#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 89 of 1
yeah, like x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 2 is contained inside it
(0,0,0) works, to give a specific point as well
it might help to think about x^2+y^2<=3 first if the 3D case is not as comfortable to you, but that's all it means
When I was able to graph the sphere it clicked
ok quick question, what's the radius of the sphere? 😛
well 3 is r^2, so it'd be sqrt(3) I'd say ?
perfect 👌
3 because thats the number of rows?
no
oh 1
Because there is only multiplicity 1
Looking at my notes
Where as this one its 3 because the eigenvalue is 3 with multiplicity of 3
Ah so I would need to calculate and see how many eigenvectors
There were 2
So it would be 2
If I restrict the domain of a diagonalizable linear map F:V -> V in a way that it is still an endomorphism, and I know that $\text{dim Eig}(F, \lambda) = \mu(P_F, \lambda)$, shouldnt the amount of zero's of the eigenvalues (denoted by $\mu(P_F, \lambda)$) be the same for the eigenvalues of the restricted linear map?
Nabil:
if the eigenvalues under the restricted map are a subset of the eigenvalues of F ofc
The amount of zeroes? You mean the multiplicity of the eigenvalue zero? Because no, that might change. E.g. restrict the 2x2 zero matrix to a one-dimensional subspace, suddenly you only have one zero left.
hm maybe I should clarify what the mu means
I mean the multiplicity of any eigenvalue of F restricted
not necessarely 0
was my bad since idk the terms in english
ah perfekt
aber die vielfachheit des eigenwerts kann sich trotzdem verringern
da geht mein beispiel trotzdem noch
naja ums konkreter zu machen: Ich hab zwei Abbildungen $F,G: V \to V$ die diagonalisierbar und die Eigenschaft $F \circ G = G \circ F$ haben. Ich habe schon gezeigt dass $F(\text{Eig}(G,\mu_j)) \subseteq \text{Eig}(G,\mu_j)$ deshalb hab ich $F$ auf $\text{Eig}(G,\mu_j)$ eingeschränkt (da es trotz allem ein endomorphismus bleibt) und wollte zeigen dass die auf diese bestimmte menge eingeschränkte lineare abbildung weiterhin diagonalisierbar ist
Nabil:
hm, ich glaube auf der einschränkung solltest du immer noch eine basis von eigenvektoren haben
ja da der Eigenraum von G ja selbst ein Unterraum von V ist
das war mein Gedanke
zumindest
hmmm da muss man wirklich ein bisschen denken irgendwie 😄
ich denk mal ein bisschen
okay, ich war zu dumm und musste googlen, irgendwie ist das ein bisschen nichtstandard, aber der beweis ganz unten ist ganz nett: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/62338/diagonalizable-transformation-restricted-to-an-invariant-subspace-is-diagonaliza
Can someone explain adjacency matrices to me? Can anyone explain adjacency matrices? heres a picture for example, and i think i set it up right but i just want to be sure:
Like for example, I got the adjacency matrix for picture a to be:
[0 1 0 1]
[1 0 1 1]
[0 1 0 1]
[1 1 1 0]
this is becauyse vertex 1 is connected to 2 and 4, v2 is connected to 1 3 and 4, v3 is connected to 2 and 4, and v4 is connected to 1 2 3
I think that makes sense, but now im asked to find which picture can be drawn without lifting a pencil or drawing on top of an already drawn line. Its obviously a.), but im not sure how to show that using the idea of adjacency matrices
are you sure that the questions are supposed to be related to adjacency matrices
@placid oracle is that the right diagram for adjacency matrices?
if it was a closed loop I could give an answer
in that case you can nearly raise the adjacency matrix to the number of edges it has and take the trace to see how many paths there are, but this doesn't quite work always
you could also have cycles that divide the number of edges so you have to remove them by inclusion/exclusion
and this is immediately given by mobius inversion
like for instance, let's say it has 6 edges, like c.) it has two loops of 3 so raising it to the 6th power would give a false positive since there are paths that end where they started in 6 steps
that's what the mobius function would account for and remove
$\Tr(A^n)=\sum_{d|n} c(d)$
Merosity:
$c(n)=\sum_{d|n}\mu(n/d)\Tr(A^d)$
Merosity:
too bad this doesn't answer your question
I'm trying to add two vectors and find the magnitude of the resultant vector. I already know how to do this and I've been using the cosine rule. However, this calculator that's specifically designed for this returns a different result than the standard formula and I've been trying to figure out why.
The vectors are: A = {108°, 63}, B = {190°, 17}.
From cosine law I got 62.92 for the magnitude of the resultant vector, but the calculator says it's 58.34.
The calculator's a flight computer called CX3 and this is actually a wind/course question.
Does anyone know how 58.34 was derived?
Uh, nasty, degrees.... not radians
HELP
I've been trying to figure this out for the past 9 hours

Is there like a numerical discrepancy between sine law and cosine law?
Wait, what is the actual problem?
when you say 108 degrees and 190 degrees, are you measuring from the same axis
i'd assume "yes" but just making sure
because im getting neither 62.92 nor 58.34
Where do you even use vectors in polar coordinates with degrees like that?
Instead of radians I mean
Okay
no one measures navigational angles in radians
@wintry steppe can you clarify what you mean by cosine law
i mean... presumably they just mean the generalization of the pythagorean theorem
i'm not sure why it applies here though
oh, i think i see how you got 62.92
vector addition is head-to-tail, but you assumed it was head-to-head (or tail-to-tail) when calculating the angle
in other words, your angle is off by 180 degrees
im still not sure where the computer's 58.34 comes from though
aside: because of this 180 degrees "error" when we try to apply the cosine law, and because cos(180 - x) = -cos(x), we can actually get a formula for magnitude of vector addition based off the cosine law
$\abs{b-a} = \sqrt{a^2+b^2+2ab\cos \theta}$ where $\theta$ is the angle the two vectors enclose
Namington:
note the + instead of -
again, though, i have no clue where 58.34 comes from
maybe you inputted it wrong, or with funky settings
(radians? one vector in metres, another in feet?)
(angles measured from a different axis?)
(etc)
if this picture helps clarify where your confusion is
@limber sierra yes, they're all measured from the true north pole.
@limber sierra I don't understand what you mean by 180 deg?
it's assumed that the wind is coming from 190 deg.
sorry, should've clarified that.
yes, and my point is that your calculation of the angle of the two vectors is off by 180 degrees
how do I fix it?
add 180 degrees
again though, as i said
this doesnt give the computer's answer
i have no clue where the computer's answer is coming from
which makes me suspicious that something fucky is going on with the settings
like accidentally in radians, or unit mismatch (one in km/h, one in mph?), or whatever
or it's accounting for factors like air resistance?
uh
when you calculate the angle for the cosine rule
your cosine rule calculation should be
one sec
This is what i did
$\sqrt{63^2 + 17^2 - 2(63)(17)\cos(190^{\circ} - 108^{\circ} + 180^{\circ})}$
wait the arrow on 190 deg vector is wrong. it should point the other way
Namington:
why am i supposed to add 180?
draw the picture and you'll see?
I don't see anything
one sec
what's wrong with the way i did?
aside from 190deg vector pointing in the wrong way
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages
, rotate
er
1 sec
this is better
note that we're measuring the angle of the yellow vector from true north
which means the angle needs to go in the same "direction"
also uh, i did it counterclockwise but it seems you did it clockwise
whatever
and the white arrow is true north?
your 108 deg is like 180+ deg
yeah yours and mine are fundamentally the same.
ok let me try that again
notice in my diagram im not using the true north as a reference but Vector A?
plan was to use the parallelogram technique to solve everything, but apparently the answers from CX3 is completely different from mine.
so the ylelow angle here
is what you found
but you'll note that you cant actually apply the cosine law to that
er
FUCKING
bleh
also tha tshould be
190-108
but you know what i mean
anyway, yeah, we cant apply the cosine law here to find the measure of a+b
not directly, at least
i really cant think today
let me think
so u wanna calculate the red angle?
holup
@limber sierra you're right about taking the reciprocal of the wind vector since wind is coming from 190, thus going to 010.
and the cosine law requires you to know the orange angle
but if you note
the green-blue here forms a parallelogram
(or at least it would if my drawing skills were better)
hence given the red angle
we can find teh value fo the orange angle
isn't the angle between the yellow and blue line at the top equal to the angle created by the yellow line and the blue line at the bottom?
by subtracting it from 180 degrees
sure, i dont see why that matters @wintry steppe
ugh i dont wanna draw the diagrams again you should be able to figure it out
I love you guys btw
the point ist hat you're looking at the wrong angle
Thanks so much
you calculated the red angle in my diagram but should be looking at the orange one
(except adjusted to now have a 10 degree ray instead of 190)
i love you more
fortunately you can GET the orange angle easily from the red one
by just subtracting it from 180
since its a parallelogram
I meant i used the wrong angle
[i said "add 180" but]
[when we take the cosine this is equivalent]
[cos(x+180) = cos(x-180)]
I subbed 180 from the answer and got 67 still not the same as cx3 but we'll see
I think i cans olve this
Let me try it on my own
can i try you on my own

i wanna piece of that coconut
anyways if u need help just tell us

lmao ok thanks

😍
nope im back to sqaure one.

ill show u why
forever be doomed lol
if we assume that the straight lines are parallel
then the angle 190 - 108 is same as the interior angle near hdg
even if i were to do 108 - 10 and find the reciprocal of that (so 180 - ans), I still get the same angle.
so, yes, technically you can apply cosine law to find the resultant vector in this case.
but i have no idea why my answer is wrong
jesus christ
what are you even supposed to find? i still don't know 🤣
see the thicc blue arrow that cuts across the middle of the box?
im supposed to find the length of that.
oh
well u have all 3 angles
so
is there a way to get the inverse of a 3x3 matrix without doing the whole standard matrix rref thing?
use adjugate
^
@subtle walrus @wintry steppe super late answer, but yes
So I want to prove that A is invertible if and only if P^-1AP is invertible.Where do I begin?
suppose A is invertible
then $A^{-1}$ exists so you can consider the matrix $P^{-1}A^{-1}P$
Namington:
exploit matrix multiplication associativity to show that this is an inverse of PAP^{-1}
that proves one direction
can you see how i came up with that matrix?
i just did the naive "brute force" thing of trying to force the product to simplify to the identity matrix
anyway, once you've fleshed that out, try proving the other direction
i have this so far:
Let P^-1A^-1P exist. => P^-1 A^-1 P = (PA)^-1P = A^-1```
Then I'm stuck.
I'll use ' for inverse.
The inverse of P'AP is P'A'P, which you can prove by multiplying them together.
Note that this inverse is unique, and needs A to have an inverse, proving one direction.
can't you also use determinant for this
P^-1 A^-1 P = (PA)^-1P
this is not true
just FYI
the argument isnt correct either way but
i wanted to correct this assumpton specifically
$(AB)^{-1} = B^{-1}A^{-1}$ which is not always equal to $A^{-1}B^{-1}$
Namington:
ann laying down fax

can we say λIx = Ax instead of λx = Ax?
Well they're equivalent
the latter is the proper way i think
The latter is the more natural way
But we do use the idea in the first equation
Since
these are the same thing
i like to keep the I, because it is present when A and λ are on the same side of the equation. It makes better sense for me to have it.
i just didn't want to make a rookie mistake.
λx = Ax => λIx = Ax => λIx - Ax = 0 => (λI - A)x = 0 for some nonzero x => det(λI - A)=0
Sure
How do you convert a standard lpp back to canonical form
lpp?
linear programming problem?
what are your definitions of standard form and canonical form?
yeah
most of this list can be proven by cancelling the P and P^-1. No?
Ann:
because they aren't
This is my textbooks definition for canonical form
for standard form my definition is
alright
ok
well
the conversion from standard to canonical is done via slack variables
I guess you would just add a slack variable
you want your slack vars to be positive
well
≥0 rather
the left side falls short of the right side
so $a_{i1}x_1 + a_{i2}x_2 + \cdots + a_{in}x_n + s_i = b_i$
Ann:
I was a little confused on that part but the part I was even more confused on was if you just let the slack variables be slack
i.e. not sure what to do to the slack variables after converting
wdym
they just get added to your set of variables
their coefficients in the objective function are 0
ah so then for example
if it was like z = x1 subject to x1 <= 500000
then canonical would just be z = x1 x1 <= 500000, x1,s1,>=0?
z = x1 subject to x1 + s1 = 500000, x1, s1 ≥ 0
I thought the x1 + s1 constraint would always be >= 0, otherwise how would you do more than one contraint?
our teacher gave us a solution to a problem and I'm confused by it
problem is
this is the first part of the solution I'm confused on
what is cT B
where do the components of C come from
<@&286206848099549185>
for (b) is it better to use an arbitrary p = ax^3 + bx^2..... or p = ax^4 + bx^2..... or does it not matter?
Since your operator is restricted to polynomial of third degree, only polynomials with highest term x^3 are all you need to work with
polynomial of third degree
degree less than or equal to 3
@tired flint you let p be an arbitrary vector in the domain of T which is P_3 not P_4, so the leading term of p(x) is definitely of the form ax^3
can you conclude a matrix has no free variables if the non trivial solution only has one possible solution. i.e the entire right side being 2 2 2 2
thank you
@smoky lagoon Do you mean Ax=b has only one solution and b is not the zero vector?
I have a 4x3 matrix representing my basis for a vector space
I have to find an approximation for a new vector, b
I don't know that I understand the question. Can I do matrix multiplication?
How can I find the angle between vector a and b?
I know that i, j, and k are unit vectors, apart from that, I'm pretty lost.
We have a formula for angle in R^2 but I can't find the one for R^3.
i = <1, 0, 0>
j = <0, 1, 0>
k = <0, 0 ,1>
Wait so I just gotta ditch the letters and use the same formula as for R^2 🤔
For any Euclidean Vector Space, we have:
$$\cos(\alpha(x,y)) = \frac{\langle x,y \rangle}{|x| \cdot |y|}$$
where $x,y$ are vectors in that vector space. In this case, $\bR^3$ is a Euclidean Vector Space and you can give it a standard inner product. Basically, the formula that brzig stated above applies here.
Abhijeet Vats:
@wintry steppe
@cursive narwhal I might be wrong, but I think that definition is carried over to any real inner product space, Euclidean or not.
For another example of a linearly independent list, fix a non-negative integer m. Then (1,z,...,z^m) is linearly independent in P(F). To verify this, suppose that a0, a1,...,am, belonging to F are such that: a0 + a1z + ... + am*z^m = 0, for every z belonging in F.
If at least one of the coefficients a0, a1,...,am were nonzero, then the above equation could be satisfied by at most m distinct values of z; this contradiction shows that all the coefficients in the above equation equal 0. Hence (1,z,...,zm) is linearly independent, as claimed."
Im a bit confused as to what the contradiction is
I think I see it but someone should check this logic:
What you really have with that polynomialish thing is a homogeneous system of equations.
If (a0,...,am) is a solution to the homogeneous system, then it must be a solution no matter what z is
This is of course satisfied if all of them are zero because then you have the zero polynomial
If they arent all zero, though, then you have a regular polynomial of degree less than or equal to m.
For how many values of z could that polynomial then be zero? @ocean sequoia
For example, say a solution ended up giving you a cubic polynomial
a0+a1z+a2z^2+a3z^3=0
How many solutions could there be?
wait no an infinite number lol
Up to 3 if any of the coefficients are nonzero, but yes infinitely many if they arent
which in this case would be m
So if there are only 3 values of z such that that polynomial is zero, then that polynomial is not always zero which goes against that equality
Or up to m, yeah
thats alot for me im have to sit on this for a bit i think im starting to get it tho
thanks so much!
np. yeah its a bit abstract
Hi! i have a doubt about how can I get the solution of a vector.
I have the vector (2,3,1) and I have 2 of the 3 components (3,3,9) and (2,1,0) and I have to find the third one that it's (x,y,z)
How can I start that problem? 🙂
uh, im not sure what you're asking
do you mean you're soving $\begin{pmatrix}2\3\1\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}3\3\9\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix}2\1\0\end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix}x\y\z\end{pmatrix}$?
Namington:
The first one is the vector, and the other 3 are the components of the vector (v1=v11,v12,v13)
I study in catalan, so it's a bit difficult to explain it in english sorry 😒
That's the exercice I am doing 🙂
slack variables get added to the maximization function right?
Have you tried a few? Haha.
What about with [0,1]? [1,0]?
Oh wait, you almost have it. The negative is the only thing that's off
Have you actually tried those examples?
multiply 4 with x and 8 with y and set that equal to 0
then multiply 2 with x and 4 with y and set that to 0
Just is log3(x) by definition
so its c?
Yaya
Convert them to exponentials
ok and then
And then they're each obvious haha
Well, some of them will be weird, but that's how you know they're wrong
tbh i dont know how to do this because this coronavirus online school is so hard
because i have no teacher
ok i turned them into exponentials and i found it thank you, also yeah the answer was C
this is not linear algebra
yeah i know i didnt know where to put it my bad, sorry
Let A be an NXN adjacency matrix of an undirected and unweighted network (a graph) without self-loops. Let 1 be a column vector of N elements all equal to 1. how can i use matrix formalism to write
the vector k whose elements are the degrees k, of all nodes i= 1, 2 = N
how do u find possible values of an unknown element of a square matrix, so the matrix can have eigenvalues?
you just compute the characteristic polynomial like you normally would, and find values for the unknown element that make it factor nicely or whatever.
yeah. i have hthe polynomial. but what then?
i mean, how do i know ho many values there might be?
what is the characteristic polynomial exactly?
lambda squared - lambda - lambdax + x + 9
ok, its quadratic in lambda so u can have at most 2 real eigenvalues. just use the quadratic formula to compute the values for lambda. The important thing is that you choose a value of x that makes the discriminant b^2 - 4ac >= 0.
when the discriminant is >0, you have two real eigenvalues. when its 0, you have one real eigenvalue (with algebraic multiplicity of 2), and when its less than 0, the eigenvalues are complex
so for the answer, we have write down the eigenvalues for all three scenarios?
well, no... what is the question asking? i thought you wanted to know the value of x that gives you eigenvalues (presumably real eigenvalues?).
yes
thats the question
since it is a determiant, we have to choose the one that is equal to 0?
Assuming ur familiar with the quadratic formula, this is exactly the same as finding the value of $x$ that gives the characteristic polynomial $$ \lambda^2 - (1+x)\lambda + (x+9) = 0$$ real solutions. A quadratic equation has real solutions whenever the discriminant $b^2 - 4ac \geq 0$ ( $>0$ if you want two distinct solutions).
kxrider:
i.e. a=1, b= -1-x and c = x+9.
since we are talking about eigenvalues, should the qeuation be equal to zero, instead of more or equal?
no. you set the characteristic polynomial equal to 0 to find the eigenvalues, but I am talking about $$\lambda = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}.$$
when you have an equation $a\lambda^2 + b\lambda + c = 0$. The part inside the square root is called the "discriminant," and it needs to be non-negative to have real solutions, and strictly positive in order to have two \emph{distinct} real solutions.
send a picture of your question
@wintry steppe this is all i have
can someone explain to me the different between orthogonal and orthonormal?
@golden garden Orthogonal means means that two things are 90 degrees from each other. Orthonormal means they are orthogonal and they have “Unit Length” or length 1. ... To get an orthonormal vector you must get the orthogonal vector and then divide each element by a weight so that the “magnitude” is equal to one.
Each vector in an orthonormal list is orthogonal to all the other vectors and each vector has norm 1
orthonormal is orthogonal scaled to unit 1
@cold topaz what were u supposed to do again?
find the eigenvalues
oh
sos u have to subtract that matrix with (lambda)(Identity matrix)
How do u do this
do u know what that is
wait can you explain orthogonal in terms of matrix
oh LOL
@wintry steppe yes. I hve the polynomial
my broother
show me what u have @cold topaz
lambada squared - lambda - lambdax + x +9
what is the question?
it looks like you already have an answer?
oh ok. do you know how to compute the null space of a matrix?
ah ok :p
@cold topaz so that simplies to lambda ^ 2 - 2(lambda) + x + 9
x+ 9 is suppposed to be kept together in this question iirc
u typed this: lambada squared - lambda - lambdax + x +9
u had a " + " infront of the x
u typed this: lambada squared - lambda - lambdax + x +9
@wintry steppe notice I have lambdaX + x 😄
oh haha
@slow scroll wait i confused myself
true
that's where ive stopped.
@sharp merlin yea
it would be a lot easier if i saw a visual
so then u do x1 = 4x 2
like a legit visual of your work
yes, that is correct. If you look at the matrix, if x3 was anything else, there would be a -5 that you can't get rid of
do u know why its saying this is wrong
nvm found the mistake
isnt the 0 vector here if u plug in s and t
make s and t 0
when s=t=0, you get (0,2,0,0)
@wintry steppe yeah. sorry. i was away
no worries.
i was also away for dinner lolo
anyaways u should have lambda ^ 2 - lambda(x) + 9
then u gotta set the equation to 0 and solve for lambda
quadradic. right? @wintry steppe
yes
so are we gonna have two distinct answers or our answer will be from a range?
2 different answers i think
i mean will we have x=y,z. or x is going to be from a range of numbers?
well you don't have a middle number so you wont get actual values
@slow scroll
for this one
its just 3 times 1st vector -2 times 3rd vector right
are u supposed to multiply B with [x]B?
oh
augmented matrix is taking the numbers from a system of linear equations and putting them into matrix form
so u have to find the inverse of B
then multiply it with [x]B
u have to put ba and b2 into augmented matrix
i used a calculator
show me what you got for your inverse
ugh
yah thats what i got too
so now multiply this matrix with the cooridnate vector [x]B
to get x
the final answer in in fractions
but the correct answers is whole numbers
so its def wrong
@wintry steppe
im pretty sure this isnt inverse
it is
that is right
can u reduce [4 4 8] ^ T into [ 1 1 2] ^ T ?
can you repost the original question please? @wintry steppe
thats not from the question, its from the last picture hydra posted
I don't think you can. In the picture the question asked to find [x]b in terms of standard coordinates.
so it would be [4,4,8]
ok
Hi
Yeah, [1,1,2] is a vector in the same direction. But it is not the correct one. Not always correct to "simplify" in math
lol
hi earlten
waddup?
@pale shell No
Mk
o
XD
could be that I know what they are but they are called differently
but I am willing to learn
regardless
Basically R^n is just a space so like R^2 is two dimensional space
oh ok
I know it then
n-1 is a vector that is 1 less
than the dimension of the space
Oh so when you think about span
It is where you have a set of vectors
Do you know what a linear combination is?
yes
Mk
ax + by
So it is all possible linear combinations of those vectors
An example
What do you think the span of the î and j hat are
R2
Yea
but i , j , k are R3 right?
Mhm
and i, j ,k are the basis vectors usually right?
For R3 they are
I see, in that case the answer is no. You cant span RN with n-1
for R3 you would need 3 or more vectors
however each vector can have less than 3 dimensions i think.
Wot
like ijk
Wait but in R3 vectors are defined as having three entries
oh. Sorry I misunderstood then.
When you asked whether the space R^n can be spanned with n-1 vectors
I thought you were referring to the amount of vectors when you said "n-1"
How
Think about it this way
you are in R3
there are 2 vectors
imagine any 2 vectors you want
there is 1 plane that contains those vectors
I can visualize that
there is a vector that is normal to that plane
that vector cant be expressed using the 2 vectors
But I mean a proof generalizing that to R^n
Wot
you know what a dot product is?
it should work because you need to prove that all the vectors lie on a "plane"
and has a vector normal to it
"plane" doesnt have to be 2d plane
yeah
hmmm.....
Let me first start with R2
n -1 vectors. So 1 vector
V = [x,y]
there is a vector perpendicular to the 1d "plane" of V.
A = [a,b]
V dot A = xa + yb = 0
this linear equation can be solved.
there is a solution. therefore for R2 n-1 vectors are not enough
now for R3
n-1 vectors. So 2 vectors
V = [x,y,z]
W = [g,h,i]
Wait
Now we have the perpendicular vector
Wot
oh nvm
mistake
yeah I forgot to add 3 entries to the vectors, did 2 instead
now we have perpendicular vector
A = [a,b,c]
xa + yb + zc = 0
ga + hb + ic = 0
This system should be able to be solved I think.
so for Rn
there will be n-1 equations in the system of linear equations
each with n terms
I think if we can prove something like "if there are n terms in each equation, n-1 linear equations can be solved"
then we are done
Yeah
Well wait
That means there is a free variable right
If you have more variables than equations
oh yeah
a,b,c are the variables
the xyzghi are the constants
hmmm
Wait!
Wait!
I know!
?
the system of linear equations only needs at least 1 solution
doesnt have to be exactly one solution
if there is a free variable
it means there are infinite solutions
There we go
so for R^n, if you pick ANY n-1 vectors
there will be infinite amount of vectors that are perpendicular to all n-1
👌
But why did you set the dot product equal to zeor
because there is a theorem in mathematics
if the dot product of 2 vectors is 0
they are perpendicular.
or are you referring to
a1b1 + a2b2?
When you dot two vectors
You are essentially projecting one onto the other, then multiplying the length of the projected vector by the length of the other vector
Yeah hahaha.
The math way to say that is ABcos(theta)
so if the dot product is 0
it means the projection is 0
which means perpendicular.
Yeah
I guess that is how it would have to work out because
That is the only factor which could possibly go to aero
Yeah so for Rn there are n-1 linear equations which equal 0. Each has n terms
since there is always a free variable
there are always infinite vectors.
that cant be spanned using the n-1 vectors
Very interesting
yeah linear algebra is so powerful. I never realized how powerful it can be until today.
Mhm
When I tried this question.
Can somebody explain what a companion matrix is?
no
no, rent free, that is not true
it's only true for the companion matrix of the polynomial x^n if anything
please do not spread misinformation
@hidden sable the companion matrix of a monic polynomial p is a specially constructed matrix for which p is the charpoly
Hi, is archetype the correct English term for f^-1 (N) ?
ah ok thanks
madmike:
Is the above sufficient to prove the following:
madmike:
?
madmike:
my argument is that if f(x) is in C or in D, the x will be in both sets f(C u D) and f(C) u f(D)
is this wrong?
"if P then (Q and R)" does not exactly prove "Q iff R"
wrong approach
you have a statement saying two sets - f^-1(C \cup D) and f^-1(C) \cup f^-1(D) - are equal
so to prove that, you need to prove that every element of f^-1(C \cup D) is also an element of f^-1(C) \cup f^-1(D), and that every element of f^-1(C) \cup f^-1(D) is also an element of f^-1(C \cup D)
I see, then I'll try starting with proving subset
madmike:
Can I not go like this? 🤔
sure, but this is not linear algebra
for the first two matrices I keep getting that the matrix is diagonalizable for all values of a
But I am having doubts because the question says "THE" value
it also says THE matrix, but lists 3
guess my prof is just dumb
or unattentive to details
😆
regardless maybe ive answered incorrectly anyone can review my method ?
nah that's fine, your result should be correct
hi-speed-quick way: for upper triagonal matrices, you can read off their eigenvalues from the diagonal, so you see that, for example, A1 has the eigenvalues 1, 1 and -2
non-diagonalizability can only happen if you have an eigenvalue which shows up more than once, but less eigenvectors than eigenvalues; however, for A1 there's no problem, because you can even write down explicitly two linearly independent eigenvectors to the eigenvalue 1, namely just (1,0,0), (0,1,0)
and A2 has three different eigenvalues 1, -1 and -2, so this will always be diagonalizable
okay, this doesn't look like the hi-speed-quick way if you write it all out, but it's a way to see diagonalizability without having to do any calculation
Can we discuss these?
for part c , I showed that if C is an eigenvalue of A then C^2 is an eigen value of A^2. And since A^2 is the zero matrix, it's only possible eigenvalue is 0 and hence the only possible eigenvalue of A is 0.
A^2 is not the zero matrix
Oh yeah part (c)
The first one is part (c)

Sorry misread
yeah that seems about right
for part d
I followed the same procedure kinda
if C is an eigenvalue of A then C^2 is an eigen val of A^2
if v is the corresponding eigen vector
then it follows that v = C^2 v
which is true only if C = 1 or -1
which also shows that 1/C is an eigen value
I didnt really show 1/C is an eigen val explicitly
lol
so not really sure
lol
If it looks simple, I usually doubt it a lot
Doesnt that answer part d as well?
i mean e
quickie basic
suppose a b and c are linearly independant in V ( V is a vector space )
prove that a+b , b+c , a+c are linearly independant
in V
use the defn
yea i am just checking solutions
1 sec
c_1(a+b)+c_2(b+a)+c_3(a+c) must equal 0 right?
no
c_is are scalars
you start out assuming that what you wrote is 0
and you wanna prove that c1 = c2 = c3 = 0
yea
yea i got it tysm
1 mroe
is the basis of F^(mxn)
set of columns of ddimension m and rows of dimension n?
im p bad with matrices lol
there's no such thing as "the" basis
yea a*
oh okay sorry
the space of all mxn matrices over a field F
thats F^(mxn) ig
and the set is
i dont know how to write but but basically the set has the column vectors that jsut keeps slidding 1 ( the standard basis ) and the rows the same
with dimensions m and n
1 0 0 0 , 0 1 0 0 ... etc those are the rwos ( m times )
and the same for columns
is this considered a basis
it's not because none of these things are even in F^(m × n)
oh fuck
yea
okay what if i just fill the rest with zeros?
so okay A_ij has zeros everywhere except at ij
is this now a basis?
yea ig am i right?
the set of all these, yeah
it's basically the canonical basis in F^(m*n)
a mxn matrix has m*n entries
yea yea
1 mroe stupid questilon what does F-vector space mean
vector space over F?
yes
👍
so i just wanna recap and ask a few questions , the coordinate of a vector relative to a basis is the n-tuple of scalars that are in the linear combination basically
now does this theorem say
that there exists a matrix ssuch that you can change the coordinate of a vector relative to basis to another?
i am just getting confused with the concepts here ig
essentially yes
yea cool now can u prove this with me?
a basis is just a way of "putting coordinates" on your vector space
how does the book prove it?
that u can change like coordinates
is this how like
in claculusu u change from polar to rectangular?
and stuff?
well, the cool thing is that you can choose the best coordinates
i mean kinda like in calculus
can u prove that with me id get it
the text just confusus me with what he wants to show
i dont understand 1 bit of the proof
lol
are we looking at theorem 7 or 8
no lets look at 8
8 is the more general ig as he said
if we prove 8 we get 7 i think
so iw ant to show that the basis exist
i dont even get the 'it is clear that' lmao
7 you construct the matrix between 2 bases
yea
8 you show that every matrix gives you a basis change
ok, so
this is just a lot of unfolding definitions
if you know (i) is true you can also apply it to any basis vector in your second ordered basis, say
say $a_j'$
Lochverstärker:
you don't know how to represent it in your basis $\mathcal{B}$
Lochverstärker:
but you know the theorem is true, so $[\alpha_j']\mathcal{B} = P[\alpha_j']{\mathcal{B}'}$
Lochverstärker:
but $[\alpha_j']_{\mathcal{B}'}$ is just the zero vector, except in the j'th position
Lochverstärker:
so you can just compute this matrix vector product
what do we get XD
it becomes $P\begin{pmatrix}0 \ \hdots 1 \ \hdots \ 0 \end{pmatrix}$
Lochverstärker:
hmm
yea okay
i dont know how to latex
fuck that i get u
well, you can just compute this
you get the vector $(P_{1, j}, \dots, P_{n, j})$
Lochverstärker:
