#linear-algebra
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Sure
Woah that's really cool
I had to use quaternions to get that rotating properly
that took me a week to figure out the math for that
quaterions are wild
Did you use some 4x4 matrices or something?
I didnt use a rotation matrix
i wrote out
it's actually really clever how i did it
i made a rotation Vector
and made a quaterion
out of it
Cause one way is to represent them as matrix
Yeah so you coded in how to mutliply quaternions?
Oh ok
I see
Yeah they're pretty wacky
so, the goal is to learn how to take any physics movement
make the collision and netcode it
from scratch as much as possible
people have been complaining about it
alot on how to do it
so i figured I'd do some simple plane game
you see in the video I am using a box for collision
I have not wrote it yet tho
the geometry stuff
is a bit of my weakness
all this vector and geometry stuff is a pain it's been a long time since i've used any of it
You can play test what I have
if you wan
t
I'll add you
Yeah it can be pretty unintuitive
if you're interested
Sure, but I can't right this moment
no worries
How would I find |u + v|^2 - |u|^2 - |v|^2, given u * v = 4?
write out |u + v|^2, probably
is that supposed to be a dot product?
lol
if that's all you're given, then since they're saying it works for all vectors that satisfy that, just pick some specific vectors and compute it ๐
(jk don't do that, do it the way TTerra said it's much faster lol)
wait
i can't say they're working on an algebra unless 4 is also in their vector space
uh oh
unless they're on some shit like V โ R

If it's a unital algebra then it should contain a copy of R
@wintry steppe Hmm yea, but im only getting (u_0 + v_0)^2 + (u_1 + v_1)^2...
you don't need to write the vectors' components out
(they may not even have any, but i do not know the context)
it should go something like this: |u + v|^2 = <u+v,u+v>, and simplify using properties of the inner product
(if you don't know what an inner product is, then i'd wager you're working in R^n and so probably <a,b> = a^T b = a dot b)
Yeah I assume so
As far as im aware, inner product is a generalization of dot product, but most of the times my teacher is talkin bout dot prod
Im not aware of the properties tho
I don't see the link between the two tho
|u + v|^2 and a dot b
|u + v|^2 = (u +v) dot (u + v)
As far as im aware, inner product is a generalization of dot product, but most of the times my teacher is talkin bout dot prod
Im not aware of the properties tho
largely the same: linear, symmetric, positive definite (ignore people who say words like "sesquilinear" or "nondegenerate" for now :) )
So then the original question: |u + v|^2 - |u|^2 - |v|^2, given u * v = 4?
(u + v) dot (u + v) - |u|^2 - |v|^2
yeah
I feel like (u+v) dot (u + v) can be decomposed further but im not entirely sure
it can
And how would I evaluate |u|^2 too?
the same way
?
|u|^2 = u dot u?
we wrote |u + v|^2 as (u + v) dot (u + v), so we can write |u|^2 as
yes
(u + v) dot (u + v) - (u dot u) - (v dot v)
Okay this looks better than before
now try messing with that first term a bit
see if you can make something nice pop out
(v dot v) + 2(v dot u) + (v dot v)
Ah i see
Answer was 2(v dot u) whole time.
i think the first term should be u dot u
but
yes
Oh yep sorry typo
Thats interesting
So: |x|^2 = x dot x
yes
this is often taken as a definition
I've always thought of |x|^2, as |x| as sqrt(x0^2 + x1^2 ..), so |x|^2 = x0^2 + x1^2 ...
well they are the same
if you write out x dot x, what do you get?
Oh lol
Thanks heaps TTerra, I think I have better understanding now
no problem 
As far as im aware, inner product is a generalization of dot product, but most of the times my teacher is talkin bout dot prod
@wintry steppe inner product is same as dot product
You just use a different basis
"inner product" is a more general term
An orthonormal basis
tho yeah all inner products on a findim vector space are equivalent up to a change of basis
Well,If two things are equivalent, they are "same"
but still if your space is not just R^n it might help not to be locked in the idea of dot product being the only inner product
True
but still if your space is not just R^n it might help not to be locked in the idea of dot product being the only inner product
@dusky epoch hi Ann probably being rly silly rn but can u gimme an example please =D
oh idk polynomial vector spaces
like $P_2$ with the inner product $\ang{p,q} = \int_{-1}^1 p(x)q(x) \dd{x}$
Ann:
Suppose that V is finite dimensional and T โ L(V ). Prove that T is a scalar multiple of the identity if and only if ST = TS for every S โ L(V ). I could prove the forward direction starting from T, but lost in the other direction, pls help :3
have you tried using the contrapositive
think about the properties of the scaled identity. if you apply it to any vector it only gets scaled by a constant factor. so can you show that if TS = ST, then for all v in V: Tv = cv or in other words: {v, Tv} is linearly dependent? when you have that, you just have to show that the same factor c applies to all vectors. but that can be done by inspecting how a basis of V gets mapped.
Or you can brute force it by taking appropriate S, belonging to L(v)
That almost always works
I'm just a little lost on the meaning of "a scalar multiple of the identity" cause like at the end don't we have to show something like $TI=aI$ for some constant a ?
Otoro:
Hey I wasn't there from the beginning. What does T represent ?
you have to show $T = \lambda I$
Flow:
for some lambda
@real sable operator on findim V
Findim ?
finite dimension
Right, sorry I don't learn Maths in English haha
Try substituting S such that S(e1)=e1 and S(ei)=0 else
And do the same for other basis vectors,now take S(e1)=e2 and S(ei)=0 and repeat and you are done
What is the exact question ?
just scroll up
Suppose that V is finite dimensional and T โ L(V ). Prove that T is a scalar multiple of the identity if and only if ST = TS for every S โ L(V ). I could prove the forward direction starting from T, but lost in the other direction, pls help :3
@old flame
$Also, please ignore this message: I'm just trying the LaTeX bot$
PrixMortDiable:
when i proved this, i went with a dirty contradiction argument ๐
when i proved this, i went with a dirty contradiction argument ๐
@spiral star What did you do?
what i suggested above
show that for all v in V, {v, Tv} is linearly dependent
and then showed that the factor is equal for all v
by observing how a basis gets mapped
i used contradiction for the linear dependence, because i was lazy and it only took one line
Here is my attempt for the proof of the first part. Let $(v_1,...,v_n)$ be a basis of V. Take $v \in V$, then $v=a_1v_1+ \dots +a_nv_n$ for $a_1,...,a_n \in F$. Apply T, so $Tv=a_1Tv_1+\dots+a_nTv_n$. Since $(Tv_1,...,Tv_n)$ spans range T and $(Tv_1,...,Tv_n) \in V$, since range T is a subspace of V. Since each $Tv_i$ is a vector in V, they can be written as a combination of basis vectors in V. $Tv_1=n_{i,1}v_1+\dots+n_{i,n}v_n$, so $Tv$ is a linear combination of the basis vectors of V. Thus, $Tv=cv$ for some constant c.
Otoro:
i dont think you can make that last conclusion
what you said before is true for every linear map, not just scaled identity
you have to show that the same constant c applies for all vectors
also, at some point you will have to use ST = TS
I thought you said I need to show that ${v,Tv}$ is linear independent ?
Otoro:
no, linearly dependent
that's a property of the identity map
(and the scaled identity)
so what you're saying is that I can't just use T, in some point I need to make use of the identity ?
then that concludes the linear dependence ?
your goal is to show that if ST = TS for all S, then T is the scaled identity
so you can step by step show that T maps vectors like the scaled identy
one of the properties of the scaled identity is that it maps v -> cv for a fixed constant c
and {v, cv} are linearly dependent for all v
and if ST = TS for all S, then T will map vectors in that way
so you can split your proof into two steps
wait does range S = range T help in anyways ?
step 1) if you take any vector v in V, then ST = TS implies that there is some c such that Tv = cv
step 2) in (1) you have shown that for each vector you find such a c. now you show that each c was the same
and then you are done
there are different ways of proving this as well, that's just if you want to follow what i did
I'm just having trouble trying to use ST=TS to be honest, but thanks for clarifying the steps, let me try again then
Try taking a particular S
yea, and then apply it to v
Most linear algebra concepts are better understood if you try taking a case,and try to make sense of the whole thing that way
@native rampart Something like $S : V \rightarrow V$, where $Sv=av$, for $v \in V$ ?
Otoro:
Yes, But take a more useful case like S(e1)=e1 ,S(ej)=0 for other basis vectors.(Your case reveals no information about T)
Think of transformations in terms of basis vector transformations
@native rampart What about this, $S: V \rightarrow V$, $Sv=b\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_{i}T^{-1}v_i$ where we supposed $\dim V=n$
Otoro:
so if we write $v \in V$ as $v=\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_iv_i$ then S transforms it into that above and T brings it back to just bv, thus its a scalar b multiplied with the original vector v
you cant assume that T is invertible
Otoro:
Well I showed that range T=V, so T is invertible, does that work ?
i dont think you showed that
If it worked,what would it tell you about T?
Look for a use first,and then check existence.
For example,If I wanted to know something about T,knowing T(ei) would give me all the info I need
Therefore look for what S,you can take so that you know something about T(e1) for some basis vector
(You can get info about other basis vectors in a similar way)
Let me show you. I'm not sure but here goes. $ST=TS$, $T(Sv) \in range T$ while $S(Tv) \in range S$ \implies $Sv \in V$ and $Tv \in V$. So $range T=V=range S$ ?
Otoro:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Ok,Then what do you know of T you didn't know before
T is invertible ?
Well,Range T is not V
It is a subset of V
Anyway,if that was true,would you have gained any knowledge about T(v)?
For some v
oh so my proof is not valid ?
It is not valid
For that,you have to show an arbitrary element of V belongs to image of T
oh, so I need the other direction as well
Anyway,That is not required for this question.
ah ok, don't wanna get sidetracked
I mean,You do prove that,but this approach doesn't help you,as far as I am aware
Look for how you can know something about T(e1)
Like if $T(e1)=a1e1+a2e2+....$
How do you get info about a1,a2..?
DrunkenDrake:
linear dependence or independence ?
e1,e2.. are basis vectors of V
then the coefficients besides a1 would be 0 ?
This is a linear transform
It takes in a vector,and spits out a random vector
Basically,a function
but Tv is in V, so it could be written as a combination of basis vectors nonetheless
So are you saying to define $S: V \rightarrow V$ such that each basis vector gets mapped to a linear combination of the basis vectors. Something like this then, $S(v_i)=a_{1,i}v_1+...+a_{n,i}v_n$
Otoro:
That's how T is
We have to show $\a{n,i}v_n$ is the only non zero term in $T(vi)
Hopefully,you get my point
but then aren't we ignoring S ? since we are directly defining T ?
DrunkenDrake:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
So what you're trying to say is to define T as the transformation of a basis vector into a linear combination of the basis vectors, but with only that vector itself i.e others are zero
And with this in mind, we can see what S could be to do the trick ?
We have to show this is the only valid definition
Such that the condition is satisfied
That's where we use S
can you guys ping me when you worked through that approach? i'd like to share my solution in the end ๐
sure thing, I am more than excited to see your solution too once I hopefully got it lol
let me try for a bit please ๐
Ok, try on your own. i won't disturb. Ping him,when you are done
yea just continue. i think a proof without a contradiction argument in it would be preferable anyway
but it's nice to have some different approaches
gives some more insight
Shouldn't the elementwise analysis be the most common?
Considering this is linear algebra
How is 2 steps too cumbersome?
mostly writing out the linear combinations i guess lol
or maybe i overcomplicated it
Probably latter
true ๐ yea it was just as short lol
Hello so our book says for 3 points to be in a line there are 3 and only 3 multipliers x1 x2 x3 which aren't =0 at the same time (x1^2 + x2^2 + x3^2 > 0)
although we don't have any logical reasoning or proof that explains and
and idk how to really use this statement on any exercise
anyone can help me
can you post what the book says
Oh ok
Well without seeing where this is used, I couldn't tell you why they want the conditions $\lambda_1^2 + \lambda_2^2 + \lambda_3^2 > 0$ and $\lambda_1 + \lambda_2 + \lambda_3 = 0$
The_Vman:
Yeah
and we need to prove that they are in a straight line
and the book says
if we take an origin point O
and 3 points ABC which create the line L:
we can create 3 vectors OA=r1 OB=r2 OC=r3
and now the book says
if we prove that $\lambda_1^2 + \lambda_2^2 + \lambda_3^2 > 0$ and $\lambda_1 * r1 + \lambda_2 * r2 + \lambda_3 * r3 = 0$
Julinka:
then 3 points are in this straight line
I see
wanne see how the book proved it ?
ill translate
im totally a rookie at linear algebra and idk if im stupid or it's just cause im learning the basics still
so the book splitted lambda into 2 other numbers
like i see what it's going to get at
but i would never come up with that solution
idk
i feel stupid when i see these op proofs
I think that's not true. Consider the points (0,0), (1,0),(0,1) in R^2. Then your three vectors are 0, i, j. And 1(0) + 0(i) + 0(j) = 0 while 1^2 + 0^2 + 0^2 > 0, and yet the three points do not form a line. Or am I missing something and being dumb like always?
Well it does take a while to be able to come up with these proofs, but it's all just practice. Practice doing proofs, talking to others, reading through proofs, spending time understanding
i see
well i guess rn i just need to understand it
@marble lance origin doesnt count
You are missing the condition that 1 + 0 + 0 =/= 0
origin is a forth point
Ah, I wasn't looking that far up so didn't see the extra condition, thanks
No problem
i hope so
The best way of understanding them is visually in my opinion
Lol no problem but I don't feel like I did much. I can still help with the proof if you want
Ok but I need a sec to go over the proof myself
ye ofc
They start by assuming that A, B and C are on the same line right? And they prove that there are real numbers $\lambda$ that satisfy the conditions
The_Vman:
ye
Ok so if you have two vectors AC and CB (with at least one not zero) that go in the same direction, the there are real numbers $k$ and $\mu$ such that $\mu * AC = k * CB$ with at least one of $\mu$ and $k$ not zero
The_Vman:
Right? Being able to scale vectors so that they are equal means they point in the same direction and vice versa
yes
Ok so then they split $AC = r_C - r_A$ and $CB = r_B - r_C$
The_Vman:
ye
And that gives them the linear combination between the r vectors that equals zero
By rearranging the vectors as they did
Sure
so we have these 3 points
Yes
and the book says
if those are in a straight line
ofc we can say that
AC = k*CB
ok till there
srry
lambda
same thing but follow the book
Yeah
now the book randomly splits lambda into k/mu
and im like why
anyway so
i keep on reading
(k+mu)rc=mura+krb
this is after some simplification
?
Yes
Of course
Yeah I didn't see how they got that either and I had to calculate it myself
Yes
and OC = r3 and OA = r1
or Rc and RA
Ra
you get rc - ra = rb -rc
oops
rc - ra = k/mu()
(rb-rc)
k i messed it uo
up
ye ye i got it
No worries
Yeah I think so
big iq xd
Lol
okay so
they reversed the stuff there
rather finding the multipliers for the points
they found a generalization for multiplayers lambda
for specific point a b c
if that makes sense
after the part $\lambda_1 = \mu$
where is da bot xd
Yeah it's taking a really long time
Julinka:
Lol there it is
well the part where i get anxiety is when i think that although i got it for now and i can rewrite it without looking i cant memorize it for long till the exam along with 999 other proofs like this
Mm ok
how did you deal at your time when you faced these types
ye and on the other part the book says let's prove the second condition where $\lambda_1^2 + \lambda_2^2 + \lambda_3^2 > 0$
Julinka:
so he says lets just say $\lambda_1 =not 0
I did a good amount of proofs, but also I tried to understand how they worked when I could. There are also some concepts that the book/professor emphasizes more and those are usually more important, in that they help with the rest of the concepts
Sometimes
we did some stuff online or lets say all of it online
and im not sure if our prof emphasized anything
so i need to learn everything
Hmm ok
yee sad
Even still, there are some things that come up more often
well tbh
we just did these for intro
what i need to remem is that 2 vectors are colinear if they fulfill the condition a = kb
and vice versa
the dot product, cross product
etc
which i have learned
kinda
Ok yeah those are good to know
Um noo I haven't done any
No problem
you are doing god work helping people
like that indian dude who always saves your azz before the exam xD
Hahaha thanks
imma head to learn
Sounds good
can someone help with this? https://gyazo.com/455ef39c4b812501af75578444f93970
I don't see the connection ๐ฆ
Okay, so if I use the first inequality, do I have to prove it first?
me either LOL, it's the first homework so i dont know how he grades
also for the second one you use this definition of a dot product
$v\cdot w = |v||w|\cos\theta$ where $\theta$ is the angle between the vectors
jacob:
oh yeah I'm familiar with that one
so $\min v\cdot w = |v||w|\min \cos\theta$
jacob:
similarly for the first part |v-w| you should expand |v-w|^2 as a dot product (v-w)*(v-w) and you can get an answer that way
oh true
similarly for the first part |v-w| you should expand |v-w|^2 as a dot product (v-w)*(v-w) and you can get an answer that way
@quartz compass can you quote which one your referring to? bit confused where the |v-w|^2 comes from
I would but I gotta go, I think jacob can help
ok np!
what's the question?
@vague cedar So assuming I proved it I can get | | v - w | | > = 2 ? and that's it?
if you proved the inequality sure but i think merosity's way is better tbh
$|v-w|^2 = (v-w)\cdot (v-w) = v\cdot(v-w) - w\cdot(v-w)$
jacob:
squaring it and then taking the square root after you're done with your work is just a helpful trick
how come I'm squaring it though?
to express it in terms of |v| and |w|
oh rightt
$|v-w|^2 = v\cdot v - v\cdot w - w\cdot v + w\cdot w$
jacob:
yep makes sense
the dot product is commutative ie. a dot b = b dot a
$|v-w|^2 = |v|^2 - v \cdot w - v \cdot w + |w|^2 = |v|^2 + |w|^2 - 2v\cdot w$
jacob:
$|v-w| = \sqrt{|v|^2+|w|^2-2v\cdot w} = \sqrt{|v|^2+|w|^2-2|v||w|\cos\theta}$
jacob:
now you have |v-w| as a function of a single variable (theta) and you can optimize it as you'd like
you might recognize this as reminiscent of the law of cosines from geometry ๐
hmm
yup
its kinda hard to figure out what the angle would be at max
yeah
okay i see i think
alternatively you can take some derivatives and plug them back in and see what's a larger number
optimizing $|v-w|$ for some value $\theta^$ is the same as optimizing $|v-w|^2$ for some value $\theta^$ so you could do $\frac{d}{d\theta}(|v|^2+|w|^2 -2|v||w|\cos\theta)=0$ and solve for $\theta$
jacob:
which boils down to $\theta=0$ or $\theta=\pi$ for $0\leq \theta \leq 2\pi$ and you can plug in the two angles to compare some values (including the endpoints $0$ and $2\pi$)
jacob:
first derivative test is what i think it's called from calc 1
okay so my answer isn't an actual number but an expression right? so like the smallest for | v - w | would be = sqrt(|v|^2 + |w|^2 -2)
oh nvm
i can plug it in
lol
thanks!
I saw that you can write the determinant of a matrix in terms of the trace of a matrix, with:
for the determinant a 2x2 matrix
does anyone know if there's a nice pattern for larger matrices written in terms of traces like this?
I think for 3x3 it works out to:
actually nvm, found something on Wikipedia
https://gyazo.com/316941bd883abcf8613a84abe930e2c2 how does one do this ๐ฆ i skipped it earlier
so you want $u_1 v_1 + u_2 v_2 < 0$, $u_1 w_1 + u_2 w_2 < 0$, and $v_1 w_1 + v_2 w_2 < 0$, right?
Namington:
suggestion: make one vector all positive, one vector all negative, and one vector one positive/one negative
youll have to adjust the magnitudes to make it so that the negative term in each dot product dwarfs the positive term
but this shouldnt be too hard with some trial-and-error
so I just plug in stuff till it works?
well, there should be a bit more thought than that
like, if you have, idk
(-1) * (-1) + 1 * (-1)
it would make sense to make one of the factors of the second term larger
since the second term is the negative one
so you want that to be the larger term
makes sense yeah
Hello, This is the Solution to the question "Find two distinct square roots of i."
My question is to ask that about this process of adding 2pi to the power of e at the top of the solution. does this mean that I can keep adding 2pi repeatedly and create distinct roots every time? It would not make sense to me that sqrt(i) has infinite solutions.
Oh wait, I see that it wouldnt have infinite roots, but i dont really understand how I am supposed to know that adding 2pi(i) would get me the other root. To me it seems more intuitive that adding pi would do that, but I dont have a good grasp of what is happening here
e^(i*ฮธ) represents the how the argument changes in an anti-clockwise direction and we can get other roots by rotating 2ฯ/x in the plane where x is the number of roots.
Adding 2ฯi/2=ฯi to the angle will rotate the number ฯ radians in the complex plane.
Another way to think of it is that e^(ฯi/4) is equal to cos(ฯ/4) + i*sin(ฯ/4) = 1/sqrt(2) + i * 1/sqrt(2) and adding ฯi to the angle results in it rotating ฯ radians in an anti-clockwise direction so e^(ฯi/4+ฯ)=e^(5ฯi/4) = cos(5ฯ/4) + i * sin(5ฯ/4) = - 1/sqrt(2) - i * 1/sqrt(2) which makes sense since the number would have rotated 180 degrees in the complex plane.
Like the black dot would be the first root that was calculated and the second root was the ฯ radian rotation of that number in the complex plane
and that is represented by e^(iฯ)
so then you have e^(iฯ/4) * e^(iฯ) = e^(iฯ/4 + iฯ) = e^(5ฯi/4)
I hope that makes sense
you're welcome
I have another question, more conceptual perhaps this time. The book im using, Linear Algebra Done Right, talks about vector spaces saying they map something to something else. So in this specific example that confuses me Axler says "If S is a set, Then F^S denotes the set of functions from S to F."
So I can easily agree given the rules of combining functions that they classify as a vector space. The part that I dont understand is what is meant when we say "to F". F is just a stand in for field If I read Axler right. Is F^S just a formal declaration that the set S is a field?
What page?
F is assumed to be a field, but S is just a set
Then a function S โ F is just a mapping that says where each element in S gets mapped to
F^S is just the set of functions with domain S and codomain F
you'll see this notation all the time; for example, the set of all real-number sequences is often denoted R^N
so S->F because the functions inside of S must resolve to some number? IE: S_1 = f(x) = x^2
Like, take S to be a set with just one element.
S = {sunshine}
Then F is any field
Why not R
One such function we could put on this is mapping sunshine to 1.
Another is sunshine gets mapped to ฯ
Oh so like a bijection from elements of S to the real numbers or the complex numbers, thus we use F for either?
My example is very specifically not a bijection haha
A function needs not be a bijection, is what I mean
okay that clears it up i think
Now, F^S is a set of all such functions
oooooo
my brain is smooth like a marble. This is actually simple
I miss understood and thought that S was a set of functions. IE S := {x, x^2, x^3,...}
Rofl that's a new expression
S could be a set of functions!
But those functions aren't being used
right right whew. thanks so much
Np. Feel free to ask if you need anything else!
How does linear mapping between complex planes work ?
Any intuition yall can give me ?
wym complex functions
that doesn't make much more sense
i mean definition-wise it really is the exact same except all the real scalars are now complex scalars instead
yeah you lose some of that geometric visualization but that's just the cost of going more general
Hmm if its the same, then its ok. But I thought it would be like something else
Exactly
I was actually wondering the geometric visuals
look, most of linear algebra that doesn't rely on inner products can be reformulated to work over any field
not just R or C
Linear mapping keeps the gridlines paralel and origin fixed, so these properties are both true between reel/complex planes ?
How Am I supossed to understand it if I cant visualise it tho. ๐ฆ
the definition of a linear mapping is that a mapping L is linear iff for every vector v, w and scalar c it is true that L(v+w) = Lv + Lw and L(cv) = c * Lv
like there are examples of linear operators that are not just matrix multiplication on R^n or C^n
for example the derivative
that's a linear operator right there
and other differential operators, like the second derivative, or the laplacian if you're doing multivariable, or integration...
idk. you gotta be comfortable with some amount of symbol-pushing
Hmm, ok. I think I know which way you are going now. Is there anything you can recommend me ( book,video,... ) to understand like the essence of these things ?
i might've recommended essence of linear algebra before but it sounds like you've watched that already
Yeah
Tbh I watched that series 3-4 times
I dont imagine myself proceding this much in college if those videos didnt exist ๐
Anyways Ima continue my work, thanks @dusky epoch
is there a unit vector notation that can be used to indicate "unit vector of (a ร b)" without having to say something like "let unit vector of (a ร b) be equal to รป"
(axb)^?
i thought about making it (a ร b) with a hat but it looks too wonky to be real notation
it is the actual notation for it?
I don't know
@night citrus Just normalize it? That is, say รป = (a ร b)/||a ร b||
that's what i was trying to avoid, but if that's the correct way then its fine
i would write $u_{a\times b}$ for what you're trying to achieve
jacob:
@night citrus
ah neat! thank you
say we have a 4x6 matrix A which has a rref of R and we find a 4x4 matrix T for which TA=R. Is T unique?
A=4x6 0 matrix. rref(A)=A. ANY T satisfies TA=A
I mean a specific A matrix. But I see your point. I suppose there are some conditions which would determine if T is unique (if that is possible). The A i am considering is rank 3
Well you could prove it, right? So suppose that there exists a 4x4 matrix U such that UA = R.
A U has the associated left-multiplication transformation L_U. We know that linear transforamtions are determined uniquely about how they act on a basis.
So maybe the next thnig that you would need to show is that $L_T = L_U \iff Tx = Ux$ for all $ x \in \mathbb{R}^4 $. Just a thought.
JohntheDon:
T is necessarily the product of elementary matrices yea?
yes T is invertible
So I guess the question is the sequence of elementary row operations is unique.
I'm pretty sure there are plenty of different row operations that you can do in order to end up with the same result, so I'm gonna go ahead and say that the answer is no.
T isn't unique.
i think im inclined to agree
but i wonder if that changes if A is rank 4
then wouldnt we be able to let T be the inverse of the matrix composed of the pivot columns of A?
I'd venture to say no to that aswell.
As long as you end up in the rref at some point, then it doesn't matter how many row operations that you do, if you get what I'm saying.
There is definitely a set of matrices that correponds to a set of row operations where you end up with the least amount of elemntary matrices that gives you the rref of A i.e. R.
that is a unique number of matrices i.e. the last number of row operations/ elementary matrices needed to give you the RREF of A, but you can get to the RREF by doing a bunch of different row operations, so long as you end up with the RREF of A.
if A is 4x6 and rank 4, then wouldnt T to get to rref have to be the inverse of the pivot columns though?
since the columns are separate and the pivot columns together become the identity matrix
inverse of the pivot columns, I'm not sure I know what you mean.
the columns which have leadings 1s in R
if we label the pivot columns c1,...,c4 even if thats not their order in A
then then if we let B=[c1...c4]
T would necessarily have to be the inverse of B
since in R Tc1=e1...Tc4=e4
where ei is the ith column of the identity matrix
sorry for not doing latex and subscripts im in physics class rn lol
O.k. I see what you're saying. You just mean that T of the columns gives you standard basis vectors.
And what you said is definitely true, but I don't think that contradicts the point that I've made.
focus on lecture 
You can use any row operations that you want so long as you, as you end up in the RREF of the matrix, there a bunch of different operations that you can use to get there.
some of them would actually be redundant - it wouldn't necessarily be the quickest way to get there.
@wintry steppe hypocrite 
hey its being recorded so i can always go back 
but you could still get there is what I'm saying, it may be hard to put in word what I'm saying without giving an example.
T=E1...Ek=F1...Fm where Ei and Fi are elementary matrices
they dont have to be the same i gotcha
but they would still end up being the same matrix because the inverse of a matrix is unique
interesting. so then i would conject that if an mxn matrix has maximum possible rank(m and/or n depending on which is larger), then the transformation to rref is unique.
ill see if i can prove that. but i think it would really be exactly what i said above using that an inverse matrix is unique.

Yea I think so too.
I guess it kind of depends on what you define as transformation. Like, the number of row operations required to reduce to the RREF wouldn't be, but if you think of the transformation the matrix such that TA = I_n, then yea, it definitely is.
right. any invertible transformation can be decomposed in an infinite number of ways as the composition of of smaller invertible transformations, but the final result can always be the same.
man doing linear algebra selfstudy is too hard, can someone explain me in easy terms how do 2 matrices relate to eachother relative to different basis?
or something to help me starting how to tackle this problem
What exactly do you mean "how do 2 matrices relate to each other relative to different bases"
it means can we predict how the matrix would look like from someone that chose a different basis.
i donmt understand the question all the well either, hoped somone could give me some insight
look into change of basis matrices
That's a slightly better wording of the question.
but yea look into what change of basis.
If I have a matrix then how the resultant vectors look from someone elses perspective depends on what basis that they're looking at the resultant vectors from.
the idea is that with respect to a choice of basis on the domain and codomain, we can represent a linear map by a matrix. since we can always pick multiple bases, we want to figure out how to relate the two matrices we get when we make different choices of bases. this is (for a linear operator at least) given by conjugation by a "change of basis matrix"
the math behind it isn't terribly difficult, but the idea (as in the "why?") can take a bit to wrap your head around
picking a different basis can make computations a lot simpler, so knowing how you change from one basis to another is important
e.g. if your problem is to find the expression for the linear operator on R^2 projecting to a line, then you can use the line to get a new basis of R^2 in which projection has a very simple form, then use your change of basis matrix to get the expression of that linear operator in the standard basis (what you originally wanted). thus, making computations easier
I see, appreciate the clarification
How can I solve this matrix equation $ (X-B)^T(X+A)=X^T\cdot A+X^T\cdot X+B^T\cdot X$
sqrt(x):
expand the left side, i guess
sqrt(x):
I could multiply both sides by $(X+A)^{-1}$
sqrt(x):
yes, they are all regular matrices
They are all invertible
I know that $B^TX=(X^TB)^T$. But this does not really help me
sqrt(x):
Transposition of matrices is a linear property.
You mean $(A+B)^T=A^T+B^T$?
sqrt(x):
yea
How does that help me?
I have to solve $(X-B)^T(X+A)=X^T A+X^TX+B^TX$ for $X$
sqrt(x):
Nope, that's the original question
It's a little awkward
just seems weird that's what the end result has to be.
remember that transposing is just swapping the rows and columns
it doesnt matter whether you swap rows or columns before or after doing the subtraction
So X^TX+X^TA-B^TX-B^TA
well thanks, i was a little uncertain whether $(X-B)^T(X+A)=(X^T-B^T)(X+A)$
sqrt(x):
Yea transposition is a linear map.
btw. I guess it's more elegant to $(X^T-B^T)(X+A)=X^T(X+A)-B^T(X+A)$ looking at the right side
sqrt(x):
sqrt(x):
@wintry steppe Iโd like to come back to our question few hours ago. Could you explain why?
the "why" is what i wrote, if that's what you mean
i dont mind elaborating on anything else
Well Iโm having trouble visualizing the proof
Iโll show you how itโs wittten although itโs not in english so I hope you can somewhat make sense of it
So I guess youโve got 1 object seen from 2 different basis. And you work it out so that you have an basis eโ<k> written as a summation of another basis e<k> multiplied by a matrix of some sort
Hmm I see
What is the question? Why the change of basis is represented as a matrix?
Iโm not so sure lol
Ok
Well, I can talk a bit about changing basis if you want, and if it doesn't make sense just stop me
Or if you know what kind of thing you're confused about let me know
Itโs a proof of how to know youโre looking at the same object (vector or matrix?) when the basis is different. So you and someone else have different basis. How to know youโre looking at the same object
Ok
So you have a vector $v$ in your vector space. If you choose a basis $e_1, \dots, e_n$ then you can write $v$ as a linear combination $v = \sum_{i = 1}^n a_i e_i$
The_Vman:
And then you get the "coordinates" $a_i$ which let you represent the vector as $\begin{bmatrix}a_1 \ \vdots \ a_n\end{bmatrix}$
The_Vman:
But these coordinates depend on the basis you chose
Yes makes sense
And so if you had chosen a different basis $e_1', \dots, e_n'$ you would have $v$ as a different linear combination $v = \sum_{i = 1}^n b_i e_i'$
And that gives different coordinates
Ok so now the question is, how do you know if you have the same vector? Or maybe, if you know the coordinates in one basis, what are the coordinates in the other?
The_Vman:
So if you know nothing about the bases, then you can't do anything
You need some information that relates the basis
In particular, it is enough to know what the vectors $e_i$ look like in the basis $e_i'$
The_Vman:
Okey, thatโs what was proven at the end right?
I'm not completely sure, but that's how you find the change of basis matrix
Then, if for example $e_1 = 2e_1' - e_2'$ and $e_2 = 3e_2'$ then if you know $v = 3e_1 - e_2$ then you can find what linear combination of $e_i'$ works for $v$
The_Vman:
Makes sense
Namely $v = 3e_1 - e_2 = 3(2e_1' - e_2') - (3e_2') = 6e_1' - 4e_2'$
Any idea why automorfisme was introduced to try and prove this?
The_Vman:
Hmm let me think
Automorfisme can be represented by invertable matrix Q. Thatโs where the Q comes from
Yeah
I mean the way I think about it, is that you aren't doing anything to the vector
So it's the identity automorphism
But you are representing it in a weird way
Because to represent the identity automorphism as a matrix, you need to chose some bases.
And you get to choose a basis for the input and the output
So normally, you only deal with one basis and so you use that basis for the input and output, and the identity automorphism looks like the standard diagonal identity matrix with 1s on the diagonal
But if you are working with different basis, then the identity map can look different.
For example $\begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \ 0 & 2\end{bmatrix}$ could represent the identity automorphism if you are going from a basis $e_1, e_2$ to a basis $e_1', e_2'$ where $e_1 = e_1'$ and $e_2 = e_1' + 2e_2'$
The_Vman:
I see
As when you input the basis vector $e_2$ for example, which is written in the basis $e_1, e_2$ as $\begin{bmatrix}0 \ 1\end{bmatrix}$, you get $e_2$ back (as you applied the identity automorphism which does nothing) but now you are writing the $e_2$ vector in the $e_1', e_2'$ basis where it looks like $\begin{bmatrix}1 \2\end{bmatrix}$
The_Vman:
Okey
It says here that Q is the โtransition matrixโ just like you said applying identity automorphisme
Matrix Q contains de coords in koloms of the basis Bโ, expressed in the basis B.
ok
Thatโs what youโre doing right here right
Yes, I think so. If the columns are basis vectors of B' written in the basis B, then it should take a vector written in the basis B' to itself written in the basis B
The columns are the outputs (each one is the output of putting in basis vectors of B' written in B'), and so if you write the columns using the B basis, that's what the basis you end up in is
That's how I try to remember it, how am I writing the columns (using which basis)? Because that's what all outputs will be written in
Makes sense tbh
Glad to hear it
So to make a summary of this. Youโve chosen a basis b ( e1, ... , en) and someone else choose bโ (eโ1 , ... , eโn) because their both isomorphism, itโs actually automorphism. This automorphism can be represented by an invertable matrix Q.
This matrix Q, is based on the coords of bโ and b. So the coords of the [V]b = Q * [V]bโ. This means that matrix times the vector V using basis bโ gives us coords of vector V using basis b
Yes exactly
Theres a last part, we didnโt talk about it yet, but itโs just substituting some variabeles and numbers
The important thing to remember is that whatever numbers you use to represent a linear transformation, whatever bases you use, the things intrinsic to the linear transformation stay the same. The rank, the dimension of the nullspace/kernel, if the map has an inverse, etc. won't change from basis to basis
Sure go ahead
Thanks for reminding me
At the bottem stelling 6.8
Q is the transition matrix from basis B to basis Bโ
The formula that inside the box, how to interpret it?
Wait. So if basis B is (e1, e2, ..., en). Is this 1 basis. Or n basis?
No here there are only 2 bases, B and B' each one with n vectors
Ah right got confused for a sec
The formula gives how you write some e' vector in terms of the basis vectors e from B
I think I understand
Hello, is that okay to ask a question about vectorial spaces in this room?
Thank you!
I'll take the chance to ask - how do you call it in english a collection of things?
I think I understand
@pulsar turret Awesome I have to go for a bit but just ask if you have more questions, in this room if free or one of the questions rooms
a set?
@rose coral thank you, I appreciate the help and step by step thought process really helped me.
Yeah that must be a set. So I have this already solved problem, but I can't figure out how they did it.
It reads: Prove that the set P (...) is not a vector subspace of R^3
I don't understand why did they assume x(2) was x^2(1)
Suppose $T\in\mathcal{V}$ is diagonalizable. Prove that $V = null T \oplus range T$. the problem doesn't say the dimension of V, if V is finite, use V is a direct sum of eigen spaces. What if V is not finite, how do I argue about that
that's what the elements of P look like. the set P is defined by those points (x_1, x_2, x_3) satisfying x_2 = x_1^2 @vague sundial
Konoha:
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this is a weird "proof without words" that seems like it's supposed to be accompanied by someone speaking (to francish)
I cut that part out
bot dead maybe
:(
Namington:
oh
Oh now I understand
Btw, is u and v always the same? I know I'm making really dumb questions. I stopped having math for a really long while
no
the point of this proof is to show that this space is closed under addition
(since that's one of the things we need to have a subspace)
what that means is, for any u, v in the space P
u + v should also be in P
so u and v might not be the same
I mean when we're making this kind of proof, how do I pick u and v values?
I get that we got u from looking at the condition, but what about v?
i'm not sure what you mean
u and v are totally arbitrary
they're symbols that represent any vectors from P
not a specific one
What about v_3 and u_3, what happened to them in the end of the calculus? They were not used
all you need to show is that u + v is a member of P
that is to say, it needs to satisfy this
or in others words:
$(u_1 + v_1, u_2 + v_2, u_3 + v_3)$ satisfies $(u_1 + v_1)^2 - (u_2 + v_2) = 0$
that is what you need to show
we dont need to show anything with the 3rd coordinate
since that doesnt affect whether our vector u+v is a member of P or not
Namington:
typo corrected^
this is what we need to check.
note that we dont care about x_3
(as long as its a real number)
we just need to check that x_1^2 - x_2 = 0
x_3 doesnt come into play at all
that is to say, no matter what value x_3 has
it won't affect whether this vector is a member of P
Okay I think I understood now
$\begin{pmatrix}2\4\x_3\end{pmatrix}$ is a member of $P$ no matter what value $x_3$ takes
Namington:
since it satisfies $2^2 - 4 = 0$
Namington:
x_3 could be 50, or -12305.394, or pi, or 0, or whatever
and it wouldnt affect membership in P
Yeah I understood, thank you very much for explaining, I was struggling here
by definition of eigen space, it is null(T-lambda I), what is range(T-lambda I)
the basis of null(T-lambda I) is an eigen vector I guess
if null(T - lambda I) is nonzero then range(T - lambda I) isn't all of V
that's right off the top of my head
idk, it's isomorphic to V / ker(T - lambda I) (think about what this space looks like)
(first isomorphism theorem)
feels like kind of an open ended q
unless im missing something
I think the range should be something related to the other eigenspaces
If you have null(T - lambda I) = null(T - lambda I)^2 then the image should be precisely the other eigenspaces (for finite dimensions)
If my linear algebra isn't that rusty
For example if you have a linear map T that is diagonalizable with eigenvalues 2, 3, 7 then range(T - 2 I) is exactly null(T - 3 I) + null(T - 7 I)
If the map isn't diagonalizable you need to look at things like the characteristic polynomial and higher powers of the (T - lambda I)
thank you, i think I get it know
For example if you have a linear map T that is diagonalizable with eigenvalues 2, 3, 7 then range(T - 2 I) is exactly null(T - 3 I) + null(T - 7 I)
@rose coral this clearifies my another question about why null(T-lambda_n I) subset sum_{i=1}^{n-1} range(T-lambda_i I)
No problem, glad I could clarify that for you
i need some help
can someone point me in the direction of a video explaining how to solve an equation like
8d-2=6d-10
I'm playing around with elements of the set of all periodic functions from R to R. Let's call it $\mathbb{S}$.
$f(x) = \sin (x) \in \mathbb{S} \\$
$g(x) = \sin (\pi x) \in \mathbb{S} \\$
$h(x) = \sin (x \sqrt{2}) \in \mathbb{S}$.
$\\$
Any two of the linear combos of the above functions is a counter example to the notion that $\mathbb{S}$ is a linear subspace of $\mathbb{R}^\mathbb{R}$.```
ninnymonger:
How do I show that f+g, or g+h, or f+h is NOT a period function?
This is my playing around on Desmos with these functions: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/lkeoihmryh
By inspection, they're not "periodic"
How about this, since they're "periodic" they should pass through y=0 at "regular" intervals?
wouldn't they be periodic though
$sin(x + 2\pi) + sin(\pi x + 2\pi) = sin(x) + sin(\pi x)$ ?
Um no
The x+2pi is inside parenthesis
This is what the internet says.
I am being asked to show that S is not a subspace of R^R.
and showing that f+g \notin S seems sensible.
How does that imply sin(sqrt(2)p)=0 and cosp=1 tho
I don't understand the internet's solution......but root(2) \in Q seems like a good contradiction.
you may have an easier time using indicators instead of sins, eg indicator on integers & indicator on multiples of e
yes
i don't know how to use indicators.
the defn on its wiki page is all you need to know
indicator on integers & indicator on multiples of e
their sum is 2 at 0 but nowhere else
What's wrong with this proof?
At the highlighted point is an instance where cos(p)+sin(sqrt(2)p)=1 but cos(p)โ 1 and sin(sqrt(2)p)โ 0
I see now
so the internet proof is wrong?
I have no idea how they conclude that cos(p) = 1
1 = a + b = a - b \iff a = 1 & b = 0
Ah
Oh yeah that makes sense
Ok that's actually kind of big brain
If they explained it a bit more
Yeah
You can write:
(7 - ฮป)x - y = 0
-6x + (8 - ฮป)y = 0
Then it comes down to reducing a matrix @storm ravine
ive never done that before :/
@Flow#8160 Ok so I took a day off ystd, here's what I got so far. Let basis of V be $(v_1,...,v_n)$.
Define $S: V -> V$, where $S(\sum_{I=1}^{n} (a_iv_i) = a_iv_i$, where $i \in {1,...,n}$. So $TSv= T(a_iv_i) = a_i Tv_i$ and now I'm stuck on STv, since S transforms basis vectors
Otoro:
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@old flame you need to be a bit more precise with that notation, since it's kinda misleading here. take any v_1 in V \ {0}. extend to a basis (v_1, v_2, ..., v_n) of V. then define S by S(v_1) = v_1 and S(v_i) = 0 for the other basis vectors v_2, ..., v_n. now, what happens when you consider STv_1 and TSv_1?
there is some bad latex in there
yea that too lol
instead of $S: V -> V$ write $S: V \to V$
Ann:
looks nicer doesn't it
Oh LOL sorry I didn't edit that, cause I was just typing on my note pad
So TSv_1 would become Tv_1, while I'm not sure for STv_1, since Tv_1 is not a basis vector, however we could express it in terms of basis vectors and continue with it ?
Since ST = TS we get S(Tv_1) = T(Sv_1) = Tv_1 and therefore Tv_1 is in range(S).
now, what is range(S)?
range S is not range T
but its a subspace, but you can define it explicitly
we constructed S, so you can read off its range
Wait could you explain why ? Doesn't TS=ST means elements from both ranges are in the same space ?
range(ST) = range(TS) but not range(S) = range(T)
that assumption would completely contradict what you want to prove
your goal is to show that T is a scaled identity
if range(S) and range(T) were the same, then range(T) would be a 1D subspace of V
you cant derive it from what you know anyway
so again, what is range(S)
we defined S by S(v_1) = v1 and S(v_i) = 0 for the other basis vectors
what is range(S)
Ok let me see
range(S) = ....
$range S = v_1$ where $v_1 \in V$ right ?
Otoro:
almost, but range is a vector space
it cant be a vector
but range(S) = span(v_1)
by construction, range(S) = span(v_1) = { ฮปv_1 | ฮป in F }
hence, Tv_1 = ฮปv_1 for some ฮป in F.
hello I see you right here can you help me with assignment
I'm too smol brain for this
@old flame with this construction we showed that T maps any vector v in V to some scaled v. the next step is to show that every v gets scaled by the same factor
if a vector w is in the span of v1 and v2 where v1 and v2 are elements of R^n with n>=3, what is the "correct" way to get the coordinate vector c such that [v1 v2]c=w (alternatively c1v1+c2v2=w)
is it just elimination or is there some other method?
if you only have to find this for a single w, then elimination is the standard way
if you want to do this for all w in some space spanned by v1 and v2, then you can calculate the one sided inverse of [v1, v2]
and then calculate the coordinates by multiplying by the change of basis matrix
by one sided matrix you mean (lets say U i guess) U[v1 v2]=I_2?
im almost certain U would not be unique, but then c would be c=Uw right?
yeah definitely thats a given. otherwise the question is trivial
yea, then (v1, v2) is the basis of a vector space, and you are basically doing a change of basis here