#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 104 of 1
I don't think there's any other easier way
This is easy enough already
What are you trying to do?
like write it in the form
$\begin{bmatrix} x \ y \ z \end{bmatrix} = $\begin{bmatrix} a \ b \ c \end{bmatrix} + t $\begin{bmatrix} e \ r \ u \end{bmatrix}$
polynomial:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
without a t infront
then use the second expression I wrote
The second expression I wrote is obtained from the first expression
why do we subtract though
Hang on lemme draw a picture
So C=B-A, the line through the origin and C is obtained by tC (t is any real number), then the line through A and B is obtained by translating the line through origin and C by A, so the line through A and B is A + tC = A + t(B-A)
@wintry steppe
Idk 
@pallid rampart oh thanks i get your explanation 🙂
is this how would you write the equation for a line like that as well?
So you get a line, ray, or line segment by restricting what t can be
But the equations are still the same
i meant if you wanted to write an equation for a line
is that how you would do it
?
on an exam or w/e
If I was to answer a question like that on an exam, I would answer the line is $$\begin{bmatrix}-1\3\2\end{bmatrix}+t\br{\begin{bmatrix}-3\5\-1\end{bmatrix}-\begin{bmatrix}-1\3\2\end{bmatrix}},\quad\text{where }t\in\bR.$$
Whoever:
is there a 'linear algebra way' to derive the determinant form of the cross product? i have a roundabout way using cramers rule but idk if thats the best way
@hollow finch the reverse seems better to me as the determinant exists for all square matrices but the cross product requires 3d vectors. You can define the cross product as being the Hodge dual of the exterior product of 2 vectors in 3D.
the exterior product of 3 vectors in 3D will give you the determinant
So they're related sort of but the fact that the cross product appears like a determinant is sort of a mnemonic. It's not a real cross product since the top row has unit vectors instead of regular components
This also relates to the concept of parity of a permutation and Levi-Civita symbol
oof i dont know any of those things :C
but thank you for the answer i really do appreciate it @odd kite
oh well, I thought that might be the case. Maybe something you can look into someday
but at least you get that the cross product isn't a real determinant right?
$$\begin{pmatrix}1&b+1&5&7\ 0&b&a+3&0\ 0&0&a^2-9&a+3\end{pmatrix}$$
Soup:
Im trying to find all 'a's and 'b's, so it has:
- no solutions, 1 solution, 1 free and 2 free vars.
So to make it have no solutions: Setting a = 3, will make the last row inconsistent.
I've also found (a = 4 or a = -3) and b = 0, will make it have no solution.
I've also noticed, there are a lot of ways it can have 1 solution.
Tho I'm not sure exactly how to find them all.
How and what other ones can I find?
Yea
so if you can guarantee you will have det ≠ 0 for certain values for a and b, then you should be good
you know a in { 3, -3, 4 } will yield an undesirable system
and iirc, you can do a laplace determinant (?) using the first column with the two zeroes
Right, so I thought determinant only tells u if its invertible or not?
hmm. let me check something
maybe I'm thinking of the rank
yes - so you need the matrix to have rank 3
(are you familiar with that concept?)
I think so
if the rank of the matrix equals the number of lines, then it should be a possible, determined system
(I'm not quite sure what the terminology is in english)
Right, I'll look into it and give it a go. Thanks!
hopefully someone a little more knowledgeable can chime in
Ax=b has a solution iff rank(A|b)=rank(A), and that solution is unique iff rank(A)=number of variables
cool!
if you want to be thorough you'll have to do cases
so soup should check rank(A) considering the restrictions on the value of a?
like case a != 3 then divide the bottom by a^2 - 9
then use that to clear the third column and so on
well, since doing laplace determinant on that column yields b(a^2-9) = 0
imposing the previous restrictions on a gives b = 0
i'd say it's pretty clean
Have to find for which p this matrix is invertible. When I calculate the determinant and set it equal to zero, there is no p part of real numbers that works. So I suppose it isn't invertible for any p part of the real numbers? But the solution says that, because of this, all values of p part of real numbers will cause the matrix to be invertible. Am I in the wrong here or is the solution wrong?
The calculations give (p+2)² + 2 = 0
If you're setting the determinant = 0, then you're finding the values of p which give you a matrix that is non-invertible.
Wow really
Yes if det is 0 then the matrix isn't invertible.
That's huge, okay thanks a lot!!
A^2+AB+B^2 => requires 3x multiplications and 2x additions. I need to convert this into only 2 multiplications.
All variables are matrices
- The calculation of the expression A^2 + AB + B^2 requires 3 multiplications and 2 additions. Transform this expression so that 2 multiplications are sufficient for the calculation, and calculate it for the matrices A = {{1, 2}, {3, 4}}, B = {{3, 4}, {5, 6}}.
Oh, would that mean
how many additions are we allowed
if at least two are allowed it is possible
(A+B)^2 - BA
Yeah, it's probably that
but it doesn't say how many additions we are allowed
two multiplications and no other operations will not suffice
Yeah, it's probably 2 multiplications and x amount of additions/substractions.
Im guessing that they don't care about the number of additions since it can be done much faster than multiplication?
if there's no limit it should explicitly say so
Im guessing that they don't care about the number of additions since it can be done much faster than multiplication?
still O(n^2)
Is this correct?:
(a - 3b) × (a + 3b) =
(a - 3b) × a + (a - 3b) × 3b =
(a × a) - (3b × a) + (a × 3b) - (3b × 3b) =
- (3b × a) + (a × 3b) =
(a × 3b) - (3b × a)
yes
Thanks, do u think it could be simplified more?
well it could be simplified to a × 6b
oh right
The fastest Matrix multiplication algorithm is O(n^2.3....), which has horrendous constants. Naive multiplication is O(n^3).
The fastest Matrix multiplication algorithm is O(n^2.3....), which has horrendous constants. Naive multiplication is O(n^3).
i spoke about addition
@rustic stump Isn't it generally done in hardware, making it not really "count" in real application?
most of matrix operations are bounded by O(n^2)
Yeah true.
$\Omega(n^2)$ is more correct
Commander Vimes:
lower bounded?
that's why for example in graphs it is more efficient to implement algorithms which work with adjacency lists
The individual adds/multiplies are done in hardware sure, and you might have circuits specifically optimized for matrix operations, but they still have a cost.
lower bounded?
yes
like for matrix-based algorithms we usually are satisfied with algorithms with n^2 complexity
I've mainly dealt with matrix operations in the context of algebraic number theory and geometry, but they very much have a cost.
Unless your doing some research with massive matrices for stat, or something, I don't imagine seeing anything costly for most calculations done at early uni level.
yes, but the good algorithm is not that works on small input
but which works on theoretically "infinite" input
Discriminants and resultants blow up quickly.
Taking hours for symbolic operations on higher degree polys if you aren't careful.
I feel even O(n) and O(1) amortized will slow at some point
no, O(1) is extemely good algorithm
Depends on the algorithm
O(1) is literally constant time.
O(1) is the best an algo can perform
but f(n)O(1) is O(f(n))
e.g hash tables, which use linear probing, or bucketing
and if i've got O(1) it means i cannot do better now
armotized is fine
If you got O(1) amortized, it means u can still do better.
Compare hash tables to arrays?
no if you did armotiziation thats prolly the best you could manage under the given constraints
Besides, we want it to feel slow at very large numbers, not smaller ones. I don't want to wait 3 hours for 2 degree 5 polynomials.
otherwise you don't go that route
Sparse array generally does the job a hashtable can do, and still does O(1)?
Just uses more memory.
"just"
Memory is generally more expendable than speed nowadays.
depends on the situation
Not necessarily at scale
btw, i just designed an algorithm for producing k-partition of graph and it seems to me that it has polynomial complexity (with big exponent but still) but i've read that it is NP-complete problem and now i am trying to find a flaw
congratulations!! u did it!!
Or you just solved the PNP problem
u win some million dollers or whatever
But for my general usage, imo memory is more expendable.
well, this part depends on the concrete task
yea depends on the situation and task
bruh i think there should be flaw in my reasoning, like i do not think nobody thought about my soltuion before
[[0,1], [-1,0]] does this matrix have a special name?
I call it "rotation by 90 degrees matrix"
R or something like Rot90 🤔
it is rotation by -90 degs no?
depends on if your convention is clockwise or not
This paragraph from M Artin’s algebra is confusing me !
What does he mean by “consistent way” here. And in the next line, v1 is in R^1 ? Implying a 1 dimensional vector space ?? So confused
Convergence
For example
1 + 2 + 3 + 4...
What do we assign to that?
A lot of people would say -1/12 but we don't listen to stupid people
It's even worse if your vectors aren't from real numbers
So something like Span(all positive integers) is not obvious
Well, actually, bad example because they're all going to be integers. A much better example is Span(all rationals)
I would say it as, infinite sums are fundamentally analytic in nature. They require limits, which in turn require an underlying metric or topology.
all fin dim real/complex v spaces have a canonical topology
but we don't listen to stupid people
a lot of people in this server listen to me though
@austere sage If you're still confused about that remark just don't worry about it and move on. Simply remember that in linear algebra all you care about are finite sums.
Yeah, I was just saying, in the realm of algebra, you never get to take an infinite sum. You need to dip into analysis for that.
[I was not claiming you can't or shouldn't do that.]
@half ice I did finally see an argument from Tao that one can really meaningfully associate the value -1/12 to 1+2+3+...
You can but you have to be careful yeah
Not the kind of careful this book is looking for
And lol people shouldn't listen to me either
@oak crater yeah, i think i'm gonna move on for now. thanks
I would say it as, infinite sums are fundamentally analytic in nature. They require limits, which in turn require an underlying metric or topology.
@karmic oracle I get what you're saying. but i connect it to what's written in the book.
Can anyone phrase this differently im a bit confused
Also if two vector spaces are isomorphic does that mean they share the same identity basis?
not sure what you mean with identity basis
what it means is that you can find a linear function that takes a basis of one space to a basis of the other
T( S(T(v)) ) = T(S( Tv ) = I ( Tv ) supposing To S = I , then I ( Tv ) = Tv, so T(S o T)v = Tv so S o T = I
or if you prefer, that there’s a bijection between bases
the standard basis is only a thing in the vector space ℝⁿ (or 𝕂ⁿ for any field 𝕂) of column vectors
there’s no such notion in a general vector space
the only thing you can really say is that they have the same dimension
Im only dealing with definite vector spaces atm
i.e. same number of basis vectors
while every finite dimensional 𝕂-Vector space is isomorphic to some 𝕂ⁿ, they aren’t 𝕂ⁿ
like, “polynomials of degree ≤n” is a vector space (of dimension n+1)
but it’s not the same as ℝⁿ⁺¹
there are different ways you could compare it to ℝⁿ⁺¹
for example you could take an isomorphism that takes 1 to (1,0,0,0…,0), x to (0,1,0…) and so on
but you could also do many other ways and there’s really no natural way to go about it
different situations call for different ways to look at it
so the space of those polynomials doesn’t have a standard basis
and you don’t think of it as “an arrow in n+1-dimensional space”
this seems like i might have fallen into a rabbit hole i might want to avoid for now :/
it’s a good rabbit hole
it also doesn’t go too deep
unless you start looking at infinite-dimensional stuff
then all hell breaks loose :P
knowing this is $P_n(t)$ and $P_0(0)=1, P_i(0)=0 \quad if i>0$ how to find $C_n$ in terms of $\lambda_n, \mu_n$?
ProphetX:
it is a linear system of equations, especially a lower triangle one,which should work by solving eq 1 plugging into 2, then plugging into 3 etc.
another way is to use cramer's rule
but in both cases I get lost in the notations, and can't find the generalized c_n, i'll show what i've got so far
how can I find a, b, c and d?
there is a pretty simple formula for the inverse of a 2 by 2 matrix.
where can I find it
google lmao
inverse of 2x2 or what? xd
inverse of a 2 by 2 matrix
but you could also just write out the system of four equations in four variables manually
and arrive at the same formula yourself
I am too stupid to find the formula lol
too stupid to click the very first link?
i mean ok like
w/e
$\mat{x & y \ z & w}^{-1} = \frac{1}{xw - yz} \mat{w & -y \ -z & x}$
Ann:
in your notation
well
it's a two by two matrix
two by two matrices contain four entries
shocking, right
A good exercise might be arriving at the inverse formula via row reduction. Then promptly cast row reduction into the sea and ask for whatever life it stole from you back.
I used to tell my students that I wouldn't row reduce in public, and they shouldn't either.
what am i looking at
the seemingly solution to the system posted above
but I'm not sure,would need verification
it should be the solution for c_n with condition t=0 if p_0=1,p_i=0, i>1 of this. even tho it is a lower triangular system, the computations are terrible
idk how to check tho if its ok
i need help with rq=(1-s)(1-p)
parts of the paper are cut off from the left and right
point of intersection of what
lemme see
@cursive narwhal i don't need help but i want to ping you
Oooh lala, i've never felt this wanted before
glad i make you feel special
If i want to show a transformation is invertible do i have to explain injectivity/surjectivity
or can i just say the dimensions are equal and it must be a square matrix
the condition for invertability is injectivity and surjectivity. If you have a theorem that says it follows from equal dimensions, then you can use it. If not, you must show the injectivity/surjectivity
helpful flowchart
so you must have some justification for claiming that the dimensions are equal and its a square matrix implies invertability
If i want to show a transformation is invertible do i have to explain injectivity/surjectivity
You have to show that the transformation is injective and surjective. In that case, it would be bijective and would have an inverse.
Yeap. A transformation also isn't the same thing as its matrix. A square matrix isn't necessarily invertible too.
It is true that vector spaces of the same dimension are isomorphic. You can establish a bijection between them. It doesn't mean that all maps between them are bijective.
wow that clears up alot thank you
^^^
and that's the wall you would've run into trying to claim that the transformation is invertible because it has a square matrix
also note you can have an invertible transformation between non-isomorphic vectors spaces
Okay, so, the first thing I would do is to draw a diagram of the situation. Something approximate will do but it might very well be helpful in visualizing what's happening.
Now, do you agree that $ax+by+cz = d$ is the general equation of the plane that contains all 4 of those points? Do you, then, agree that those points satisfy the given equation of the plane?
Abhijeet Vats:
Okay. So, from that, you can construct 4 equations by plugging each point into the equation of the plane.
oh damn i overthought it
We have:
$$ap = d$$
$$a+bq = d$$
$$ar+b+c = d$$
$$bs+c = d$$
Abhijeet Vats:
Those are our four equations. From there, it's easy to see that:
$$ap-a-bq = 0 \implies bq = a(p-1)$$
$$ar+b-bs = 0 \implies ar = b(s-1)$$
Abhijeet Vats:
Can you take it from there?
yeee
i just was in tunnel vision
i really dont know how to get out of that state of mind
Well, the good thing about that is that you can always choose to walk towards the light at the end of the tunnel.
Honestly, don't worry about it. Solve harder problems. You'll get better at doing it.
wrong channel @wintry steppe
ask in #prealg-and-algebra or something
Oh, thank you.
@wintry steppe Wow, thanks.
np
Ok makes sense ty @slow scroll
yeah its the 0 matrix
I'd use the determinant for a
havent covered det yet
Ohh okay
yeah and the last line of your proof is a contradiction so it holds
since 0 isn't invertible
similar logic for b
yeah but i have the identity times A = 0 which makes no sense
leading to A = 0 which is a contradiction to what you assumed in the beginning
that's your proof
since 0 isn't invertible
how do i go from IA=0 to A=0 tho
it's a property of the identity matrix
AI = A
I'm gonna have to read up on full rank haven't got to that yet
We just got to change of basis
soo uhh
It's not true. There's many A² = 0 that are not A = 0
Oh wait you're assuming A is invertible nvm I have the dumb
Since B=! O we have that A = O and there exists an inverse of A such that A^(-1)A=AA^(-1)=I therefore A^(-1)A=O implies I=O
did I mess up here
Minor nitpick, you can only multiply on the right, or on the left. So writing
A'A² = 0A'
Is a strange move. It's correct since A and A' commute, but A'A² = A'0 is generally safer.
Yes your proof is correct
Using ' for inverse
Wait I don't see your next part
By assuming A has an inverse, we are forced to conclude that A = 0. But that doesn't have an inverse, a contradiction
@wintry steppe sorry, I meant SUBSPACES of non-isomorphic spaces
are you talking about b or a kaynex
im working on b atm
Since B=! O we have that A = O and there exists an inverse of A such that A^(-1)A=AA^(-1)=I therefore A^(-1)A=O implies I=O
did I mess up here
Oh lol I misunderstood let me see
You don't have that A = 0
We have a word for this. Matrix multiplication has "zero divisors". That is, matricies that are not zero that can multiply to make 0
Sadly no haha. This would be pretty easy if you could
If you have a ⋅ (b×c) u dot product with v cross product with w
can you rewrite that as b × ( a ⋅ c)
a•c is a scalar, so b×(a•c) makes no sense
so i can just take the inverse of AB and the zero matrix
I get the identity times B = O
which implies that B=O
but we stated that B cannot be the zero matrix so contradiction
0 matrix has no inverse
And it's pointless to make a contradiction based on 0 having an inverse. It simply doesn't haha
oh
And that seems like a problem!
But it was stated that B cannot be the zero matrix
i can't just conclude the proof there?
That's the contradiction
If A has an inverse, then B must be 0
But B is not zero, therefore A doesn't have an inverse
i mean thats what i said
but we stated that B cannot be the zero matrix so contradiction
is A ⋅ (B×C) = (A×B) ⋅ C a cross product property?
You can't take the inverse of AB
I'm thinking that's a typo now that I re-read it. You have the correct proof otherwise haha
ok ty, sry if im asking many questions im just trying to get the ideas down
for this one should i prove phi is an isomorphism by proving that phi is bijective
and a homomorphism
yes, or you can just find an inverse
and a homomorphism
@elfin ingot i don't know what that is
linear transformation = homomorphism of vector spaces
yea u have to show that
and its a bijection
an isomoprhism is a bijective homomorphism
and as kx
said
context of vec spaces homo means linear transofmration
Homo
Morphism
i dont know tho
if there is any difference in meaning
between linear transformation and iso
( bijective lienar trans that is )
like for me iso just means both act the same
while linear transformations means u can get one by just stretching and doing some linear stuff to the other
are these the same mehj
?
if you can get from something to another using transformations
are they the same
There's no difference in linear algebra no
cool
Iso = invertible matrix always
But as you know, you can define this on other structures and it can get more complicated
yea
yea
i wonder if ,like in vec spaces,
we can usue any pictures
to demonstrate 'being the same'ness
with other
thigns
is linear algebra 'nice' just cuz u can make sense with it with pictures
and hence cool shit happen?
or is that like in baby lin algebra where you deal with just R^3
Linear algebra is nice because you can essentially forget all the definitions of a vector space once you define the basis of it haha
I mean that's one benefit, but if you start generalizing it you can't really picture it all that well anymore if you take arbitrary fields. Drawing a picture won't constitute a proof really, but it can give you nice intuition
Construct a very complicated structure that gives a lot of info but is difficult to work with. But then, find a vector space on it and a basis of that space, suddenly it's very easy to work with
not sure what you mean, just visualize them as shears/stretches of the underlying coordinate grid
fixing the vectors
tes
yes
thats what i sometimes think of too
but its just too cool my brain just shuts down
It's nice to think of 2D arrows but it's rare that this picture is exactly right
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Draw means doodle nicely
try to find an inverse for it. thats the easiest way imo
injective homo <--> ker = 1
uh
nahhh i wouldn't do that.
no thats nullity 0, but I think trying to compute rank and nullity is a waste of time. Bijective iff invertible is your friend
i mean, sure, computing the kernel is not that much work here, and since the domain = codomain, it follows that you have an isomorphism by rank-nullity
yeah
im not sure how to go about the inverse way
i end up with AB=0
you said take the inverse of this right B^-1AB=0
you need to find some linear transformation $f : M_{n \times n}(F) \to M_{n \times n}(F)$ such that $f \circ \phi = \phi \circ f = \operatorname{id}$ where id is the identity transformation. In other words, $\operatorname{id}(A) = A$ for all $A \in M_{n \times n}(F)$.
kxrider:
as a hint, the inverse looks a lot like phi
right, that part looks fine.
ya i proved the linear trans part
@zinc tapir How about bijectivity? Have you been able to show that?
Well, look at the definitions of injectivity and surjectivity.
What do you need to do to show surjectivity?
I have to look at the image and determine if rank = dim(im)
Let $C \in M(n \times n, \mathbb{F})$. You need to prove there exists an $A \in M(n \times n,\mathbb{F})$ such that $\phi(A) = C$
Abhijeet Vats:
why do you need to set that equal to C
Well, you need to show that every element in the codomain has a preimage in the domain under the function.
Think back to the definition of surjectivity for a general function
idk in my other examples i didn't have to set anything i just factored out and showed the vectors were lin indep
then i took the set of lin indep vectors and called that R(T)
then I take the dim of that and compare it to the the dim of the image
thats how im used to doing it
Well, then try to do it that way if you’re comfortable with that
Well, you need to show that every element in the codomain has a preimage in the domain under the function.
^I’m pretty sure this is easier though
yeah but theres like nothing to show for lin indep for these matrices
like no mechanical way
so C in this case is just a matrix in the domain?
No. It’s a matrix in the codomain. The domain and codomain happen to be the same in this case
okay
going to attempt to find that phi is one to one
BAB^−1= 0
i have this
since B is invertible i can take its inverse right
??? What about surjectivity?
AB^-1=0
And no, that’s not how you show that it’s injective
well im trying to show that it maps to the zero matrix
Urhmm why not work straight from the definition of injectivity?
Idk, it seems like you’re just randomly doing things without really thinking through what you’re doing or why
naw im just an algorithm kind of guy, im trying to work through it using what i did in a previous example or something
Well, see how that goes for you. My suggestion would be to work straight from the definitions of surjectivity and injectivity.
can i see the original problem again
lmao ||phi has an inverse lul||
also that is a horrible way to handwrite lowercase f
im using the text notation
this was a jab at your handwriting
anyway
as i said
the "bijective" part of this thing takes no more than one line to prove
because phi HAS AN INVERSE
one that's EASY TO WRITE DOWN at that
@cursive narwhal did you suggest that chaf turn a blind eye to this
Turn a blind eye to what?
His bad handwriting or the fact that it has an inverse?
the latter
i've seen worse handwriting on this server tbh anyway i just wanted to learn how it has an inverse and I couldn't figure that out so i went with trying to find that phi is one to one and such
Well, I just suggested working straight from the definition of bijectivity.
It’s not that torturous
i just wanted to learn how it has an inverse
phi^-1(C) = BCB^-1 lol
it didn't come from anywhere lol
anyway, letting $C$ be an arbitrary $n \times n$ matrix and solving $B^{-1}AB = C$ for $A$ gives you $A = BCB^{-1}$
Ann:
so i get to AB=B^-1C am i allowed to take the inverse of B somehow?
idk guys sorry if im being slow here but i just got to this and yeah
why WOULDNT you be allowed to take the inverse of B
A is infront of it
however what you did there is illegal
Ann:
$$B^{-1}AB = C$$
$$\implies B(B^{-1}AB) = BC$$
$$\implies (BB^{-1})(AB) = BC$$
$$\implies AB = BC$$
$$\implies (AB)B^{-1} = BCB^{-1}$$
$$\implies A(BB^{-1}) = BCB^{-1}$$
$$\implies A = BCB^{-1}$$
no i mean you seem to doubt that B^-1 exists even though it's RIGHT THERE in the original eq so like
Abhijeet Vats:
You’re missing a B^{-1} on the RHS
Thank you, forgot about that
There's stuff I left out but you can just put that back in.
i just thought the inverse operator was like multiply on the outside like regular algebra
??
Let's talk multiplication on real numbers.
The inverse of 2 is 1/2. This is because 2(1/2) = 1
An inverse is a number that "brings it back to 1"
But in the matrix world, 1 is I
And Neo is the gatekeeper of the Province of Invertible Matrices
because matrix multiplication is not commutative
you need to be careful whether you premultiply or postmultiply
Does the following always hold true?:
Suppose $V$ is a finite dimensional vector space and $ v_{1}, ..., v_{m} \in V$
If $span(v_{1}, ..., v_{m}) = V$ then a list $ v_{1}, ..., v_{m} \in V$ is linearly independent
nicelagrangian:
Nope. If dim(V) < m, then the list is linearly dependent.
If dim(V) = m, then the list is linearly independent. If it wasn't, then there is a vector in the list which can be written as a linear combination of the other vectors in the list. So, you can remove all such vectors and still have the span of the remaining vectors be equal to V. But that means that dim(V) < m and that is a contradiction.
@pearl mirage
Oh neat! Thanks @cursive narwhal
you're welcome
Let V and W be vector spaces over a field F. Prove that if a linear transformation
f : V −→ W is one-to-one then, {f(v1), f (v2), . . . , f (vn)} is a linearly independent
subset of W whenever {v1, v2, . . . , vn} is a linearly independent subset of V
Okay, what do you need help with specifically?
that's not specific now is it
What have you tried?
Do you know what linear independence means?
Surely you should know what you actually have to show? In order to show linear independence, what must you demonstrate?
Linear independence, basically when a certain vector cannot be defined as a linear combination to others
Linear independence, basically when a certain vector cannot be defined as a linear combination to others
This is imprecise.
And, therefore, unhelpful.
Do you understand the image above? Is it clear to you?
Yes it is @cursive narwhal
Okay. So, given the information in the question, can you prove that the implication above holds?
Do you have any ideas for how to approach the problem?
No i dont
Do you have no idea how to go about it because you're actually confused about what the problem is asking or do you not know because you don't actually understand the terms in the problem?
I'm actually confused about the problem
Everything actually
The corona didn't really help, because i had to come home from school and we didn't get to this part on school
Ah you got memed by corona huhh I got pranked by my teacher today too lol
Anyways, what are you confused about? Be a little specific, yes?
I dont know how to go about it... You get me and i need to submit soon. Really wish you could just answer for me
Thanks
you're welcome
ok ignore the huge play button symbol, but you guys can see what's written underneath. how did he get to [2]7 from [9]7??
very confused
9 is congruent to 2 mod 7
bc 9 and 2 differ by a multiple of 7 (specifically, 7 itself)
wait so what math do i need to do to get 2?
9-7
oh, hm ok
another one is what is the simplest name for: [3]7
and the answer is [-3]7 = [4]7
so how did they get 4?
oh wait i got it nvm
@wintry steppe it's not 9-7, it's 9 mod 7
i know. you asked how to get 2
9-7=2
Do matrices and their transposed have the same eigenvalues and eigenvectors?
they have the same eigenvalues, but not the same eigenvectors
you can test this with some examples
(and the proof isnt particularly hard either)
I was confused because I was dealing with an example which does
M:=matrix([[1,0,0,0],[0,0,0,1],[0,1,0,0],[0,0,1,0]]);
it's probably to do with the fact that M^T = M^-1
so if you're looking at it after you've diagonalized it, you're raising the eigenvalues on the diagonal to the -1 power, and you have the exact same eigenvectors from this perspective
@outer citrus
you're welcome
Statement: If some vector in a list of vectors in $V$ (with a field $F$) is a linear combination of the other vectors, then the list is linearly dependent.
My attempt:
Suppose $v_{1} , ..., v_{m} \in V$
Let $v_{m} = a_{1}v_{1} + ... + a_{m-1}v_{m - 1}$
Subtract $v_{m}$ from both sides and multiply the equation by -1
$0 = a_{1}v_{1} + ... + a_{m-1}v_{m - 1} - v_{m}$
$0 = -a_{1}v_{1} - ... - a_{m-1}v_{m - 1} + v_{m}$
Make a substitution for $v_{m}$
$0 = -a_{1}v_{1} - ... - a_{m-1}v_{m - 1} + a_{1}v_{1} + ... + a_{m-1}v_{m - 1} $
And now distributive property:
$0 = (a_{1} - a_{1})v_{1} +... + (a_{m-1} - a_{m-1}) v_{m - 1} $
Thus we see that there exist $a_{1}, ..., a_{m} \in F$, not all 0, such that the equation above holds, implying that $v_{1} , ..., v_{m} \in V$ is not linearly independent. Q.E.D
Am I right in this one? Thanks for possible attention 😉
nicelagrangian:
Help please
@pearl mirage you're done after the first line, since if $$0 = a_1v_1 + \cdots + a_{m-1}v_{m-1} - v_m,$$ then you have a nontrivial linear combination of $v_1, \dots, v_m$ equal to zero and so the list is linearly dependent
TTerra:
Shit, now that is what I call an overkill when it comes to my proof-writing abilities ehh
Thanks a lot
i tried using dot product formulas and subtracting their sums by y but i dont think its correct
that sounds right to me
once you subtract out the components projected onto u and v, you're only left with the component of y perpendicular to W
it was incorrect 🤔 maybe im bad
Is matrix inversion (not pseudo-inversion) only defined for n*n matrices?
Thanks
Also is there a name for non-pseudo-inversion
I'm inclined to say real inversion but I feel like that implies real numbers
I guess it would be just inverse
alright thanks
If I were to have a n*m matrix and I wanted to be able invert it, would there be any side effect to just adding the appropriate number of identity columns/rows to make it an m*m matrix?
well if u have a n*m matrix then i don't think u can just add a row/column to turn it into a square matrix.
this is wrong (somehow), reading the wiki it seems right but im blind, so who knows:
@quartz compass you think this will work?
can someone tell me if this is true? if det(I+A) = 1 + det(A) ?
It is not true
and i just proved this is true but to make sure, det(AB^t) is equal to det(BA^t)
yes, I agree with taht
question
evaluate the value of p if
50/2 - 65/13 + 40/2 = p% of 80
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 52
e. 36
<@&286206848099549185>
If your question has not been answered for a minimum of 15 minutes, you may use the Helpers tag once. Please do not try to bump your question using this ping unnecessarily. Do not abuse this ping. Do not individually ping users with the Helpers tag without their express permission.
oh my fault
Lmao
are all transformation matrices square matrices?
nope
hmm, how would that work?
sorry, i just started last week and i have very surface level knowledge about this
What exactly do you mean by transformation matrix?
a matrix you use to transform a vector?
Then I mean
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}$
Zopherus:
is a valid matrix to vector multiplication
wouldn't that result in a 2x1 matrix
Sure, but that's still a vector
can i visualise this geometrically?
Yeah
like, what does it even look like to visualize a 2x1 vector in 3d space
Linear transformations can flatten things
Think about the map that takes (x,y) in R^2 to (x) in R
You can geometrically think of this as smashing everything vertically onto the x-axis
ah, that helps
Could I borrow someone's kind attention please, to look over my proof:
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1ahZrhfDurtI2Vx9uCXk7kuJi_4Q2Xjw3Fpuyh-VJWew/edit
I start with a small toy example, and the proof follow directly after.
A. $$\vec{r}= \sum^{m}{j=1} \bigg( \sum^{k}{i=1} \alpha_i \lambda_{i , j}\vec{\mu}j \bigg) = \sum^{m}{j=1} \vec{\mu}j \underbrace{\bigg(\sum^{k}{i=1} \alpha_i \lambda_{i , j} \bigg)}_{\makebox[0pt]{\tiny these are only scalars and have no vector component}} $$.
ninnymonger:
I pull a stunt like the above and I was wondering if that's intuitive. (It's not intuitive to me so I had to make the toy example to render it comprehensible.)
Sorry to ask a stupid question but what operation would take Vector A to the object space of Vector B
what's object space
Relative space
Like the coordinates of Vector A using Vector B as the origin
Would it just be A - B
yeah
Sorry about that, obvious questions are tripping me up lately
I'm learning about rotation matrices and nothing is definite in my head anymore
but those aren't real terms like if you say relative space nobody is going to know what you mean
Object space is a game development term
Is it possible to prove $|x| < \sum_{i=i}^{n}|x_{i}|$ without comparing $<x,x>$ and the summation squared, i.e. ideally using cauchy/triangle inequality?
1a2b3c:
nvm I think i got it
dot product, perpendicular, etc, etc
i think it's more fun to derive the "formula" presented in that theorem rather than wield it in computations
show work?
If V is a vector space over the field K with V different from empty, then always exists a subspace W of V such that W is different from V
Is true o false?
What do you think?
I think is true because the addition of its components and multiplication with scalar are always in K
Can anyone help me with this question?
Prove the columns of AB are a linear combination of the columns of B
(nice problem)
How can I show that without knowing the matrices?
just give them arbitrary column vectors
worth noting that the columns of AB would be linear combinations of the columns of A.
Can I just use any random vectors?
u could say B = [v1 v2 v3 v4 v5] for some arbitrary vectors in R3 for example
wouldnt B be in R5?
B is a matrix, but since it has 3 rows, the columns are vectors in R3
Ah right
Im having trouble showing what AB would look like using the arbitrary vectors
By the definition of matrix multiplication, if B = [v1 v2 v3 v4 v5] then AB = [A(v1) A(v2) A(v3) A(v4) A(v5)]
i.e. AB is the matrix you get by applying A to each of the columns of B
Right so I have to show A(v1) ... A(v5) is a linear combination of v1 ... v5?
@open pivot you can't pick a specific vector, because the statement asks you to prove for all
well, so you want to show that the set {A(v1), A(v2), A(v3), A(v4), A(v5)} does not form a basis for R5, i.e. the set is not spanning or not linearly independent
these are arbitrary vectors nicholas?
nono replying to >can I just use any random vectors
ah ok
there are statements that are true about some things that are not true for all things
for example, I claim all numbers are even
I will pick a random number
I pick 123456
this is even
QED
how can I show they form the basis if they're arbitrary?
well, for your next hint. Look at the columns of B. Are they linearly independent? The columns of B are made up of 5 vectors in R3
so they're linearly dependent right?
why
you cant pivot in every column
sure okay. Using what we know about the columns of B, try to show that ${A(v_1), A(v_2), A(v_3), A(v_4), A(v_5)}$ is also linearly dependent. In other words, there exists scalars $c_i$, at least one of which is nonzero, such that $$\sum_{i} c_i A(v_i) = 0 .$$
After unpacking the definitions, this is what you have to prove.
kxrider:
np
note that this is a very direct way of proving this. It is actually equivalent to the fact that ker(B) \subset ker(AB)
is what I'm doing here "kosher"? (i'm worried i've made a grave error somewhere)
The end result should be this, which I hope is also okay: $$\vec{r}= \sum^{m}{j=1} \bigg( \sum^{k}{i=1} \alpha_i \beta_{i , j}\vec{\mu}j \bigg) = \sum^{m}{j=1} \vec{\mu}j \underbrace{\bigg(\sum^{k}{i=1} \alpha_i \beta_{i , j} \bigg)}_{\makebox[0pt]{\tiny these are only scalars and have no vector component}} $$.
ninnymonger:
me eyes
(you'd hate to see the source), the underbraces are the only thing keeping my head oriented to what's going on.
and yeah, it looks fine to me, all you are doing is switching the order of the sum
i can't find a source on when switching the order is legal, and when it's not legal.
this is my attempt at math ad lib
well, it's not legal when k depends on j, but you probably knew that
can you explain that please?
this post here is an example of how things are a little more involved when m depends on i, you can sometimes still swap the order but you have to change things to make it work: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1876828/how-to-change-the-order-of-summation/1876838#1876838 This paper deals with how it is legal to swap indices when the limits don't depend on the index. http://www.math.ubc.ca/~feldman/m321/twosum.pdf
I think there's a typo on page 2 though
and yeah I meant "m depends on i" or "k depends on j" depending on which way you are going. The limits of the innermost sum can't depend on the summation variable of the outer sum, if you want to swap with no other changes.
my beta variable depends on both
so?
so i had to keep it in the inner most nested sum
yeah
tyvm for these resources!
oh, lol. thats the same MSE page im going trough trying to comprehend all the answers.
~~hi ninny
~~
Says the ninny
So in my proof, I don’t ever mention linear independence! Is that a mistake?? Do I need to appeal to linear independence some way or another?
A list is linearly dependent if it is not linearly independent. Any mention of linear dependence would be linked automatically with linear independence.
@dreamy iron
Abhijeet Vats:
@cursive narwhal thank you
you're welcome
Linear dependence doesn’t imply the coefficients sum to 0, or $\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_i=0$, because you can have $-1\cdot(0,1)+1\cdot(0,1)=(0,0)$ but $\lambda_1+\lambda_2=-1+1=0$. What you need to mention is that if $\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_i=0$ then $\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_i\vec{v}i=\sum{i=1}^m\lambda_i=0$ then by linear independence of $\vec{v}$’s we have $\lambda_1=\cdots=\lambda_m$ contradicting the fact that not all coefficients are 0. Therefore $\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_i$ is not zero, which allows you to divide by that on both sides
Whoever:
@dreamy iron
If A_nxn is a invertible matrix then A is product of elementary matrix of order n
Is this statement false o true?
Thank you 😄 yes i just do it
oh
and if you have multiple planes, you have PI_1, PI_2 and so on
weird, google didn't give me a result
what kind of results exist for norms of products of matrices?
like i know |AB|_2 <= |A|_2 |B|_2
but can we say anything about 1-norm?
where 1 norm is sum |a_ij|
lazy answer: show that your norms are equivalent, and then work with your inequality |AB|_2 <= |A|_2 |B|_2 a little bit
Quick question, how would I read this out loud?
context?
Just a true or false question, I think I might've read over how to voice this in the book and forgot it
I got the answer right, but I blanked on how to read that out loud lol
ive never seen that kind of notation before so i have no clue 😐
Dang, it has something to do with the change-of-coordinates matrix stuff
I think it is matrix P B to C, given that the arrow is pointing from B to C lol
But I could be wrong
on how to read it out loud I mean
if that's the case then you could just say exactly that
"change of basis matrix from B to C" or some equivalent sentence
Alrighty, thanks :D
as long as the person you're talking to understands what you mean
Fair enough, I'm sure my teacher will be able to understand what I am getting at, especially if I have the notation in front of us lol
i don't think that notation is very standard so you might want to be careful using it outside of your class
What is the standard for this?
but if it's for your class then you might as well use it
uh
i think it would just be "let P be the change of basis matrix..."
Ah okay
my first year LA book used something like $$P = [I]_B^C$$
TTerra:
then again, i could be wrong, im only saying it might not be standard just cause ive never seen it before
Interesting, I haven't seen that kind of notation, what was the book? I'm using my math lab for my class
Some Pearson book
"linear algebra" by friedberg, insel, spence
Oh okay
it stands for the matrix of the identity transformation $I : V \to V$ relative to the bases $B$ and $C$, which is exactly what a change of basis matrix is
TTerra:
Interesting, I need to study up more on this stuff haha
can someone help me (b)
i see it often enough, though C<-B is written as a subscript, not entirely under P
just curious, where have you seen it?
occasionally on this server when helping out with LA hw
yeah that makes sense, thanks
guess i shouldnt jump to "that might not be standard notation" so fast
guess not but it was good of you to ask duke to clarify what they read
Sorry for not giving enough context at first
it's fine, this sort of thing is more common than you think
@untold citrus what does the hint for part b say?
if you did the calculations i think you did for part (a) then you should be able to figure out the null and column spaces of B
null space is just making it = 0
in 3(a) is really long i did
the null space of B =
[1 1 -1] = 0
[1 -1 2] = 0
[1 0 1] = 0
``` to find the null space right?
you are supposed to solve the equation $Bx = 0$ for $x$, which can be done by row reducing (which i am assuming is what you did in part (a))
TTerra:
yes to find b^-1
rref i got is
[ 1 0 0 1 1 -1]
[0 1 0 -1 -1 3]
[0 0 1 -1 -1 2]
of B
B^-1
[1 1 -1]
[-1 -1 3]
[-1 -1 2]
well, one way you can solve $Bx = 0$ is by multiplying both sides by $B^{-1}$
TTerra:
iirc you can also do it by row reducing the augmented matrix (B | 0) (i'm not gonna try to format that)
but you already know what B row reduces to by part (a)
which should make it straightforward to find the null space
row reduction
goes to
[1 0 0]
[0 1 0]
[0 0 1]
okay, now to find the null space you can solve the equation $rref(B)x = 0$ for $x$
TTerra:
Does anyone here know how to unlock a protected ms word file?
i dont think this is the right channel
squash99 this is not right channel for that go to programming channel mostly likely they can help you on that
can someone help me visualise this
i cant really visualise it as it's 3 unit vectors
since they're 1 each
1 + 1 -1 = 1
how do you define 'unit vectors'?
components of an arbitrary basis? of the standard basis?
just a vector of length 1?
i would define them as vectors with a length of 1
not sure what you mean
tterra i believe my professor want to use the NM4 in 3b how would that apply there?
i dont know because i dont know what that is
oh
"NM4" is not a standardized term
i also have to go very soon so ill let someone else help you
good luck!
hmm
dot product of any vector by itself is
just 1
well, these arent the same vector
well specifically unit vectors
there, 2 and 3 are equivalent
since B row reduces to the identity, its null space, by 3, is the zero vector
^
im sure you can figure out the row space calculation and the linearly independent columns now
i do it and come back see if is correct by you guys is that ok?
so this is what i see in my notes:
Notes on Permutations
For the equilateral triangle, the permutation a = (123) represents a
120-degree rotation about an axis perpendicular to the triangle, while
the permutation b = (23) represents a 180-degree rotation (or a reflection) that interchanges vertices 2 and 3. The product ba (a followed
by b) of these two permutations, (23)(123), is equal to (13). Why?
• (123) takes 1 to 2, then (23) takes 2 to 3.
• (123) takes 2 to 3, then (23) takes 3 back to 2.
• (123) takes 3 to 1, then (23) leaves 1 alone.
• So the net effect of ba is to interchange 1 and 3.
Similarly, the product (13)(12) is equal to (123). Why?
• (12) takes 1 to 2, then (13) leaves 2 alone.
• (12) takes 2 to 1, then (13) takes 1 to 3.
• (12) leaves 3 alone, then (13) takes 3 to 1, .
• So the net effect is 1 → 2 → 3 → 1.
i am very very confused
what the logic with the first four bullet points that is the proof to "(23)(123), is equal to (13)"
do you know how cycles work?
no, what are cycles?
uh
cycles are the way you write permutations
so (23)(123) is a cycle
(13) is a cycle
etc
oh ok
the idea is, they tell you where you send each number
in each indivudal bracket, each number is "sent to" the one to its right
so in (123), 1 is sent to 2, 2 is sent to 3, and 3 is sent to 1 (it loops back around)
if you have a product of cycles, then you continue this right-to-left through the entire product
so for example
in (23)(123)
we go right-to-left so start by applying (123) and then (23)
i.e.
1 gets sent to 2, then 2 gets sent to 3 [so 1->3]
2 gets sent to 3, then 3 gets sent to 2 [so 2->2]
3 gets sent to 1, then 1, since it's not written, gets sent to 1 [so 3->1]
hence this is the cycle that sends 1 to 3, 3 to 1, and leaves 2 fixed
this is the cycle (13)
wait what do you mean [so 1->3} in the first line
look at (23)(123) and try and track where 1 goes
first we apply the right cycle (123)
so 1 gets sent to 2
then we apply the left cycle (23) to 2 [since 1 was sent to 2 already]
so 2 [previously 1] is sent to 3
so overall the thing that started as 1 ends up at 3
so this permutation puts the thing in the first position into the third position
are you in (23) for the second line?
2 gets sent to 3 by (123) and then 3 gets sent to 2 by (23)
so 2 ends up... right back at 2
i.e. the thing in the 2nd position doesnt move
but that was already written at the end of the first line
so that's why im confused
but ok let me read on
@dreamy iron
@pallid rampart Regarding this:
I tried to understand what you were saying. I'm not sure I understood it 100%, but that's what I took away from your comments.
(do you wannna see the lemma i referenced?)
What I'm saying is, not all $\lambda_i$'s are zero does not mean $\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_i\neq0$
Whoever:
Well the rest was just an example and how the proof is supposed to go, but it seems like you also got the proof
So you're good
thank you kindly sir!
when you say
A = A*
that means every entry of matrix A has to be equal to every entry of its adjoint matrix right?
Yes that is what it means for two matrices to be equal
Hmm ok
prob similar
"similar" here in the sense of row equivalence
i.e. you can get from A to C (and vice versa) via elementary row operations
(alternatively put: they have the same RREF matrix)
i see thanks
wtf is this
i have so many questions
can anyone explain what the point of even defining this is
such a weird and confusing definition
I mean, it furthers the relationship between spaces and their dual maths
Given a map between two spaces, you get a map between their dual spaces (in the opposite direction
and this goes the other way too

does this make sense or
@sonic osprey it did but i had to draw a hecc ton of diagrams to get why T' was in the opposite direction
$\mathcal{M}(T \circ S) = \mathcal{M}(T)\mathcal{M}(S)$
soαρ:

