#linear-algebra
2 messages ยท Page 108 of 1
(i still don't quite know what you said. The "every square matrix would be invertible if that were true" comment makes sense in context)
they asked if every square matrix in rref is the identity. a square matrix is invertible iff it reduces to the identity. therefore if every square matrix reduces to the identity, every square matrix is invertible
so no, i was right in context
Yea exactly lol, it's not really copswing worthy because it makes sense in context
It's fine, it happens to the best of us
thanks for catching that
i dont have the most keen eye right after waking up it seems
I don't think most people do lol. I've made stupid mistakes while doing math after having just woken up
But I've also given decently okay explanations even after just waking up. I remember giving that example to Chaf the other day after having just woken up lol
i guess it really does depend on how you interpret their question, because if you interpret it how i did as "every square matrix's rref is the identity" then what i said is true, but if you interpret it as "every square matrix already in rref is the identity" then its definitely not true
Well, the person asked "Are all square matrices in rref identity matrices?". That's just the same as asking; if I take any random square matrix and do row reduction, will I get the identity matrix at the end?
So, i think you interpreted it correctly
i think it's still reasonable to interpret it in the latter way, since if you remove the word "already" you have exactly their question
but this is a question on semantics and interpretation, not linear algebra, so it's probably best to keep it out of the channel now
Why the definition of determinant works ??
I do not seem to find a proff on the internet
what do you mean by "works"
Why do we do it by reducing the matrix in simplier matrixs
So like a 3 x 3 matrix? why you have to reduce it?
Yep
I know that it is because of a definition
But I do not know why it is defined that way
Have you learn the propertiies of Determinants?
Yep
I m right now giving a prove for them hahaha
In order to understand them well
Is because when I do row reduction I make that math with the numbers ?
can you define "works"
@gritty frigate the reason why we row reduce matrices is because each row corresponds to an equation
And we want them to be in the form x = .., y = .., z = ..
ok so i have to say i dont understand the idea of the dual basis at all
i keep seeing this idea thrown around and im not following
sorry was trying to type if out but im so bad at the TexIT
um the idea that
i think i can do it without it here hopefully its not to confusing
let f_i be a linear functional and v1,...,vn a basis of V
f_i(v_j) = 1 if j = i and f_i(v_j) = 0 if i =/= j
im so confused as to why we are going to 1?
so it takes every vector in the basis of V to 1?
i guess where im confused it that doesnt a linear functional just take something to F? for example x,y in R^2: x,y = 2x + 2y would be a linear functional right?
what exactly is f_i then?
ok hang on i think this is where im confused
given a basis vector in R^2,2x+ 2y would be uniquely determined on that basis but this where im getting lost
i dont understand why we have multiple f_i
yea because it will closure i can see that from that example
err it will satisfies the requirements for a vector space sorry
thats where im confused i think yea
LADR
ive really liked it up to this point
ok
how did you know that off the top of your head lol
ohhhh lol
oh i saw this proof too in a video
dim(V*) = dim(V)dim(F)
and because dim(F) is 1
ok so the basis for V* has to be multiple functionals
ok then why does it have to take basis vectors to one when i = j
is it just because 1 is the basis for F?
so since we know what it does for the basis we know what the transformation does everywhere?
the reason is convenience, if you imagine the vectors in a matrix then multiplying the two matrices gets you the identity matrix
in other words, they're matrix inverses
$f_i(v_j) = \delta_{ij}$
Merosity:
why does it take i =/= j to 0?
because they're orthogonal as vectors, think of it this way
F has the f_i as row vectors and V has the v_j as column vectors
making FV = I have the entries of every possible dot product of f_i and v_j
if i=j, the diagonal are all 1s
off the diagonal of hte identity matrix are 0s
wait fi (vj) is the dot product?
i thought it was saying to plug in
maybe im just a moron
ive heard of it
it is a no
actually no i dont know
yea
if v and u are orthogonal then v* u = 0
[1,0] * [0,1] = 1* 0 + 0*1
ok so wait why if i =/= j is f_i(v_j) = 0
honestly i havent felt lost at all till now
ok so just take it on faith?
im honestly ok with that answer
as dumb as that sounds
ok
same for why it takes it to 1?
yeah, it's just a choice that ends up being computationally convenient
it's not derived from anything
hm let me try this what does it mean that its 1?
like we are just trying to form a basis for the linear functional?
errr the dual space
which is the space of all linear functionals on V
so hang on what would be an example of the dual space on R^2?
2x, 2y?
lets just use the standard basis
[0,1],[1,0]
slimvesus:
yea sorry
so do i need to specify that we take the y/x vector to 0?
2
so wait we know it takes x to 2x but because i havent specified anything for y?
ok what about just x?
and y then
because it has to have dim 2 right?
ok that helps alot to see
thank you
yep cause if you dot those you do get the identity like Merosity said cool
ok i think i feel better about this
neat
write out what $$AA^{-1} = I$$ means
TTerra:
the question was "given an invertible $n \times n$ matrix $A$, show that the $ith$ row of $A$ and $j$th column of $A^{-1}$ are orthogonal for $i \neq j$, and that their dot product is $1$ for $i = j$"
TTerra:
rarely do i get stuff here that's NOT hw
yeah I was wanting to shame them for backing out of making themselves seem even remotely vulnerable for posting a question then deleting after they get an answer
I don't care if it's homework or not lol
because you want the matrix to commute with its inverse
and that forces the matrix and its inverse to be square
I don't know about that
maybe copswing worthy explanation
if the left and right inverse exist, then you can show they're equal and it commutes but
I would say if you want both a left and right inverse it has to be square
like for instance, imagine an inclusion mapping from R^2 to R^3, you're basically imagining your 2D plane to now be in 3D space
you can invert this operation by immediately forgetting that you did this, and everything is fine going back to R^2
but if you go from R^3 to R^2, no such way of undoing that operation so easily
Namington:
since then you cant multiply it by the same matrix on both sides (and produce a square matrix)
that just begs the question, why do you want a matrix to commute with its inverse?
because otherwise $A \neq (A^{-1})^{-1}$
Namington:
which makes the notion of inverse much less useful
I don't think this answers the original question asked
"why must a matrix be a square to have an inverse?"
it only suggests why it's convenient
my response was just saying that I don't accept the premise, so that's why I didn't answer it ๐
well yeah your explanation is perfectly adequate if a "graphical" argument is acceptable
non square matrices can have inverses
yeah that's why I had explained through an example already
but I think because @royal slate ran off this is further burying it
fair.
suppose AB = BA for some matrices A and B. for these matrix multiplications to even make sense you need A to be m x n and B to be n x m for some positive integers m, n. then this is saying that the m x m matrix AB is equal to the n x n matrix BA, which only makes sense if n = m; i.e. A and B are square.
now, consider AB = BA = I. this means that B is the inverse of A. as the previous paragraph shows, A and B must be square. this shows that if you define "A is invertible" as "there is a matrix B with AB = BA = I", then that forces A and B to be square. it's much more common to define invertibility only for square matrices, but i just showed that there is no loss in generality in doing so. this is what i meant in my first message.
this should answer your question assuming i have interpreted it correctly as "if a matrix has an inverse, why must it be square?". if i have not, please let me know @royal slate
and looking back, this is basically what namington was saying. i just wanted to make it very clear what i meant by my initial answer
If you've learnt about matrices as equivalent objects to linear maps, then it's easier to think about why only square matrices can have multiplicative inverses (barring all talk of left/right inverses).
Let $A \in M(m \times n, \bF)$. Then, you can think of the matrix $A$ as being represented by some linear map $f: \mathbb{F}^n \to \mathbb{F}^m$.
Now, you can prove that two vector spaces are isomorphic iff they have the same dimension. That means that there exists a bijective linear map between two vector spaces iff they have the same dimension. If you want your matrix to be invertible, the linear map it is associated with has to be invertible as well. So, it has to be bijective. Thus, $m = n$. But that just means that $A$ is a square matrix.
This doesn't mean that it's always going to be invertible. Indeed, not all square matrices are invertible. I think that's a more useful way ot think about this stuff, though.
rip latex though i think you've gotten almost obsessed with writing latex essays lately
Kek yea idk
Is it wrong to say that a basis is the same as the smallest generating set for a vector space?
sounds about right 
hooray
I see
ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
a basis is a MINIMAL spanning set
I see, minimal is a better word
meaning no proper subset of it still spans the space
thanks!
@shy atlas 
it's my birthday.
happy birthday ann, what birthday is it for you?
my 21st
ohh nice
no no no @shy atlas chill only comes fourth in the order^tm
or third if you don't count prank

What is the corollary saying that the theorem isn't already?
nothing.
er
nvm
it's saying that the product of however many invertible matrices you want, not just two, is invertible.
Ah ๐คฆโโ๏ธ ofc
Thanks for clearing that up!
Makes sense
thanks
@crystal oracle I'm curious now, where does this appear in Linear Algebra Done Right?
@wintry steppe I used this to solve 3rd edition - section 6.B "Orthonormal bases" problem 13
is this correct? assuming the entries of B are functions of t, and A and C have only scalar entries
$$\int_{x_0}^{x}\left(AB(t)C\right)dt=A\left(\int_{x_0}^{x}(B(t))dt \right)C$$
nix:
i guess same question for differentiation and indefinite integrals
Let's say that this holds, where $A$ and $B$ are real $3\times3$-matrices, $c,d\in\mathbb{R}$, and $P$ is a unitary $3\times 3$-matrix. Is $P$ real?
gustavn64:
sure why not
set c = d and P = identity
@hollow finch yeah that's fine; matrix multiplication is just basically taking a bunch of linear combinations, and integrals are linear with respect to that
if you write out the matrix multiplications in terms of sums and matrix entries, it's easy to see that your relation holds
good point, that was kinda what i was thinking. so any linear operation should probably have some analogue for matrices, in this case pulling a scalar out of an integral.
@eager burrow I'm assuming that that holds for some values of $P,A,B,c,d$
gustavn64:
yeah sure
oh whoops brainfart then
but no, this is not necessarily true; you could have P = i * identity, for example
Guys
If I have a vector B so that |B| = 1
How can I get another vector with the same direction of B but such that |B| = X
multiply B with x
Having the |B| = 1 vector, how can I get another with the same magnitude
You are right hhahahahaa
I forgot that important property...
@gritty frigate if you have B = (a,b) and |B| = 1 then sqrt(a^2+b^2) = 1
I was thinking on doing pow 2 on both sides and them multiply by x
Then xB = (xa, xb) giving us |B| = sqrt(x^2a^2 + x^2b^2) = sqrt(x^2(a^2+b^2)) = sqrt(x^2) = x
Oh yea that works too
Well it did not worked D:
The first thing you said works perfect
But I do not what I m doing wrong that the method I proposed does not work
ax+by+cz+d = 0 is a line on R3 ??
I mean, if you know that a line in R2 is ax+by+c=0
Can I use ax+by+cz+d=0 on R3 ?
If we rewrite this as ax + by + cz = d
And define n (the normal to the plane) = (a,b,c)
Then n * (x,y,z) = d
- is the dot product here
The dot product here essentially says that if we project a point along the normal, it should land on the plane defined by that normal if (x,y,z) satisfies the equation
And the magnitude of the projected vector yields d, the distance from the origin to the plane(which is a constant)
And if d = 0, the plane passes through the origin
I'm trying to find the solutions from the augmented matrix, is this any good ?
I put the augmented matrix in rref, and I get that last step. Do I then interpret that final matrix to find the solutions ?
For example I'm trying to find for what values of "h" and "k" does the system have 1) no solutions 2) one solution 3) many solutions
<@&286206848099549185>
For problem one I'm totally lost on how to set it up
I can do the LU and LDU factorizations but from there I'm lost
I would help y'all but I ain't got the time.
I'd say, for self help, try reading different sources.
If you have a link that explains that would be cool
but if your busy no worries of course
What do you have for the factorizations?
@wintry steppe I think this may help https://www.youtube.com/watch?time_continue=437&v=m3EojSAgIao&feature=emb_title
This video explains how to use LU Decomposition to solve a system of linear equations.
Site: http://mathispower4u.com
Blog: http://mathispower4u.wordpress.com
Does anyone have some indicators for my problem? I'm still stuck ๐
I have to prove the composition of two injective linear transformations is injective
I made this but i dont know if am i right
a linear map sends the zero vector to the zero vector, regardless of injectivity
an injective linear map sends only the zero vector to the zero vector (this condition is equivalent to injectivity)
that is, if T is linear, then T is injective if and only if Tx = 0 implies x = 0
now try the problem again
prove the thing i just said if you haven't seen it before, it's a straightforward application of linearity
(this also just follows from T and S being functions....)
Then can i assume TS is not injective then that implies kerS is different from 0? Because 0 of image of S is the 0 of domain of T
you don't need a contradiction proof
you can either try a contradiction proof, or prove it directly (easier)
(ignore the deleted message, misread it)
I'll have a look! ๐ @naive skiff
Abhijeet Vats:
i assumed they knew that the composition of linear maps is linear
but, for their sake, they should know that this is absolutely necessary to know for using the thing i mentioned
you need to know TS is linear to be able to use the fact i mentioned after all
wot which fact?
a linear map is injective iff kernel is trivial
it's so much easier to just say/prove that the composition of injective functions is injective, but for the sake of learning linear algebra it wouldn't hurt for them to prove it using that (and i am assuming that they are being implicitly asked to do so)
Urhh wait probably completely misinterpreted what you said lol
Abhijeet Vats:
Oh also, I got an analysis problem yesterday that's pretty spicy. It's pretty nice haha
\ker format
$ A = (2,5,3), B = (0,0,2), C = (0, - 3,0)
Find the area of the triangle made by this points.$
AfterJack:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
$
Consider:
BA = (2,5,1)
|BA| = \sqrt{30}
BC = (0,-3,2)
|BC| = \sqrt{13}
CA = (2,8,3)
|CA| = \sqrt{77}
How would you find H, picking any magnitude as the base ?
$
Oh that hurts..
AfterJack:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
\\ for newlines is probably what you're looking for
$ BA = (2,5,1) \\
|BA| = \sqrt{30} \\
BC = (0, -3, 2) \\
|BC| = \sqrt{13} \\
CA = (2, 8, 3) \\
|CA| = \sqrt{77} $
Ann:
hey this is probably a very dumb question
is A an augmented or coefficient matrix?
like i genuinely don't know when matrices are coefficient or augmented and i feel rlly dumb
augmented matrix vs coefficient matrix only matters when you're dealing with a system of equations.
doesn't it also matter when u do rref and looking for the general solution?
the general solution of a SYSTEM OF EQUATIONS
which you have not written down yet
but the question essentially asks you to solve Ax = 0.
for which A would be the coefficient matrix, if you so insist.
i'd rather not be called dude but you're welcome
Can there be a Rank for a matrix A that is a set of F^(n*m)? I.e. are ranks for any spans or just spans of real numbers?
im sorry! i just have a bad habit of saying dude all the time
Dude
johncarmack your question doesn't make much sense
please check your wording and try again
You just called xir a dude. Check your privilege
how can i do this without knowing what T is?
Use the fact that T is linear
Hmm, let me use latex. Is there a latex bot in this server?
there is.
@forest quail you know Tu and Tv and that T is linear
that's all you need
How should I invoke it?
just write a message with at least one instance of mathmode anywhere in it and it'll render it for you like this: $T(u+v) = T(u) + T(v)$
Ann:
Deal, thanks
(also my pronouns are she/her just for future reference)
waiting for feedback from soaringbear...

If matrix A is equal to some scalar x times some matrix B, what is the relation between detA and detB?
det A = lambda^n det B, n denoting dimension of the matrix
if A is n x n, then det(cA) = c^n det(A)
lol
we literally said it at the exact same time
you dont need anything fancy to prove this btw, just multilinearity of det
Yeah thanks just checking, just did an exam one of the questions was if det(A*B) defines a dot product, where A,B are 2x2 matrices. But it doesnt follow, in such dot product <xA,B>=/=x<A,B>
ooh that's a nice question
I think i got it right
looks right
det((cA)B) = c^2 det(AB), not necessarily equal to c det(AB) as you'd expect from an inner product
even just addition wrt one component would go wrong, but scalar multiplication is definitely an easier way to see that linearity fails
Im proud of my self, this year i have been strugling to keep up and adjust to uni, and then corona hit and my uni didnt adapt, so i was forced to study this alone without proper resources. Feels good i got at least that dumb question right

if you keep doing questions like this (imo this is a good question because it tests understanding and isn't an immediately straightforward computation) then you'll get comfortable with the material
but math is hard, you should be proud
in the case of your question, n = 2
TTerra:
well satisfying that is equivalent to satisfying multilinearity
sshhh
also thats unironically probably how i'd prove it if you forced me to, just because it takes up less space on the page
no writing necessary just a single block of mathmode
i'd always thought of it as something that is just true for multilinear functions in general, so i've never thought of proving det(cA) = c^n det(A) in that way
Haha yea that seems to be a more natural approach to me too
the habit of writing out multilinear functions has been hammered into me by multilinear algebra
its just what ive gotten used to
i go through a lot of paper
what have you tried?
do i just make up a matrix that follows the given
Hint, if T is a linear transformation then what is T(0)?
no, you do not make up a matrix for anything
would you prove that the product of any two even numbers is even by showing that 66 * 188 is even?
no you wouldn't
tterra don't thonk me i'm trying to demonstrate the absurdity of soaringbear's line of reasoning to them
ok ok sorry
@forest quail do you know what a linear transformation is?
and PLEASE do not ghost me like you did last time.
after watching a few khan academy vids i finally figured it out! but thank u so much!!
@forest quail C'mon man, she even said please -.-
She literally told you not to ghost her
oh wait i thought she was talking to tterra?
ohh nvm i just read the chat sorryy!!!
i have dnd on so i wasn't aware you responded
all she told me was not to misuse one of the emojis lol
Listen. If you're going to ask questions, keep Discord open so you can immediately talk to the individual who's helping you. They'll usually ping you, like Ann did.
i will!! i'm just not used to people responding so quickly
time is a precious commodity
abhijeets mom comes cheap
Is it true that for every field ๐ฝ, for every vector space V over ๐ฝ, for every vector subspace U of V, there exists a subspace W of V, such that U+W is a direct sum, and U+W=V?
yes
Assuming the axiom of choice yeah, but if your vector spaces are not finite-dimensional, that space W might be awful
imagine rejecting choice
What about if there is no Hamel basis?
For example, if the the axiom of choice is false
Well, I just want to know whether this statement follows from ZF
It's just that my textbook says that it can be shown "without the hypothesis that V is finite dimensional using considerably more advanced tools" and doesn't elaborate
I see, thanks
I thought that maybe by "more advanced tools" he meant transfinite something
lat ouch 
When I do Au = .. I get:
Au= 2u^(T)u + vv^(T)u - Iu = 2u^(T)u + vv^(T)u - u
How do you get the first and second terms?
I only get why Iu=u
How is the text relevant?
They just define A
and do A times u
and get the rightside, i dont know how the first and second terms are gathered
or mb its relevant
it says that v and u are orthogonal vectors in R5 @shy atlas xd
$u^Tv= u \cdot v$
soฮฑฯ:
is that what you're asking about ?
Says Let u and v be two orthogonal vectors in R^5 and ||u||=2, ||v||=3, and let A = 2uu^2+vv^T-I
yes
Does anyone have any resources for getting a geometric interpretation of a complex eigenvector (of a real matrix)?
I know it has to do with rotation, so is there some sort of way to find an associated ellipse or something?
@eager kestrel if you treat u,v as column vectors and follow the rules of matrix multiplication then v^Tu gives the inner product (v,u)
@eager kestrel if you treat u,v as column vectors and follow the rules of matrix multiplication then v^Tu gives the inner product (v,u)
@gray dust yeah i found it out
Although i need to read up on geometric and algebraic multipliciticy in relation to the spectraltheorm and defective eigenvalues
If I send a problem and my work is someone able to help me with a linear algebra problem? It's about solving a matrix equation and then writing the solution parametrically, and when I got down to writing the solution parametrically I got some weird factoring problem. Hard to explain but if I sent my work and wrote some comments in it would someone be able to point me in the right direction at that step?
I think everything else about it is fine
@delicate zealot
I think the question is explained well enough but if there needs to be clarification I can provide it. Reducing the matrix is not the issue, rather it is the parametric definition that follows.
So if the dim of L(V,W) = dim(V) * dim(W) does that mean that an operator on V has a dim(V)^2? That just seems kinda odd
you should be more precise: "the dimension of the space of linear operators on V (finite dimensional) has dimension dim(V)^2"
a nice way to think about this is to fix a basis of V, and then identify linear operators on V with matrices of size nxn. how many "basic" nxn matrices are there?
and with what linear operators on V do those matrices coincide?
results having to do with subspaces of linear maps are easy to intuit if you fix a basis and think about matrices (im sure that's not the only way)
what do you mean by dim I've never seen that terminology before
the dimension of a vector space
dim is dimension of a vector space
the number of elements in a basis for the vector space. one can show that this makes sense (all bases have the same number of elements). unsurprisingly, R^n has dimension n, for example
if you accept choice, then all vector spaces have bases, infinite or not. those with finite bases are called finite-dimensional vector spaces, and one nice thing about them is that after fixing a basis, you can just think of the vector space as R^(dimension)
anyways
@ocean sequoia does what i said make sense?
that's my intuition for that result
no it does
actually im pretty sure that's the proof for that result lol
im actually working atm but im pretty sure if did an example it would help
and R^2 shouldnt be too hard
cause you can define an isomorphism sending the "all zeros except i,j" to the corresponding linear operator and then since isomorphic spaces have the same dimension you're done
an example? hmm
in R^2 you have a canonical basis, so all your linear maps are multiplication by a matrix
so the set of linear operators on R^2 is basically the set of real 2x2 matrices (yes, i know, they technically contain different objects, but they are so similar)
alright
(i hope that doesn't count as an example lol)
hahahha i wont count it as wone lol
oh
wait
duh
it would have to be the set of all 2x2 matricies
wow
ok well that also makes alot of sense
yeah, and once you go to an abstract vector space, it's basically the same situation after choosing a basis
yep
you don't actually need to introduce matrices to prove the result that dim L(V,W) = dim(V)dim(W), but you do need to pick a basis of each space. but at that point, you may as well do matrix magic
its a good way to visualize things (if that's even necessary)
yeah with a matrix it's easy to see how things work in the basis
now here's a related question: if V is finite dimensional and W is infinite dimensional, what's dim L(V,W)? (came up with this just now lol)
(you may assume choice)
i actually have never worked with infinite dimensional vector spaces : /
but let me try and think
id guess it would be
infinite
yeah
(i haven't actually sat down and verified anything, but ive got a proof outline in my head)
that kinda makes sense but i know nothing about infinite vector spaces
they are the spaces where rank nullity fails lmao
the most important examples of infinite dimensional spaces are probably function spaces
so you're probably more acquainted with them than you think
also dual space stuff goes wrong (basically anything where you would initially choose a basis goes wrong)
wait so like rank + null doesnt equal dim?
honestly i kinda was going to guess it was going to be a function-y
like it couldnt be injective or surjective
but i would guess it would still be unqiuely defined because V is finite?
if V is finite dimensional, yes, rank T + nullity T = dim V for any linear map T : V to W
im not sure what you mean by "it couldnt be injective or surjective"
what is "it"?
dont be afraid to call me out if im saying things that go past what you know lol
also i thought about it a bit harder, and im not quite sure how to prove the question i came up with
maybe i can ask it here
i appreciate htat
btw just because i have always been shaky on my definition when people say uniquely determined on a basis means that each element of V for T(V) then each element gets taken to a unique element of W?
and the inverse must be true as well? So if we L(V,W) then each element of W can only be expressed in one way from V?
do you mean in reference to a linear map @ocean sequoia
yes
i see that thrown around a linear map is unqiuely determined on its basis and i feel i sorta understand it
but not exactly
yea
ok one moment
if $v_1, \dots, v_n$ is a basis for $V$ and if $S,T : V \to W$ are linear maps (the dimension of $W$ doesn't matter here) then if $S(v_i) = T(v_i)$ for each $i$, then $S = T$
TTerra:
which can be interpreted as: if you have a linear map $T : V \to W$ and any other linear map $S : V \to W$ which agrees with $T$ on a basis of $V$, then $S = T$
TTerra:
as for constructing linear maps, you can do as follows: if $v_1, \dots, v_n$ is a basis of $V$ and $w_1, \dots, w_n$ are any vectors in $W$ (so long as there are $n$ of them, it doesn't matter if they're linearly independent or not), then define $$T(\sum a_iv_i) = \sum a_iw_i.$$ this can be shown to be the unique linear map sending $v_i$ to $w_i$
TTerra:
My linear algebra class over the summer isnโt going to cover change of basis. Am I going to miss anything important?
take your time. No rush. Take 20 days if you like.
i didnt mean to come off as rude
@ocean sequoia this can all be taken as "if you know a linear map's values on a basis, you know it's values everywhere"
thonk me if i made a mistake
@spice storm change of basis is rather important, but there isn't a great deal to it so you can definitely cover it yourself
if you covered linear maps and their matrix representations wrt some bases, then that's almost enough to cover change of basis. the change of basis matrix P from bases A to B is the matrix of the identity map wrt A & B, ie for any vector x, P acting on the coords of x wrt A produces the coords of x wrt B @spice storm
wait, does the "wait until the channel isn't occupied" rule hold in the specific math channels as well? i know it's there for the question/help channels but i don't want to try to reference a rule that might not exist
it IS a rule for all channels but it's one of the least followed and hardest to enforce in practice
BUT please make sure that no one else is being helped before you jump in! if someone is already being helped, try another "questions" channel and ask your question there.
as a general server rule
yeah
rule2 specifically
was just making sure, thanks
i take that back waiting 15min before pinging helpers is the hardest to enforce
Two R3 vectors can always exist on the same plane ??
@gritty frigate did you end up proving your statement from yesterday?
Oh which one ?
Matrix det.
i think I did
I saw some articles
Its the number we get if we dow Gauss-Jordan method
For what I understood
If I use common sense... Two vectors on R3 can always be considered on the same plane...
the problem comes when a third R3 vector comes into place. Am I right ?
@wintry steppe thank you that makes sense especially the S = T if S(vi) = T(vi)
there's only a problem if you require three linearly independent vectors in the same plane

sorry for the late response i got pulled to help teach on the floor for a few minutes
if you havent seen that theorem before, then you can try proving it yourself
its not a very tricky proof, basically just right from the definitions
(this is in response to brzig)
yea i just wanted to make sure i understood it correctly
i think i did awhile ago but i felt a bit shaky
and it seemed better to ask
sitting down and trying to recall things you did way before is a really good way to review and remember stuff
yea which is why i wanted to refresh my self
TTerra:
but to put this into my own words to make sure its correct
if v1,...,vn is a basis of V and w1,...,wn is a basis of W and S(vi) = wi then any transformation L(V,W) that sends vi to wi will be equal to S(vi)
sorry i just dont want to reguirate definition wanted to try and say it in my own correct way to make sure i get it
remember that this result doesnt actually rely on W having a finite basis
so you can state it a bit more generally
BUT
what you've written seems alright, but i'd change the very last part to "equal to S" and i'd also write "any transformation in L(V,W)"
ok perfect thanks!
hello everyone
I want to write this matrix as PDP^-1
I understand I must use the eigenvectors as base, etc
but
is there any way I can calculate the eigenvalues without tackling this 4x4 matrix?
some line switching jumbo or something?
because lambdas will ruin the 3rd row and I was aiming for that one for the laplace determinant
maybe not the best solution, but I would personally reduce one of the columns and then do cofactor expansion
hmm
the top two lines are great for laplace
I'm not sure I know what cofactor expansion is
I'm pretty sure cofactor expansion is what you call laplace.
We know how row operations affect the determinant. In particular, adding a multiply of a row to another does not change the determinant. So I would reduce the first column w/ gaussian elimination, and then do laplace on the first column.
npnp
I donโt quite understand what this sentence is saying: โIn the case of a single dxd Jordan block with ฮป=0, these dimensions are ...โ
<@&286206848099549185>
can you help with these problems ?
@wispy cape what do you need help with in particular?
@wispy cape what do you need help with in particular?
@wintry steppe question 3
@wispy cape i assume that "equally inclined" here means that the plane has a slope that is equal respect to x, y and z axes
ill draw a diagram to make more sense of this
can you go DM
sure
so I follow
a random sequence of symbols
scalar triple product
scalar triple product
@quartz compass Thanks hahaha
which is just the determinant
Yep
yeah you're welcome lol
That formula is the area of a 3D figure created by the 3 vectors. What is its name (I do not speack english)
The area is made of the absolute value of it*
What is the name of that figure in english? hahahah
@quartz compass do you have any idea what the sentence โIn the case of a single dxd ...โ means?
Ah I think I got it
So since L(V,W) is a in fact a vector space does that mean there is a basis for for L(V,W)?
I didnt see that mentioned but given that a dual space is a linear transformation from V to F should and we can have a basis for the dual space would there be a basis for L(V,W) as well?
Let $(v_1,\dots,v_n)$ be a basis for $V$ and $(w_1,\dots,w_m)$ be a basis for $W$ (when these vector spaces have infinite dimensions is pretty similar), we can let $$T_{a,b}(v_{i})=\delta_{a,i}w_b$$ then all the $T_{a,b}$, where $1\leq a\leq n$ and $1\leq b\leq m$, form a basis for $L(V,W)$
Whoever:
im only wworking with finite spaces atm if that makes it easier
no i figured there would be a basis
So L(V,W) can be represented as matrices, and a natural basis for the set of mxn matrices is where we have 1 on a single entry and 0 everywhere else
So the linear transformation I defined there, when represented as a matrix with respect to the basis v and w, is exactly a matrix where we have 1 in one entry and 0 everywhere else
yea ok that makes sense
because any transformation for example from R^2 to R^2 could be shown as a linear combination of identity matrix

There is only 1 identity matrix
So if every linear transformation is a linear combination of identity matrix then the dimension of L(R^2,R^2) is 1
Which is
Only slightly incorrect
yea cause it needs to be 4 right?
Yeah
Wait are you talking about a matrix with 1 on one entry and 0 everywhere else?
Was that what you meant by โidentityโ?
ok
yea rip
sorry for the ping not sure if this is rude but when you said
Wait are you talking about a matrix with 1 on one entry and 0 everywhere else?
@pallid rampart this means that if we had four 2x2 matrices of a one in each corner that would be a basis for the operator?
this btw is not the same thing as finding a basis for the range of T right?
Not a basis for an operator, a basis is always for a vector space, and in this case the 4 matrices form a basis of the set of all 2x2 matrices
And yeah itโs not the same thing as finding a basis of the range of T
L(V,W) is the set of all linear transformation from V to W
Not a basis for an operator, a basis is always for a vector space, and in this case the 4 matrices form a basis of the set of all 2x2 matrices
Isn't an operator a linear transformation so it is a vector space? and isn't that then a basis for L(R^2,R^2) b/c isnt every linear transformation from R^2 to R^2 a 2x2 matrix?
Um
How is a linear transformation a vector space
The set of all linear transformation form a vector space
@pallid rampart isnt that what that is saying
or does it mean the set of all linear transformations is a vector space?
from V to W
ok i read into that too much
Ah yes from V to W
ok so I need to be more precise
but would the set of four 2x2 matrices of a one in each corner that would be a basis for the set of all transformations from R^2 to R^2?
strictly speaking, no. because a transformation from R^2 to R^2 is not the same as a 2 by 2 matrix.
what would be the basis then
because if its a vector space it would have one
or could i have a hint to try and figure it out
ive tried googling it and going back through the book but i cant find anything
Well I gave you a basis
well if you identify each 2 by 2 matrix A with the linear map (x โฆ Ax) : R^2 -> R^2
then your set becomes a basis
when you say your set you mean the set i gave above correct?
yes

so yknow how this gives u the solution to the whole least square thing
why is this a much easier way of solving least square than $Ax = $ proj$_{\text{ran A}}b$
soฮฑฯ:
@shy atlas are you going through it on your own?
AfterJack:
@shy atlas wdym? the A^T Ax = A^T b comes from Ax = proj_{ran A} b
What does orthogonality tell you above independence?
nonzero orthogonal vectors are linearly independent. the converse is very false
a counterexample for the converse should be easy to come up with
to prove the thing i said, just follow the definitions
thanks!
Linear independence requires the vectors to not be colinear
So if they arent colinear there is an orthogonal component
So orthogonality is a requirement for linear independence in a sense
oh hmm I see
you can think in R^2 and R^3 for intuition on orthogonality
you can say some things about orthogonality in infinite dimensional vector spaces (there may be a thing or two to be said about an orthogonal set of functions...)
but if you picture things in R^2, then, as robo said, orthogonality should "obviously" imply linear independence
Hey yall, Im a little new to proofs within linear algebra and I ran across this problem:
this is kinda hard to read
Suppose $m$ is a positive integer. Show that for each polynomial $q \in \mathcal{P}_m(\bR)$, there exists a polynomial $p$ such that $q = \dv[3]{x}( (x^3+2x^2+1)p)$
Ann:
wym by nature
After a really long period of solving, this statement appeared to be false. I don't know why this exact problem is worded like this, especially if its statement is false. Did the problem maker make a mistake?
The error is a dimensional error
Sorry, im not sure if my question makes sense
wym by dimensional error
the operator $T : \mathcal{P}_m(\bR) \to \mathcal{P}_m(\bR)$ defined by $Tp = \dv[3]{x} [(x^3+2x^2+1)p]$ can be shown to have trivial kernel, and since $\mathcal{P}_m(\bR)$ is finite-dimensional it'll follow that $T$ is an isomorphism and so has an inverse and then for your problem you'll have $p = T^{-1}q$
Ann:
the statement is true
The one you just posted?
the statement of the problem
what i wrote there is basically an outline of the solution lol
Is it?! ๐ข
yes
Maaan
it remains to show the following:
- T is linear
- T has trivial kernel
which are both things a linear algebra student ought to know how to do
How come the rowvectors here span a 2d space instead of three ? I dont see any rowvector which is in the span of another rowvector.
[2,1,5] = (8/7) * [1,2,4] + (3/7) * [2,-3,1]
How did you find it ?
just because your vectors aren't mutually parallel doesn't mean they form a linearly independent set
i found this by solving a linear system
So, did you do this. ==> you transponed the matrix then you did gaussian elimination with your matrix. By setting your matrix equal to zero. You turned it into a reduced row echelon form and then you got the answer. Am I right ?
no, i plugged it into WA bc i don't really feel like doing arithmetic while on the go
eh
maybe? idk if i had some paper i would have probably just written out directly the system (row 3) = x * (row 1) + y * (row 2)
the thing is baklava i see no need to constrain myself to any particular way of arranging the numbers on a page
@half ice yeah but is, is that Im looking if the rowvectors are independent not the column vectors. Thats the reason of transposition.
OH I apologize haha. Then yes, what you're doing makes sense
If you're just checking for independence, then the block of 0s is arbitrary. We typically leave it out
@viscid kernel
@half ice alright, you scared me for a bit. ๐
any idea how to solve this please
If f(3) = 0.1 and f(3.1) = 0.35 for a function f then what is the slope of f at x = 3?
Know the "rise over run" formula for slope?
I'll happily answer this here this time, but in the future know that this isn't linear algebra, despite it being a question about algebra on lines. Math is fun like that
apology for that
So do you know the formula?
yes, I know rise over run
I thought it was already in rref
All non zero rows are above any rows of all zeroes .. check
each leading entry is in a column to the right of the leading entry of the row above ... check
all entries in a column below a leading entry are zeroes ... check
the leading entry in all non zero row is 1 ... check
each leading 1 is the only non zero entry in it's column ... check
Plus he used the command rref() - how would that not be in in rref form lol
each leading 1 is the only non zero entry in it's column ... check
theres a goddamn 4 in there
that dont look very 0 to me 
I think you're talking about two different matrices and hence talking past eachother
Ya I just noticed we are
My prof isn't using the rref(a) - he's using just a
So that means he only needed the echelon form (hence the a[2] - 4*a[1])
What's the rationale behind solving 8 - 4h = 0 ?
Why would he set it = 0 ? I thought it would be 8 - 4h = k - 8 ?
Hey so if we have a x that is a sub space of V such that dim(x) < dim(V) and we are trying to map x to w and we know dim(x) = dim(w). So let T:x->W be a linear transformation from x to W does this imply T:V->W?
No because we donโt know how T functions on a basis of V?
@ocean sequoia yea its not the same mapping
Ex: take V = R^3, x to be a plane in R^3 and W to be another plane in R^3
@wintry steppe thanks yea! Thatโs what I said makes me so happy to know I got that right lol
Makes me feel like I might actually be starting to get my head around some stuff 
is span, column space, range and image all just different ways to represent a similar idea?
uh... i mean they're all vector spaces (assuming you're using the convention where "range" and "image" mean the same thing)
and the span of a matrix's columns - i.e. its column space - is the image/range of the transformation it represents
but "span" by itself is a far more general concept
than this
the other 3 ideas are all essentially the same thing though yes
(at least in the context of matrices/linear transformations, that is)
(range/image are concepts that apply to all functions; for nonlinear functions, the concept of "column space" doesnt make sense - but this is #linear-algebra so i'm assuming you're working with linear stuff)
well I did have a chapter that went over range of nonlinear functions, even though it is a linear algebra class.
then again, in the context of arbitrary functions, the idea of "column space" doesnt make sense
but ya
whereas range/image does
but yeah this sentence summarizes the relation:
the span of a matrix's columns - i.e. its column space - is the image/range of the transformation it represents
thanks thats helpful
again all these concepts (except for column space) can be generalized
but in this specific context
that's the relation
this is #prealg-and-algebra
oh sorry
hello, say for example from a characteristic equation i get (x-1)x^2, this does not have distinct eigenvalues right?
๐ค
No, it doesn't need to be
๐ค
the matrix with entries (1,0,0),(0,0,1),(0,0,0) is an example
ooh another quick question, if i was given a matrix and i had to show whether it is diagonalizable or not. it is fine for me to first convert the matrix to rref THEN determine if it's diagonalizable right?
@eager burrow hm so why is that matrix not diagonalizable ?
,w diagonalize {{1,0,0},{0,0,1},{0,0,0}}
ic 
it's kind of a standard fact; this matrix is in jordan normal form, meaning that it's "as diagonalized as can be"
theres a lot of equivalent condition to diagonalizability. u can check them if u want
oh jordan form is like chapter 9 or smth
im at 7

ye you'll get there
once you know that, you can very easily give examples of matrices which aren't diagonalizable
and basically, every characteristic polynomial with a zero of multiplicity greater 1 can be attached to a non-diagonalizable matrix
ic thats p nifty 
"as diagonalized as can be" i love that phrasing
It's easy to understand intuitively that (x,y) is being scaled linearly and all such points on a circle would become ones on an ellipse, but I don't see any obvious rigorous reason
Oh wait
(x,y) -> (ax,by), a^2x^2/a^2 + b^2y^2/b^2
Those are just different xs and ys in the book
Hi guys, just a small question but the following transformation matrix only has shearing, correct?
that's a scaling and rotation matrix
well visualise it
Note how A acts upon the standard basis
it's simple, that's 2D
positive x ends up at positive y, positive y ends up at negative x
that's a 90ยฐ counter clockwise rotation
are you sure about it being 90ยฐ though? Since if you would take (3,5) it ends up being (-10,6) which is not a 90ยฐ rotation
It would be a rotation but not a 90ยฐ one
that's a scaling and rotation
and yes it's 90ยฐ
a rotation can't be multiple angles at once
if you proved it for the basis vectors, if you prove a different result then you're wrong
notice that 3x-10+5x6 = 0
those two vectors are orthogonal
So even when drawn and it's not a 90ยฐ angle the calculation is leading?
Is parametric vector form === parametric equation ?
For example
[1 - 4t, -3/4 + 3t, -1/4 + t]
that's in parametric vector form ?
Hey, could someone maybe explain what column space means to me?
Is it just the span of the vectors within the matrix?
span of the columns of the matrix, yes
well we have 2 linearly independent vectors spanning the column space
what does that tell u about the dimension of the column space
I would say its 2d
yup
It just confuses me a bit because there are 3d coordinates
yeah i can see the confusion but just recall the definition of dimension ig
its just a minimal spanning list
Yeah I think I kinda get it
it doesnt matter how many coordinates u have
its like a 2d plane in a 3d system
you can reach any vector in the column space just using these 2
np
Let A,B be complex valued nxn matrices, then is it possible that AB-BA is invertible?
here's an example i came up with
the matrix with 1s on the antidiagonal and 0s elsewhere is a good one for coming up with examples
because its particularly easy to see what it does to matrices by left/right multiplication
left multiplication swaps all the rows and right multiplication swaps all the columns
might come in handy if you need a (counter-)example in the future
Nice
What does it mean to suppress a column vector from a matrix?
@torn marten i think it means removing the column vector from the matrix
So A1 would contain all the column vectors from $a_{2}$ to $a_{n}$
roboโข:
Thank you, I'll see if this proof makes sense with that interpretation
How can I check that my vector equation is the right answer ?
Is this a difficult question ?
choose a basis (probably the standard basis); direction is the angle from those
"angle" here traditionally defined by using the standard dot product
ok but
consider v = -w
do these have the same direction?
(where v, w are nonzero vectors)
they form the same angle
(or do they?)
do they??
at least, they're on the same line with the same direction vector
i.e. if you formed a line with either vector
they'd be on that line
,w angle between {{1}, {0}}, {{-1}, {-1}}
what
what
i'm saying that they form a different angle from a basis vector (1, 0)
if you want the angle between v and -w
,w angle between {{1}, {1}} and {{-1}, {-1}}
but you could probably have guessed that from the two images
oh wait, i see what you mean
so when we refer to direction
we do actually care about the actual, physical way they're pointing
because when we learned about projections
direction did not matter
as in, the way something was pointing
sure, i mean
direction is ultimately "arbitrary" in that it depends on your choice of basis vectors
but we usually choose the standard basis
ie {(1; 0), (0; 1)} or {(1; 0; 0), (0; 1; 0), (0; 0; 1)}
it also depends on the definition of the inner product, doesnt it?
sure but when referring to R^n i'm assuming we're taking the standard dot product
and hence are talking about euclidean direction
got it my b
nah its a valid question
if you change your inner product, you change the "spatial" relation between vectors
though that said
two vectors in the "same direction" in one inner product
will always have the "same direction"
in any inner product space
its just a matter of how the different "directions" are related, i.e. how we label the directions
that an inner product determines
to be more clear here:
"direction" of nonzero vectors is actually the equivalence class they fall into under positive scalar multiplication
when i was a course embedded tutor for linear algebra last spring, the professor demonstrated how the relationship between vectors changes by drawing the unit "circle" with different inner product definitions. a lot of people lost it when he was calling what we normally call a diamond or square a "circle".
if you have a normed space, then dividing a vector by its norm gives you a unit norm vector
which is usually how we canonically refer to direction
(this definition actually only makes sense over ordered fields, but it can be amended to work more generally)
im not really qualified to give recommendations there im afraid
havent really used any of them
why not what did you use
so i got this as the solution to a problem i was working on and i was wondering what the heck this means geometrically
like how am i supposed to interpret this
it appears to form the ellipse which is the solution to the 2x2 first order system of differential equations with constant coefficients x'=Ax, where v is a complex eigenvector of A associated with a complex eigenvalue with a zero real part
but why would that be
Suppose that $\textbf{u}\cdot \textbf{v} = 2$ and $\textbf{v}\cdot \textbf{w} = -3$. What are the possible values of $\textbf{u}\cdot \textbf{w}$?
polynomial:
are these just arbitrary vectors? or do you have any other information about the space
ok then we're solving a system
yeah i tried but feels like there's not enough info
no need for a system i dont think
theres alternate approaches
use the cosine definition of the dot product
thats what i meant
we have that $\abs{u}\abs{v}\cos \theta_{uv} = 2$ and simialrly $\abs{v}\abs{w}\cos \theta_{vw} = -3$, and we want to determine what $\abs{u}\abs{w}\cos \theta_{uw}$ could possibly take
Namington:
yes
but you can rewrite $\theta_{uw}$ in terms of $\theta_{uv}$ and $\theta_{vw}$
Namington:
(think about how - use a geometric intuition)
you can then do some algebra on that
at least modulo 360
note that the cosine of the yellow angle, and the blue+green angle, will be the same
since cosine has a period of 360 degrees (or 2pi radians)
so in any case, its safe to write $\cos(\theta_{uw}) = \cos(\theta_{uv} + \theta_{vw})$
at least for two-dimensional vectors
Namington:


