#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 105 of 1
this property is actually the motivation behind matrix multiplication
and the reason its defined like that
I mean, T is a map from V to W, and phi is a map from W to F so phi o T is a map from V to F, aka a map in V'
yup made sense after a lot of beating around the bush

@tiny grove what exactly are you confused about ?
we can talk in here cuz no latex in dms bro : /
gotcha
um so
using the thing you uploaded above
where S is the composition of standard matrices A and B
would the answer just be AB? 🤔
i guess not
ok so for every linear transformation T we can define a matrix for it M(T)
now im saying the matrix for T o S is the same as matrix of T * matrix of S
we actually define matrix multiplication so that it fits this property
wait, is T=A and S=B?
uh no
no
huh
T is a linear transformation and A is the matrix for it
linear transformations are not the same thing as their standard matrices
so M(T) = A
mhm
alright, i was confused
well i had to spend 3 days on this topic

so i was definitely more confused than u when i was learning this
yeah
alright thanks
span of the columns of M(T o S)
wdym each column
what soap said
beware your wording
How is (1) a taylor approximation of F(x,h), it isn't really obvious to me. Where did the f(x+3h) go?
In a taylor expansion, you get the coefficients by taking derivatives and then evaluating the derivatives in zero
Hence, what happened is that when you set h = 0 in the derivatives, you don't see the x+3h or the x-2h anymore
(and actually this isn't liner algebra, this is calc/analysis)
I’m trying to prove this result:
I have access to this lemma.
And I use the lemma in part 1.
It feels like a cheat. (The proof online doesn’t mention this lemma. And just kinda proves it from principles.)
That’s it right? It doesn’t need to be more technical than that, yeah?
(and actually this isn't liner algebra, this is calc/analysis)
@eager burrow
The derivative with respect to h? You get d(x-2h)/dh = -2?
If so, that is OK. How about the differential approximation? Where did f^(3)(x)h^2 + O(h3) come from?
Awright, so what's happening is that they're writing down a taylor expansion for the enumerator of that big quotient
The terms of the taylor expansion of f(x - 2h) in h = 0, for example, are:
in order zero: f(x),
in order one: f'(x) * (-2) * h
in order two: 1/2 f''(x) * (-2)² * h²
All you have to do is write down the formula for the taylor expansion for the enumerator, and you'll get what you want
I don't think it's useful for me to go into the details of the formula, tho, you really just need to apply it. If I write it down it won't give you much insight
Then basically terms like f^(3)(x) * h² come from the third term of the taylor expansion, where you have (something) * f^(3)(x) * h³. Then you still need to divide by the h in the denominator, and then you get that thing
@dreamy iron invoking LD lemma then saying "i know u is a linear combo of the v's" is too much of a jump. (v1,...,vn,u) is LD, so LD lemma says there is at least 1 vector in the list that's a linear combo of the others. there should be a step where you exhaust every vector before u so you can actually conclude u is a linear combo of the v's
ye just becuz ur set is LD doesnt mean every vector can written as a linear combo of the others
- said true by ann 2020

yeah the shortening of "because" that i usually go for is "bc"
this is a revolutionary moment for me 
bc is just 2 letters
how did i never notice that

you don't even need to know that A is 2 by 2
if you've done part 1 you can do part 2 easily
$A = E_1 E_2 \dots E_n$ gives $A^{-1} = E_n^{-1} E_{n-1}^{-1} \dots E_2^{-1} E_1^{-1}$
Ann:
uhh
so i have 3 elementary matrices for A
for inverse of A, would it be:
but in different order (from right to left)
nvm ignore wat i said
i got it
thanks @dusky epoch
just wanna check my work
so for a i did
$T'(\varphi_1) = \varphi _1 \circ T = 4x + 5y + 6z$
soαρ:
cuz phi_1 just picks out the first component of the output of T
same thing for T'(phi_2)
for (b) i did
$ T'(\varphi _1) = T'(\varphi _1)(e_1) \psi _1 + T'(\varphi _1)(e_2) \psi _2 + T'(\varphi _1)(e_3) \psi _3 \ = 4\psi_1 + 5\psi_2 + 6\psi_3$
soαρ:
<@&286206848099549185> p i n g

<@&286206848099549185> can @shy atlas can some help please.

pretty please, with sugar on top.
It's from Axler's chapter 3F
(i gotchu fam, don't worry, we'll beat axler together)
LADR gang 
Yes and yes
It's worth keeping in mind that T'(phi1) is a functional on R3. T' will "pull back" functionals
pull out, i think
if you have a linear map $T : V \to W$, then given a linear functional $\phi$ on $W$, the map $T'(\phi) := \phi \circ T$ is called the pullback of $\phi$ by $T$
TTerra:
like it's "pulling back" the functional on $W$ to one on $V$
TTerra:
(i think that's the notation axler uses)
it's also called the dual map in some places
axler uses dual map
yeah
nice thnx for clearing that up
i dont really get the purpose of this dual map thingy tho
like whats even the point
axler doesnt motivate it at all 
for example, if you learn about alternating tensors and differential forms, you'll be doing pullbacks a lot
that's one example i can think of, but thats a bit far off from axler

haha
lemme try to think of a better example
hmm i cant really think of much, guess i have to brush up on my linalg
someone else can probably give a good example though
do you know that if you pick bases $\beta, \gamma$ of $V,W$, then the matrix of $T$ wrt $\beta,\gamma$ is the transpose of the matrix of the dual map wrt the dual bases of $\gamma, \beta$?
TTerra:
ive seen something like that but its on the very end of 3F
then you can try thinking of vectors as column vectors and linear functionals as row vectors, and see if theres any connection there
idk that might not be helpful
but i feel like you could say something nice about the dual map using stuff like that
hmm probably
ill have to finish the section to get a better understanding to dual maps
lemme check
oh wait
its the dot product duality or soemthing

oh, and if $V$ is an inner product space then there's a theorem that says that for each linear functional $\phi$ on $V$ there is a unique vector $v \in V$ such that $\phi(\cdot) = \langle \cdot, v \rangle$
TTerra:
but i dont think axler introduces inner products until later, so that might be useless
you might be able to find out some nice connection between the dual map and the inner product structure if you use that
@shy atlas
ooo ill look out for that when i get to inner product spaces
slimvesus:
maybe you can do some stuff with adjoints
ill have to check this out a couple of days later when i get to chapter 6
slimvesus:
How would I go about solving this, I am completely clueless
So this seems kinda neat so i wanted to make sure I understand it correctly... Its saying that if the only solution to x1 + x2+...+x3 = 0 we know the vector space is injective which allows us to know its isomorphic as well?
however off the top of my head the only example I can think of that would be like Ax = x right? So we are basically just showing that a vector space is isomorphic to itself?
Thanks i get it
sorry my language is a bit imprecise but
'It doesn't make sense to say that a vector space is injective' makes sense why that doesnt make sense 😛
No of course not b/c the identity map will show that its surjective and injective with itself which means it must be invertible thus isomorphic
Is the multiple choice option incorrect?
I was leaning either A or E
so I guess v cannot span R^3
Reading this theorem, not quite sure
I meant definition, that H is closed under vector addition, that is, for each u.v in H, u+v is in H
b. H is closed under scalar multiplication, that is, for each u in H and scalar c, cu is in H
and plugging in 0,correct?
we are using those properties, correct?
think about linear independence
3x3 right?
or I guess just 3 vectors
no, let me go look that up
okay
@wintry steppe yes
I am trying to look at the notes
Oh sorry I wasnt trying to give the whole answer cause that doesn’t answer the HW question I’m sorry honestly
I’ve gotten a lot of help in this discord and I’m trying to get better at helping others
t= a/6, t=b/0, t=-c/5
yea exactly now do you see something that doesnt seem right?
t cant be equal to three different things
take a closer look
he needs to see it from
t= a/6, t=b/0, t=-c/5
@silver bison
okay but aside from 6, 0, -5, is there something else in the matrix?
look at and tell me if that makes sense?
besides t trying to be 3 things what else is t trying to be
there is something that violates a math principle there
we dont know what a, b, and c are
you are overthinking it
0
Why?
anything multiplied by 0 is 0
ok so what does that mean about the vector?
it has the zero vector?
what is the zero vector?
sometimes it helps
ok @silver bison what does span mean?
because to reiterate we are trying to figure out if this spans r^3 right
👍
Im just going to go back and reread the section because I cant even being to answer that question, I dont want to waste your time
its all the combinations of vectors
yea more or less so what does it mean for H in this case to span a space?
R^3 means 3D
so x,y,z
So in order for H to span R^3 it every vector in R^3 must be able to be described as a vector from H right?
yes
ok but can you get every vector in R^3 from H?
so its asking can you get (0,0,0), (1,1,1),(2,2,2) etc?
literally any vector in R^3
gotcha, so no you cant get all vectors in R^3 from H
So maybe this is where the mix up is coming
to find a vector that isnt in R^3 from H
am I multiplying something with the 6,0,-5?
no
because there is nothing that can be multiplied by 0 to get 2
exactly
would i be correct to say you cant multiply 6 by anything to get 7?
there is nothing to get that
Do you know what R vs Z vs N means?
no
like R^n vs Z^n etc..
doesnt seem familiar, no
ok so that means the Reals which is the set off all numbers from {-inf,inf} which is the space we are talking about here
oh okay
and that contains fractions right
Its E because we found that for 0, there is nothing that it can be multiplied to get another y, therefore its does not span the vectors 6,0,-5
F is a false statement, you need to be closed under addition and zero vector
D is also false for the same reason
Its E because we found that for 0, there is nothing that it can be multiplied to get another y, therefore its does not span the vectors 6,0,-5
@silver bison I dont want to be a pendant here but it doesnt span R^3
now I am confused lol
Why is A wrong
oh uh no it doesnt span R^3
If V spans W then it means that every vector W can be written as a linear combination of V
so a vector would have to span itself because every vector is obviously some scalar of itself
so H cant span R^3 because there is no linear combination of H that could get you the vector (x,y,z) where y is not 0
wait how is what I said different then?
because you said H doesnt span H
therefore its does not span the vectors 6,0,-5
@silver bison
misused a word I guess but thats what I meant
ok but i wanted to make sure
yeah thanks
trust me i get it im still working on making my language more precise but hey its math right? its necessary
ok lets keep going
@ocean sequoia you mind if I add you?
generally speaking i try to avoid that it makes me a bit uncomfortable however im in this server and in this specific channel alot
ok...
if you want we can keep discussing the problem?
I got to head out, but I appreciate the help @ocean sequoia and @wintry steppe
NP
☯Koͫzͤzͫmͤic☯:
Whats the fastest way to find all the eigenvalues of a given 3x3 matrix?
sometimes you can find them easily by inspection (e.g if the matrix is triangular)
Doing many examples so you understand how to do them, is the fastest way
id say using a computer
dont need matrices for this
are you familiar with how to derive the cartesian equation of a plane based on its normal vector?
(and a point on the plane ofc)
umm no
alright
say your plane passes through a point <x0,y0,z0>
(this is the position vector of the point)
and say it has a normal vector <a,b,c>
Now if you take any general point on the plane, with position vector <x,y,z>
you will notice that the vector between your general point and the point the plane passes through must be perpendicular to the normal
get me so far?
umm nope
we havent even done anything like this
I think professor wants us to do the longer way
as in?
i mean
im sure there is
but i dont know if it's as intuitive
better to understand what your doing than just proceed through an algorithm
so do you want me to show you my way?
alright surte
yh
k cool
so you agree that if I take any vector along a plane, that vector will be perpendicular to the normal of that plane right?
right
k so
the vector that goes between a general point <x,y,z> and the point on intersection <x0,y0,z0> is one such vector right?
so the vector <x-x0,y-y0,z-z0>
yeh
now how do you know when two vectors are perpendicular?
no
?
Stop giving one word answers to narwhal's questions
wait let him think
so the 1st vector is 90* to the 2nd?
yeah
how can you check that?
just with the components fo the vector?
of*
ill give you a hint it has to do with a certain product
im not sure
what products that have to do with vectors do you know of?
okay gimme its definition, the dot product
idk the definition
wdym
i know how to use the formula
u * v
multiply the 1st by the 2nd corresponding to the index its at
alright
lenght of u * length of v * costheta = u*v
yes perfect
so if you take the dot product you get a(x-x0)+b(y-y0)+c(z-z0)=0
expanding
ax + by + cz = ax0 + by0 + cz0
let d = ax0 + by0 + cz0
then ax + by + cz = d
that's the cartesian equation
and it's entirely dependent on the normal and point of intersection
you already have a point of intersection
you just need to find the normal
yeah that works
when writing in the form it asks for do I need to write 0y
i personally like the normal interpretation but it works
i was kind of doing that method but I stuffed it up
no dont write y at all
Now, that last step requires a bit more explanation. To see why $d \neq 0$, suppose that it was equal to $0$. Then, there exist $s,t \in \bR$ such that the following equalities hold:
$$1+2s = 0$$
$$1-s+t = 0$$
$$2+3s = 0$$
From the above, you can see that $2+4s = (2+3s) + s = 0 + s = 0$. So, $s = 0$. The issue, then, is that $1+2s = 1 \neq 0$. So that contradicts what we have above. Hence, such an $s$ and $t$ do not exist. It follows, then, that $d \neq 0$. So, that division by $d$ in the last step is absolutely justified.
Abhijeet Vats:
it's definitely a valid method, however if you're short on time and need a reproducible method then id go for the normal interpretation
because it can be boiled down to an algorithm
@cursive narwhal why is b = 0?
Otherwise, d would depend on t
t is a parameter that varies across the reals so if you want to make sure that d is constant, you have to force bt to be 0. Only way that's possible is to have b = 0
In the same way that I forced the coefficient of s to be 0 because it being nonzero would result in d varying and that isn't what we want
oh ok
that's the definition of a unitary matrix yes
first off why the hell are you pinging me
second you're definitely not using the proper notation
T(x,y,z) = (x-y, y-2z, x-2z) what is ToT?
okay, so what's giving you trouble here?
at what point do you hit a wall in simplifying T(T(x,y,z))?
what are you even talking about
$T\big( T(x,y,z) \big) = T(x-y, y-2z, x-2z) = \ = \big( (x-y)-(y-2z), (y-2z) - 2(x-2z), (x-y) - 2(x-2z) \big)$
was this not obvious or was your goal just to have someone else do the substitution for you?
Ann:
Thank you. Ann.
I notice that for Fields you can go from any number to any number under +, and the same is true for * excluding 0
What's the name of this property?
Or is this just a consequence of unique inverses?
And that's enough to go from "anywhere to anywhere"?
No. "Anywhere to anywhere" doesn't have a meaning.
If you take two elements from your field and add them, you are guaranteed to get an element from the field as a result of adding them. That's what closure under addition means.
Or whether "terminal / initial" points exist
so it is a matter of inverses
"terminal" and "initial" reminds me very much of vectors and geometry. A field is more general than that so this is kind of a weird thing to ask.
well like for the naturals under succession, 0 is an initial element
I guess I'm using the terms too loosely
yup
but c = b - a is enough to answer that question I think
ah I see
thanks
question, is gaussian elimination known as row echelon form ?
gaussian elimination is the procedure (steps) to put a matrix in row echelon form
yh
don't use such language
im blasian
Don't use slurs chopsticks.
ok
$\begin{pmatrix}
1&-1&0\
-1&3&-1\
0&-1&1
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
1\
x_2\
1
\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}0\1\0\end{pmatrix}$
trece:
to solve for x_2 i just form the vector equation like this, right? :
$-1 +3x_2 -1 =1$
trece:
I mean
yeah but the first line gives you your solution
you could just do it with the first row
🤔
hmm?
so 1-x_2+0*1 = 1-x_2 = 0
1 - x = 0
so x_2 = 1
my brain is kinda dead rn so
what is x?
x_2 is, indeed, 1
$\begin{pmatrix}
1&-1&0\
-1&3&-1\
0&-1&1
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
x_1\
x_2\
x_3
\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}0\1\0\end{pmatrix}$
trece:
Well, it would be the same thing as solving a system of linear equations for x_1,x_2,x_3
trece:
so like this?
Yea so x_1 = x_2 and x_2 = x_3. So, from the second equation, we get that x_2 = 1. So, all of them are 1.
ic
somehow
im supposed to get -1/3 for x_2
and onl if i would have an equation like
$-1+3x_2-1=1$
trece:
my dude
-1+3x_2-1 = 1 => x_2 = 1
I don't know what kind of arithmetic you're doing but it ain't arithmetic on N
have you tried sleeping?
$-2 + 3x_2 = 1$
trece:
go and sleep
no one does math when they're half awake
except for when they have an assignment due in 20 minutes
Hello! :)
One of my coworkers had suggested to me at one point that it's possible to compute Levenshtein distance using linear algebra operations. Is this true?
I remember very little from the linear algebra course I had taken years ago, but this idea sounded very interesting to me
wagner-fischer?
yes, that's the algorithm. But I'd like to understand how you might adapt it to use linear algebra operations
What is the inner product on your space? Or, what space are you working with?
im having trouble computing it. bc i dont understand how to find the complex conjugate of px + qy + rz
and then multiplying that with x
i think its this
if thats what you mean
hm ok
what does that mean.
hold on ill jsut write down the full q
sum of complex conjugates of px, qy, and rz?
hmm i see
im just confused bc i dont have actual numbers
like here's an example they had with numbers
no
if that even makes any sense
i see
well
i kind of guessed the idea
of splitting it as
slimvesus:
yeh ive seen that idea
oh yeh true thats it
makes sense
what are you trying to say when you say "theres prob some conjugtes there"
because set A contains nonzero vectors
so magnitude is never 0
ok
i think i got it now ty
Is there a way to find the characteristic polynomial of a matrix
Given only the eigenvectors and their respective eigenvalues?
Because I'm having a very hard time figuring this out
the eigenvalues are the roots of the characteristic polynomial
So your characteristic polynomial will be (x - a)(x - b)
for example, if your eigenvalues are a and b
@sonic osprey Yeah
But the matrix is a 3x3 matrix
So would it be (lambda - a)(lambda-c)(lambda-d)?
yeah
Got it, thanks!
$v = c_1B_1 + c_2 B_2$
Merosity:
$A'v = c_1 3 B_1 + c_2 4 B_2$
Merosity:
$v = \begin{bmatrix} c_1 \ c_2 \end{bmatrix} $
Merosity:
$B_1 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0\end{bmatrix} $
Merosity:
$A' B_1 = 3 B_1$
Merosity:
Merosity:
$A' B_1 = 3 B_1$
Merosity:
$B_1 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0\end{bmatrix} $
Merosity:
What's Theorem DRMM on page 365 of Breezer
give me a minute
DRMM therom
Theorem DRMMDeterminant Respects Matrix Multiplication
$\det(AB)=\det(A)\det(B)$?
Whoever:
yes
Ah ok
We know that $\det(AA\inv)=\det(I)$, where $I$ is the identity matrix
Right?
Actually
Not by the theorem
Whoever:
You see that right?
yes
tbh not sure
isnt it getting only first row?
??
I is not 1
But the determinant of I is 1
So that means $\det(AA\inv)=\det(I)=1$
Whoever:
But by the theorem, we know $\det(AA\inv)=\det(A)\det(A\inv)=1$
Whoever:
So now we use division
you know how to evaluate a determinant?
i do not know but my professor went over it and i still dont understand
Is there a name for taking the absolute value of every scalar inside a vector?
For example, [-1, 0, 3] -> [1, 0, 3]
"entry" is a better term than "scalar" here
for technical reasons
but no, i'm not aware of a name for that
i dont think that operation carries any real meaning, especially since its interpretation changes upon a change of basis
I see, thanks
that said, if you say "vector generated by the entry-wise absolute value" or whatever
people will understand what you mean
I was looking for clean ways to write my notes and formulas
but I didn't want to stray too far from conventional notation
Using algebra u can solve it from:
(5sqrt(34))/34 = 10/sqrt(136)
arccos(10/sqrt(136)) = theta
10/sqrt(136) = cos(theta)
10 = sqrt(136) * cos
dot prod = |a||b|cos = sqrt(...) * cos
dot prod = +/- 10
The rest is easy, tho idk if there is a way while treating theta as a constant?
And without knowing the dot product. Finding A and B
Hi. I am self-studying Axler's Linear algebra done right. There is a problem I can't solve.
Suppose V is a finite dimensional real or complex inner product space. Consider the metric induced by the norm induced by the inner product. Prove that this metric is complete (i.e., every Cauchy sequence converges).
The problem is, the chapter on orthonormal bases is next, so I am supposed to prove this without using an orthonormal basis.
My idea is as follows: I am given an infinite sequence x_1, x_2, x_3, ... of points in V. Consider a basis b_1, ..., b_n of V. Let α^n_i be the i-th coordinate of x_n in this basis. I want to prove that if for some i, the sequence of real or complex numbers α^1_i, α^2_i, ... is not Cauchy, then the sequence of vectors x_1, x_2, ... is not Cauchy. But I don't know how, and non-orthonormality of the basis doesn't help.
hm
It's a fact that there exists some real number $c > 0$ such that $$||a_1 b_1 + \cdots a_n b_n|| \geq c(|a_1| + \cdots + |a_n|)$$
Zopherus:
@wintry steppe
Heyo, saw your question and can provide a pretty simple answer. There's a few reasons we treasure the dot product:
-
Very easy to calculate. If I give you two vectors, you'll have the dot product with minimal effort.
-
Very nice algebraic properties. It distributes over addition like a product should. You can pull scalar multiples out of it.
-
Relates to the collinearity of the two vectors. For example, if the dot product of two vectors are zero, those two vectors are orthogonal. This stems from the equation a•b = |a||b|cosθ
And cross product?
Cross product is entirely different, I believe
Given two vectors, find the third vector which is orthogonal to both of them shooting out in a direction
hello everyone. I'm having trouble with a simple exercise. Is it possible to have an orthogonal linear transformation such that f(3, 1) = (0,5)?
what I did was for any u = (x, y),
u*(3,1) = f(x, y) * (0,5),
and for the usual dot product,
u*(3,1) = 5*f(y)
so f(y) = (3x+y)/5
and so I have some information about an hypothetical orthogonal linear transformation
but how do I get the transformation for the first coordinate of the f(x, y)?
something like x - 3y would work, but this is a shot in the dark
okay - a transformation T is orthogonal iff T(e1), ..., T(en) is an orthonormal basis
but even if (3,1) is part of a basis, (0,5) could never be part of an orthonormal basis, right?
neither (3,1) nor (0,5) are unit vectors and so neither can be part of an orthoNORMAL basis
(yes! unit vectors. I was missing the term in english)
thanks, @dusky epoch
that's enough justification for the original question, too, right?
i think you overthought it
by a long shot
orthogonal linear transformations preserve length, but (3,1) and (0,5) have different lengths (sqrt(10) and 5 respectively). so the answer is no, it's not possible to have an orthogonal map send (3,1) to (0,5).
@sonic osprey Can you give me a suggestion on how to prove that? It's elementary for 1D space and I think it's pretty easy to show for 2D space, but what to do for 3D or higher dimensional, I don't know.
I think the problematic case is when Re⟨b_1, b_2⟩>0, Re⟨b_1, b_3)<0, Re⟨b_2, b_3⟩>0
(thanks, ann!)
Lol Phi you can actually show that any norm on R^n gives you the same open sets
The fact that zoph is invoking relies on some analysis facts
In particular you need to talk about compactness
Basically the proof is suppose you have 2 norms on R^n. Consider the map from R^n - 0 which sends an element to the ratio of the two norms. If you restrict to the unit sphere with respect to your norm, you can see that the image of the map on R^n - 0 is exactly the image of the map on the sphere. Then because the sphere is compact you get an upper and lower bound
This tells you that there exists some b so that $b \geq \frac{||v||_1}{||v_2||_2}\geq 1/b$
Which gives you that $b||v||_2 \geq ||v||_1\geq ||v||_2/b $
Liquid:
This is what zoph is stating
But you need to know about compactness to prove this
@crystal oracle
Liquid:
@sonic osprey was this the result you were invoking?
What r u supposed to do
@quaint heart Thanks. It's late where I am, I'll try to understand what you wrote tomorrow.
Basically the idea is that the image of a map from the unit sphere to R has to be a closed interval
dim U = dim range(T) = dim V
so dim U = dim range(T) = dim range (S) = dim(W) so ST would have to be in the space
im not sure actually if that makes sense
Let u1,u2,...,un, v1...vn,w1...wn be basis for U,V, and W. T(u1,u2,...,un) = (c1v1, c2v2,...,cnvn) = V, T(V) = (c1w1,c2w2,...,cnwn) = W which should show that both for S and T U and W are both injective and surjective the null space of S and T is 0 injective and because its a basis it spans W/U/V so its surjective so its an isomorphism which means its invertible
does it say anywhere that your vector spaces are finite dimensional?
Also T(U) = (c1v1, c2v2,...,cnvn) doesn't really make sense
yea this is only for finite dimensional vector spaces sorry
(you dont need finite dimensionality here btw)
sorry i meant T(u1...un) = (c1v1, c2v2,...,cnvn)
What's u1...un?
You can't multiply vectors tho 
That's the components, I imagine
huh i mean u1,u2,...,un
Which is a scary thing, assuming your vector space can be written in terms of components
even tho its finite dimensional
Oh haha okay dorp. It's in terms of a basis
yea
And with that absolute brain-blast I'm out
LMAO
how would you show its injective and surjective directly? does what i edited too work?
Really not sure what you mean by T(u1,u2,...,un)
So I'll just write what I will do for the problem
the transformation on the basis of U that takes it to the basis of V
Suppose S(T(u))=S(T(v)), then by the injectivity of S we have that T(u)=T(v), then by the injectivity of T we have that u=v. Therefore S(T(u))=S(T(v)) implies u=v which shows that ST is injective. Let w be in W, then since S is surjective there is an element v in V such that S(v)=w. Since T is surjective there is an element u in U such that T(u)=v. Therefore w=S(v)=S(T(u)), so for every element w in W there is an element u in U such that S(T(u))=w, so ST is surjective
the composition of bijective (resp. linear) functions is bijective (resp. linear)
basically
Oh I should have read above lol. I didn't understand. You're expressing the vector in a component form, but you aren't using that component form anywhere. You don't need to put all that extra notation down
oh i was trying to be as explicit as possible
im pretty new to proofs in general so
Basically linear transformations make the set of vector spaces into a category
just joking
Yeah! Don't scare me!
But basically don't summon something you aren't going to use. You can call a general vector u
I love that dont summon
makes math sound so much more badass but in all seriousness that makes sense
if thats an actual technical term i love that
thanks guys
Do you understand what I wrote?
yea I do
the only thing id ask is how you know S(T(u) = S(T(v)
the surjective part is 100%
oh we are supposing it
derp
derp i get it
one way to do it in finite dimensional spaces is: if we have a basis of U, then T(basis) is a basis of V b/c T is an isomorphism, so ST(basis) is a basis of W b/c S is an isomorphism
which is what i think you were initially trying to do
yea that is
so you say the transformation is an isomorphism?
not that U and V are an isomorphism?
a bijective linear map is called an isomorphism
ok
and U and V are said to be isomorphic
got it
one way to do it in finite dimensional spaces is: if we have a basis of U, then T(basis) is a basis of V b/c T is an isomorphism, so ST(basis) is a basis of W b/c S is an isomorphism
@wintry steppe so to put this in super simple english terms it means that we are showing there is a one to one relationship between the basis of U and W with regards to ST
careful point but not important: usually "isomorphism" requires that your inverse also have the nice property (here, linearity), but the inverse of a linear map is automatically linear so it doesnt matter
i guess that's a good way to put it, yeah
I like your way and whoever better but i want to make sure that i read it correctly
if a m×(n=<m) set of vectors is linearly independant, will their span just be the columns of the identity matrix ?
what does "m*n set of vectors" mean
like the number of vectors in the set is equal to the product m*n?
that depends on the dimension of the space and the values of m, n
er actually wait
"span just be the columns of the identity matrix" doesn't make sense
if the columns of the identity matrix are in your span, the entire space must be in your span
if you have a square matrix then it the indentity matrix will span it
since the columns of the identity matrix are the standard basis vectors, which span the space
but not every set of independent vectors has the standard basis
mxn is the size of the matrix that it produces combined
What would be an example of independent vectors that dont span the standard basis
so you have n vectors
uh if you have less vectors than the dimension of your space
like if you have 2 vectors from R^3
those span part of the standard basis (indeed the span of these two vectors will contain at most 2 standard basis vectors)
but not the entirety
by the dimension-basis theorem
O I see what your saying
correct me if im wrong but yea or wouldnt like {[0,0,1],[1,1,0]} are independent but dont span a standard basis
yep, the span of that set does not contain the vectors [1, 0, 0] or [0, 1, 0]
anyway this all relates to, like, one of the most important statements of linear algebra:
if a set of vectors is linearly independent and spans the entire vector space, it is a basis
and the amount of vectors in every basis is fixed as the dimension of the space
(i.e. every basis is the same size)
so if you have less vectors than the dimension, then you cant possibly span the space
or, if you have more vectors than the dimension, then they cant possibly be linearly independent
thats why I was saying m*(n<=m) , but if n<m then it would span R^n
wait no
idk im too sleep rn to fix it.
I get it though
Is this correct ?
guys ı am in exam now , ı need solution fast can you help me ?
👍
@sonic osprey @quaint heart Alright, I am dropping the exercise I asked a question about, because (1) I am gonna get orthonormal bases in then ext chapter anyway, and I think it'll be easy to prove using them; (2) Proofs without using them seem too complicated, and I don't really know stuff about metric spaces, so it's difficult to prove the desired statement and not accidentally use something that depends on it.
try writing out some configurations of leading 1's in a matrix of appropriate size
yeah, i mean i'm thinking that it could be an infinite amount because you could put any number is the place holders without the 0 or 1
but i don't think that's right
hello im not sure where to put this actually
however this part mentions linear algebra so maybe this is the right place
im having trouble understanding this
specifically the last part, the polynomial part
Shouldn't the sequence continue like the first term?
why is this part here
shouldn't the rest just look something like this?
I have a question about singular value decomposition
does SVD give me a change of basis matrix?
this might help
wait lmao I just had a similar question
so you want to find a set of basis vectors which are all orthogonal to each other and have unit lengths, and you also want one of these vectors to be in the (1,1,1,...) direction
that's what singular value decomposition does when applied to (1,1,1,...)``` my professor said this
but I am having a hard time understanding it
@sonic osprey @quaint heart Regarding the question I asked earlier. I emailed the textbook's author asking what the intended solution is. He responded that he included the problem in that section by mistake, and that it's supposed to be in a later section. So the mystery is solved.
Oh okay
ik that cross products arent communitive
so do u go left to right?
when performing the computation
hmm technically it's the fact that they're not associative that is the problem here
without parenthesis it's not really well defined, but some information about u,v,w might be enough to reason out the answer independent of order
well all i got are vectors defined in r3
ik this is just a simple computation problem, but im like kinda confused here whether to to go left to right
or whether it doesnt exist
not enough information
alright, because the question does ask state it doesnt exist or isnt well defined
and then give a reason
ill just say because of the associative property im assuming?
reread my first message yeah
you should probably make sure you see why, come up with some examples for yourself to see that associativity doesn't hold
ok thx for ur help brother
👍
this is a noob question but
in linear algebra, is it generally presumed that the Field isn't the rationals
because otherwise some inner products wouldn't be closed
which field?
a lot of times texts are vague and just say things like
F^n
so it seems like they're talking about all fields
but then because some inner products can be irrational, it makes me think they're excluding rationals
is that a decent reading of texts?
that sounds weird generally you have to specify the field
unless you generalize to all fields
in which case whatever you're proving has to work for all of them
so you're saying most texts don't mean to be so general
I'm not sure why you think inner products wouldn't be closed?
🤔
you have to read carefully is what I'm saying, if they just state F it has to work for F
Inner products are defined as being functions to the base field
by definition, it has to be closed
Like, if you take the standard inner product on Q^2, where Q are the rationals, then (x,y) \cdot (a,b) = ax + by is still a rational number
ah my writing was unclear, but I found out that the definition of normed vector space assumes we're dealing with R or C
This is often done so you can use analytical things
but most of finite linear algebra works over any field
be very careful with inner products over finite fields
they are definitely my least favorite very basic thing to think about because all the definitions and theorems have slightly different hypotheses.
quick question asking the subspace solution is a subspace of R^4 and what is R^4?
i am bit confused
$\bR^4$ is the set of 4-tuples $(a,b,c,d)$, where $a,b,c,d$ are all real numbers.
Abhijeet Vats:
thank you
finding the subspace of 4-tuples of all real numbers of a b c d in this case
because i had to find the null space and coefficient of a matrix and then it says find solution set is a subspace of R^4
oh i have to determine solution set so from my answer if it is a subspace of R^4

ngl, this might just be my 6am brain failing me but that made almost no sense to me
Determine whether the solution set is a subspace of R^4
that the question
how to get the subspace?
Are you struggling with the problem? How about showing the full question?
that full question
Determine whether the solution set is a subspace of R^4
how you get the subspace?
my dude
you mentioned a matrix
and some other shit
send a picture of the problem
not for me this one lol
Okay, so you're supposed to determine if the solution set is a subspace of R^4. All you really need to do is to check 3 things:
-
Does 0 belong to the solution set?
-
If I take any two vectors in the solution set and add them, is that in the solution set?
-
If I take a scalar and multiplied it with a vector in the solution set, is the scaled vector in the solution set?
If any of them fail, then it's not a subspace
ok thank you but i forgot how to check them but i figure it out
Uh note that when I said 0, I meant (0,0,0,0). So, gotta check if that's in there.
the solution is my null space? or the matrix after turning it into rref
rref is
[ 1 -2 0 -1 2]
[0 0 1 3 1]
[0 0 0 0 0]
Prove that the eigenvalues of an upper triangular matrixMare thediagonal entries ofM.
any hints
apply the definition of the characteristic polynomial
the determinant of an upper triangular matrix is very easy to calculate
it's just the product of the diagonal entries
you could also write down the eigenvectors
can somebody help me understand how to do weighted least squares when I have standard deviation
so if I have the problem y = Ax
do I just subtract standard devs from both sides?
@cursive narwhal can you please give me example how to check those 3 questions you provided
or can someone else please give me example to understand it because i am stuck
its ok, it happens sometimes @pallid rampart
or can someone else please give me example to understand it because i am stuck
@untold citrus uh yea sure I’ll give an example, give me about 20 minutes and I’ll type it out. Sorry, just woke up
hey guys, do you know if there's an interface where I can graph some functions in 3 dimensions?
geogebra perhaps?
I just want to check if I'm calculating some integrals correctly
I'll check it out
for integrals wolfram better
Is Riesz representation theorem somehow related to kernel methods
in machine learning (e.g. kernel support vector machine)?
Riesz representation theorem: Suppose V is a finite dimensional
inner product space over a field 𝔽∈{ℝ,ℂ}. Suppose φ:V→𝔽 is a
linear functional. Then ∃! u∈V such that ∀v∈V φ(v)=⟨v,u⟩.
I suspect that this theorem allows us to work with such vector
spaces, where it's too computationally heavy to store points, but
calculating their inner products is cheap. But I can't figure out
how exactly they are related. And I think the last time I tried
to understand the theory behind kernel methods, my googling
stopped on something called Reproducing kernel Hilbert space and
Mercer's theorem. I couldn't figure out what that is because I
don't know functional analysis.
They do seem related yeah
so Im reading a paper on algorithmic fairness that mentions "To
solve this “reconstruction problem,” procedures
have been proposed such as pre-processing the
data to orthogonalize the explanatory variables
(“inputs”) or outcomes to race'"
why would you orthogonalize the explanatory variables? To have the dot products be zero? So certain neurons just give zero? Thus making it less likely that product affects the activation?
basically remove it altogether
isn't that what this says?
ya but the polynomial is of deg 3 lol
deg=<2
ahh, I see where the confusion is, good!
i might be confusing myself afterall
what about this one
isn't the second line already an element of P_1
ehh
wait a min
so V is given as P(R)
should f(x)=ax+b
since its deg at most 1
which one are you doing again ?
b
consider $x^2 \in \mathcal{P}_2 (\bR)$. whats $T(x^2)$ ?
soαρ:
x^3
does that have degree less than or equal to 2 ?
but they gave us P(R) not P_2(R)
since its deg at most 1
P(R) is not P_1(R)
oh
^
its all good
Suppose we have a matrix $A\in\mathcal{M}{n\times n}(\mathbb{R})$ is similar to a diagonal matrix and has two distinct real eigenvalues and thus two eigenspaces $E{\lambda_1}$ and $E_{\lambda_2}$. If $\lambda_1=0$ and hence $E_{\lambda_1}=\mathrm{Null}(A)$, does it follow that $E_{\lambda_2}=\mathrm{Row}(A)$?
Stract:
Yeah I just realized it's false, found a counterexample. Was assuming some things were orthogonal that aren't
what's the counterexample?
$$\begin{bmatrix}0&1\0&1\end{bmatrix}$$
Stract:
the rowspace is spanned by (0,1) but the second eigenspace is spanned by (1,1)
nice, thanks
however @wintry steppe I think I can guarantee that Null(A)\oplus Row(A)=R^n. Doesn't that just follow from fundamental theorem of linear algebra
it's for for all m x n matrices
since $\mathrm{Row}(A)^\perp=\mathrm{Null}(A)$
huh? no I'm sure this is a true fact
yes
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/29072/how-is-the-column-space-of-a-matrix-a-orthogonal-to-its-nullspace/933276 here's a proof (the title is wrong but the answerer corrects it and proves the right thing)
ahh, np lol
I feel like the solution set should be empty since you cannot have 0=3, even if I were to do row operations, like swapping 3rd and 4th rows, it'll still have 0=3.. Does anyone have any tips on how to solve this?
you are correct in that the solution set is empty
Thanks :D
Am I wrong to assume that since A is in R2, the columns of A are e1,e2,e3 and the matrix went from a 3x3 to a 3x2 matrix? Or am I missing something? Sorry for asking two questions in a row. Essentially all I need to do here is combine the given e's into a matrix and that'll give me the needed A ?
im not quite sure what you mean by "went from a 3x3 to a 3x2 matrix" but basically you have
T = [T(e1) T(e2) T(e3)]. This is a 2x3 matrix.
oops I mixed up the rowxcolum thing, my bad
hello everyone.
having trouble with orthogonal linear transformations
I want to define, by 'a general expression', the reflection wrt 3x-2y = 0
I am following a previous solution of this problem and here's what was done:
take vectors u = (2, 3) and v = (-3, 2); calculate their reflections, which are u' = (2, 3) and v' = (3, -2) respectively
A linear transformation T from Rn to Rn is orthogonal iff the vectorsT(~e1),T(~e2),. . .,T(~en)form an orthonormal basis of Rn
so at this point, I know I have an orthogonal transformation, but I haven't got the matrix yet
ok so essentially you have an eigenbasis for your transformation is what you're saying
if you want, you can calculate the matrix of your transformation as $$T = \mat{2 & -3 \ 3 & 2} \mat{1 & 0 \ 0 & -1} \mat{2 & -3 \ 3 & 2}^{-1}$$
Ann:
ann, thank you so much! let me think a little
ok, this is not what I was doing at all.
why eigenbasis?
well you've got Tu = u and Tv = -v
so u and v are eigenvectors for T with eigenvalues 1 and -1 resp
I'd like to understand your process, but also let me add that the solution I am following states that after getting f(2, 3) and f(-3, 2), you can apply the linearity of functions to get f(1,0) and f(0, 1) and find the general expression, or the matrix of f wrt the standard basis
oh sure you can do that too
doesnt make much of a difference
yours is a lower-level solution in terms of abstractions
so in your method you're diagonalising the matrix?






