B in terms of A, then you really just define a new endomorphism, so it doesnt matter very much what the matrices look like in particular
@pastel kettle i have to say i was a bit imprecise sometimes, for example B doesnt necessarily have 2 0 0 2 on the diagonal, but it is similar to a matrix that does. i hope i could give at least a broad idea for how to approach this. i like to think about such problems in terms of endomorphisms instead of matrices, because it shows that when you define B in terms of A, then you really just define a new endomorphism, so it doesnt matter very much what the matrices look like in particular
@spiral star yes this helped a lot!!
I solved question but idk why we are using the polarisation
@half storm typo, edited row to col
Oh I see.
let $C = A+B$ (the matrix that the problem gives you)
Ann:
given that you know $A$ is symmetric and $B$ is antisymmetric, how can you write $C^T$ in terms of $A$ and $B$?
Ann:
what is the reason to use the Polarization identities
@pastel kettle can anyone answer this plsss
@pastel kettle you're given a norm, polarization identities allow you to recover the inner product that gave rise to it
@young jewel what don't you get? do you know what it means for a matrix to be symmetric?
ok, so can you write down "A is symmetric" more symbolically?
@pastel kettle you're given a norm, polarization identities allow you to recover the inner product that gave rise to it
@dusky epoch so whenever i get norm, it's recommended to use polarisation identites when the actual inner product is given
@pastel kettle you're overthinking it
@young jewel can you write down "A is symmetric" as an equation?
but you said you knew what a symmetric matrix was!
...
can you write down "A is symmetric" as an equation?
so...

can you help me with (c)
aight one of you two will have to move out i don't think i can keep up two convos here any longer
it looks like xclear either doesn't want to respond or is away but i don't know for sure
i get x= 1,
xclear, why is it taking you more than ten seconds to write it out? the equation i'm asking you for is very simple!
okay i will wait
why couldn't you just write $A^T = A$???
Ann:
ping me later pls!
A^T = A and B^T = -B
you should have known these. and ideally you should've written them down when i asked you to.
but you didn't
whatever
point is, if $C = A + B$, then $C^T = A - B$
Ann:
and from that, you can get $2A = C + C^T$ and $2B = C - C^T$
Ann:
do you understand?
(yes/no)
does it say anything else?
A and B commute?
like AB = BA?
is that what you mean?
i don't speak turkish, so if you don't translate properly then i cannot help you at all
great
use the definitions of symmetric and antisymmetric again
$(AB)^T \overset?= -AB$
Ann:
Ann:
i thought you would apply SOME effort here on your own and do it yourself
but i guess i'm wrong and i have to do everything for you since for you apparently "help" means "do everything for me so that i can free myself from the burden of doing any thinking at all"
damn
yea in maths u have to think for yourself sometimes(most of the time)
did they just delete all of their messages
Think so
that's sad
Like Ann wanted him to derive things
They also left the server 
Nooooo he was supposed to help me
who
me?
i'm not a he, thank you very much
i'm gonna go to sleep
i'm not a he, thank you very much
@dusky epoch my bad! i have a guy friend named Ann sorry! night!
hi my book has a typing error can someone help me clear this up
- point, in the proof instead of wrting that rankB=dimZ it uses rankB=dimW; which one of these are correct?
so the correct would be rankB=dimW ight
i mean
B\inL(W->Z) on first line
B included
but 3 says rank b = dimZ implies that rank (BA) = rank A
but A included in L(V -> W)
so i think in the end of the proof, it would say rank(BA) = dim W
idk not sure
yea, you wanna make B injective :)) hence rank B = dim W implies rank(BA) = rank A
yeah it made sense to me this way, but having an error in my litterature made me skeptical that i made an oversight somewhere
dim Z cant be true, you can construct a simple counter example where you just make the dimension of Z smaller than dim W
and then it wont hold
but the answer is in the purple bubble on the right
i can't confirm myself because im having trouble with understanding π¦
like it says by using the lemma
okay, well AΒ³ = I is something you can see right?
and A != I is also quite simple. for example, two matrices cant be equal if they have different char. polynomials
and A has a different char. polynomial than I
so i guess the only argument you really have to make is for AΒ²
how do i tell char.polynomial of A is different with A^3?
can you try to formulate that again? doesnt make sense to me
AΒ³ = I follows by cayley hamilton, A != I follows from the fact that -xΒ³ + 1 != (1-x)Β³
inequality
oh
sorry, i have a programming background
